AP Psychology Practice Exam


This exam is built from the percentages used by the AP board in building the multiple choice section of the AP exam.
Jacob Simmons
Quiz by Jacob Simmons, updated more than 1 year ago
Jacob Simmons
Created by Jacob Simmons over 8 years ago

Resource summary

Question 1

Wilhelm Wundt and the structuralists studied questions still asked today primarily by
  • (A) behavioral psychologists
  • (B) cognitive psychologists
  • (C) psychodynamic psychologists
  • (D) humanistic psychologists
  • (E) sociocultural psychologists

Question 2

With which definition of psychology would John Watson and B. F. Skinner most agree?
  • (A) Psychology is the science of behavior.
  • (B) Psychology is the science of mental processes.
  • (C) Psychology is the science of behavior and mental processes.
  • (D) Psychology is the science of behavior and mental processes specific to contexts.

Question 3

The question “Is intelligence more influenced by heredity or experience?” deals with a big issue in psychology known as
  • (A) stability vs. change
  • (B) mind-body dualism
  • (C) rationality vs. irrationality
  • (D) structure vs. function
  • (E) nature vs. nurture

Question 4

If Aristotle and Locke, who both believed that what we know is acquired from experience, were alive today, they would best agree with the
  • (A) behavioral approach
  • (B) psychoanalytic approach
  • (C) humanistic approach
  • (D) biological approach
  • (E) psychodynamic approach

Question 5

Organized sets of concepts that explain phenomena are
  • (A) independent variables
  • (B) dependent variables
  • (C) hypotheses
  • (D) theories
  • (E) statistics

Question 6

A quasi-experiment cannot be considered a controlled experiment because
  • (A) subjects cannot be randomly selected
  • (B) subjects cannot be randomly assigned
  • (C) experimenter bias is unavoidable
  • (D) demand characteristics are unavoidable
  • (E) too few subjects participate in the procedure

Question 7

Of the following, which research method is most effective for studying unusually complex or rare phenomena?
  • (A) controlled experiment
  • (B) quasi-experiment
  • (C) test
  • (D) survey
  • (E) case study

Question 8

Of the following, which research method would be most appropriate for investigating the relationship between political party membership and attitude toward the death penalty?
  • (A) controlled experiment
  • (B) quasi-experiment
  • (C) test
  • (D) survey
  • (E) case study

Question 9

Of the following, the strongest positive correla- tion would most likely be shown between
  • (A) an adult’s weight and running speed
  • (B) close friendships and happiness
  • (C) sense of humor and years of education
  • (D) poverty and good health
  • (E) visual acuity and salary

Question 10

John wants to study the effects of alcohol on the behavior of college students. For his study, he spends 5 hours every night for 2 weeks at a bar near a college watching how the patrons act before and after drinking alcoholic beverages. The research method John is employing is a
  • (A) controlled experiment
  • (B) quasi-experiment
  • (C) test
  • (D) naturalistic observation
  • (E) case study

Question 11

Of the following, which can establish a cause and effect relationship? I. controlled experiment II. quasi-experiment III. correlational research
  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) I and II only
  • (D) I and III only
  • (E) I, II, and III

Question 12

Ms. Costas owns a business with nine other employees. Ms. Costas’s annual salary is $90,000. Her manager’s salary is $60,000. Of her other employees, three earn $25,000 each and five earn $15,000 each.The range of this distribution is
  • (A) $ 75,000
  • (B) $ 50,000
  • (C) $ 25,000
  • (D) $ 20,000
  • (E) $ 15,000

Question 13

A neuron without terminal buttons would be unable to
  • (A) receive information from neighboring neurons
  • (B) generate an action potential
  • (C) direct the synthesis of neurotransmitters
  • (D) secrete neurotransmitters to postsynaptic neurons
  • (E) transport ions across the cell membrane

Question 14

Paul Broca found that the loss of the ability to speak intelligibly is associated with damage to a region of the brain in the
  • (A) thalamus
  • (B) right parietal lobe
  • (C) right occipital lobe
  • (D) left temporal lobe
  • (E) left frontal lobe

Question 15

Scientists are able to see changes in the brain as it processes information by means of
  • (A) lesioning
  • (B) autopsy
  • (C) CT
  • (D) MRI
  • (E) PET

Question 16

The simplest behaviors we carry on
  • (A) are learned when we are infants
  • (B) do not involve the central nervous system
  • (C) are called instincts
  • (D) include sneezing and blinking
  • (E) must be processed by the medulla

Question 17

Mr. Jenkins’ suffered a “stroke” as a result of a brain injury. Although he can still move the fingers on his right hand, he has lost sensation in these parts. Of the following, the site of damage to his brain is most likely in the
  • (A) right frontal lobe
  • (B) right temporal lobe
  • (C) left frontal lobe
  • (D) left parietal lobe
  • (E) hypothalamus

Question 18

Of the following, which are located exclusively in the central nervous system?
  • (A) afferent neurons
  • (B) interneurons
  • (C) efferent neurons
  • (D) glial cells
  • (E) effectors

Question 19

Which of the following glands interact(s) most directly with all of the others to help regulate body processes?
  • (A) pituitary
  • (B) adrenals
  • (C) parathyroids
  • (D) thyroid
  • (E) ovaries

Question 20

The part of the brain most closely associated with maintaining balance and the coordination of complex sequences of movements is the
  • (A) hypothalamus
  • (B) thalamus
  • (C) pons
  • (D) medulla
  • (E) cerebellum

Question 21

Loss of the ability of the brain to produce adequate levels of dopamine often leads to
  • (A) aphasia
  • (B) Alzheimer’s disease
  • (C) Parkinson’s disease
  • (D) bipolar disorder
  • (E) amnesia

Question 22

Mechanical energy of vibrations is transduced to the electrochemical energy of neural impulses at the
  • (A) retina
  • (B) lens
  • (C) cochlea
  • (D) olfactory mucosa
  • (E) taste buds

Question 23

Of the following, which bend incoming light rays to focus an image on the retina? I. cornea II. iris III. lens
  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) III only
  • (D) I and III only
  • (E) I, II, III

Question 24

When food supplies may be unsafe, which of the following would have an adaptive advantage over most other people? I. Supertasters II. Average Tasters III. Nontasters
  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) III only
  • (D) I and III only
  • (E) I, II, III

Question 25

On its way to the cones and rods of the eye, (in order) light passes through the
  • (A) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, iris, aqueous humor
  • (B) sclera, lens, pupil, iris, vitreous humor
  • (C) cornea, aqueous humor, pupil, lens, vitreous humor
  • (D) sclera, aqueous humor, lens, pupil, vitreous humor
  • (E) retina, vitreous humor, lens, iris, aqueous humor, fovea

Question 26

Neural impulses go directly to the cortex without passing through the thalamus from receptors in the
  • (A) retina
  • (B) joints
  • (C) cochlea
  • (D) olfactory epithelium
  • (E) taste buds

Question 27

Of the following, which is not a basic taste?
  • (A) sweet
  • (B) salty
  • (C) peppery
  • (D) bitter
  • (E) sour

Question 28

Receptors for kinesthesis are located in the
  • (A) retina
  • (B) joints
  • (C) semicircular canals
  • (D) olfactory epithelium
  • (E) taste buds

Question 29

Carlos was just able to perceive a difference in weight when Maria removed two of the 50 jelly beans from his plastic bag. It is most likely that if Carlos had the jumbo bag of 100 jelly beans, the smallest number of jelly beans he could notice removed would be
  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 16
  • (E) 20

Question 30

As you are reading this question, you are probably not thinking about what you ate for lunch. The memory of what you ate for lunch is most likely in your
  • (A) nonconscious
  • (B) preconscious
  • (C) unconsciousness
  • (D) sensory memory
  • (E) attention

Question 31

Traveling in a jet plane from California to New York is most likely to
  • (A) disrupt your circadian rhythms
  • (B) prevent the onset of REM sleep
  • (C) stimulate your parasympathetic nervous system
  • (D) induce delta brain waves
  • (E) cause withdrawal symptoms

Question 32

According to psychodynamic psychologists, the unconscious
  • (A) processes information of which you are unaware
  • (B) includes unacceptable feelings, wishes, and thoughts
  • (C) is characterized by loss of responsiveness to the environment
  • (D) is synonymous with the preconscious
  • (E) develops after the ego and superego

Question 33

Of the following, which does your hypothalamus regulate over the course of 24 hours? I. body temperature II. hormonal levels III. memory of the day’s events
  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) III only
  • (D) I and II only
  • (E) I, II, and III

Question 34

“Humans developed a unique waking-sleep cycle that maximized our chances of survival,” is a statement most typical of
  • (A) developmental psychologists
  • (B) physiological psychologists
  • (C) psychoanalysts
  • (D) sociologists
  • (E) evolutionary psychologists

Question 35

Which has enabled psychologists to learn the most about sleep processes over the last 50 years?
  • (A) psychopharmacology
  • (B) lesions
  • (C) EEGs
  • (D) CT scans
  • (E) MRI

Question 36

Which stage of sleep is characterized by brain waves with spindles and K-complexes?
  • (A) stage 1
  • (B) stage 2
  • (C) stage 3
  • (D) stage 4
  • (E) REM

Question 37

Nightmares most frequently occur during
  • (A) stage 1
  • (B) stage 2
  • (C) stage 3
  • (D) stage 4
  • (E) REM

Question 38

Once Pavlov’s dogs learned to salivate to the sound of a tuning fork, the tuning fork was a(n)
  • (A) unconditioned stimulus
  • (B) neutral stimulus
  • (C) conditioned stimulus
  • (D) unconditioned response
  • (E) conditioned response

Question 39

Shaping is
  • (A) a pattern of responses that must be made before classical conditioning is completed
  • (B) rewarding behaviors that get closer and closer to the desired goal behavior
  • (C) completing a set of behaviors in succession before a reward is given
  • (D) giving you chocolate pudding to increase the likelihood you will eat more carrots
  • (E) inhibition of new learning by previous learning

Question 40

John loves to fish. He puts his line in the water and leaves it there until he feels a tug. On what reinforcement schedule is he rewarded?
  • (A) continuous reinforcement
  • (B) fixed ratio
  • (C) fixed interval
  • (D) variable ratio
  • (E) variable interval

Question 41

Chimpanzees given tokens for performing tricks were able to put the tokens in vending machines to get grapes. The tokens acted as
  • (A) primary reinforcers
  • (B) classical conditioning
  • (C) secondary reinforcers
  • (D) negative reinforcers
  • (E) unconditioned reinforcers

Question 42

Which of the following best reflects negative reinforcement?
  • (A) Teresa is scolded when she runs through the house yelling.
  • (B) Lina is not allowed to watch television until after she has finished her homework.
  • (C) Greg changes his math class so he doesn’t have to see his old girlfriend.
  • (D) Aditya is praised for having the best essay in the class.
  • (E) Alex takes the wrong medicine and gets violently ill afterwards.

Question 43

Watson and Rayner’s classical conditioning of “Little Albert” was helpful in explaining that
  • (A) some conditioned stimuli do not generalize
  • (B) human emotions such as fear are subject to classical conditioning
  • (C) drug dependency is subject to classical as well as operant conditioning
  • (D) small children are not as easily conditioned as older children
  • (E) fear of rats and rabbits are innate responses previously undiscovered

Question 44

Jamel got very sick after eating some mushrooms on a pizza at his friend’s house. He didn’t know that he had a stomach virus at the time, blamed his illness on the mushrooms, and refused to eat them again. Which of the following is the unconditioned stimulus for his taste aversion to mushrooms?
  • (A) pizza
  • (B) stomach virus
  • (C) mushrooms
  • (D) headache
  • (E) aversion to mushrooms

Question 45

The three stages of the Atkinson–Shiffrin process of memory are
  • (A) iconic, echoic, encoding
  • (B) sensory, short term, long term
  • (C) shallow, medium, and deep processing
  • (D) semantic, episodic, procedural
  • (E) cerebellum, temporal lobe, hippocampus

Question 46

Which of the following examples best illustrates episodic memory?
  • (A) telling someone how to tie a shoe
  • (B) answering correctly that the Hastings was in 1066
  • (C) knowing that the word for black in French is noir
  • (D) remembering that a clown was at your fifth birthday party
  • (E) long-term memory for the times tables learned in second grade

Question 47

Doug wrote a grocery list of 10 items, but leaves it at home. The list included in order: peas, corn, squash, onions, apples, pears, bananas, flour, milk, and eggs. If the law of primacy holds, which of the following is Doug most likely to remember when he gets to the store?
  • (A) peas, pears, eggs
  • (B) banana, flour, peas
  • (C) apples, pears, bananas
  • (D) flour, milk, eggs
  • (E) peas, corn, onions

Question 48

According to the levels of processing theory of memory,
  • (A) we remember items that are repeated again and again
  • (B) maintenance rehearsal will encode items into our long-term memory
  • (C) deep processing involves elaborative rehearsal, ensuring encoding into long-term memory
  • (D) input, output, and storage are the three levels
  • (E) we can only hold 7 items in our short-term memory store before it is full

Question 49

Which of the following brain structures plays a key role in transferring information from short- term memory to long-term memory?
  • (A) hypothalamus
  • (B) thalamus
  • (C) hippocampus
  • (D) frontal lobe
  • (E) parietal lobe

Question 50

Dai was drunk, so his girlfriend convinced him to get out of his car, and she drove him home in her car. He could not remember where his car was parked when he got up the next morning, but after drinking some liquor, Dai remembered where he left his car. This phenomenon best illustrates
  • (A) the misinformation effect
  • (B) mood-congruent memory
  • (C) the framing effect
  • (D) state-dependent memory
  • (E) anterograde amnesia

Question 51

Phonemes are:
  • (A) the rules of grammar that dictate letter combinations in a language
  • (B) the smallest unit of sound in a language
  • (C) the smallest unit of meaning in a language
  • (D) semantically the same as morphemes
  • (E) about 100 different words that are common to all languages

Question 52

Imprinting is
  • (A) the adaptive response of an infant when its mother leaves a room
  • (B) a maladaptive response of anxiety by an infant when abandoned by its mother
  • (C) a period shortly after birth when a newborn reacts to salty, sweet, or bitter stimuli
  • (D) a period shortly after birth when an adult forms a bond with his or her newborn
  • (E) the tendency of some baby animals to form an attachment to the first moving object they see or hear during a critical period after birth

Question 53

Which of the following topics would a sociobiologist be most interested in studying?
  • (A) whether or not ape communication can be defined as language
  • (B) whether pigeons are capable of cognitive learning
  • (C) altruistic acts that ensure the survival of the next generation
  • (D) aggressive behavior in stickleback fish related to sign stimuli
  • (E) stress and its relationship to heart attacks

Question 54

When asked why he wants to become a doctor, Tom says, “Because I’ve always liked biology and being a doctor will allow me to make a good salary to take care of a family.” His answer is most consistent with which of the following theories of motivation?
  • (A) drive reduction
  • (B) incentive
  • (C) hierarchy of needs
  • (D) arousal
  • (E) instinct

Question 55

According to the Yerkes-Dodson model, when facing a very difficult challenge, which level of arousal would probably lead to the best outcome?
  • (A) a very low level
  • (B) a moderately low level
  • (C) a moderate level
  • (D) a moderately high level
  • (E) a very high level

Question 56

The James-Lange theory of emotion states that
  • (A) emotional awareness precedes our physiological response to a stressful event
  • (B) emotional expression follows awareness of our physiological response to an arousing event
  • (C) an arousing event simultaneously triggers both a cognitive awareness and a physiological response
  • (D) the level of fear we first feel when we ride a roller coaster is reduced each time we experience the same event until thrill replaces it
  • (E) when we are unaware of why we are feeling arousal, we take our cue from the environment

Question 57

Which of the following factors stimulate us to eat?
  • (A) stomach contractions, high levels of glucagon, and stimulation of the VMH
  • (B) high levels of cholecystokinin, high levels of insulin, and stimulation of the VMH
  • (C) lack of cholecystokinin, high levels of glucagon, and stimulation of the LH
  • (D) lack of cholecystokinin, high levels of insulin, and stimulation of the LH
  • (E) low blood sugar, stomach contractions, and stimulation of the VMH

Question 58

Homeostasis refers to
  • (A) arousal of the sympathetic nervous system
  • (B) a tendency for individuals to behave consistently when highly motivated
  • (C) a need state resulting from the physiological experience of hunger or thirst
  • (D) the body’s tendency to maintain a balanced internal state
  • (E) the second stage of Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome

Question 59

What is the response pattern of securely attached children in the Strange Situation when their mothers return?
  • (A) They tend to ignore their mothers because they are secure about her care.
  • (B) Sometimes they run over to their mothers and sometimes they do not; there’s no consistent pattern in their responses.
  • (C) They tend to run over to their mothers and beg them not to leave again.
  • (D) They tend to go to their mothers for comfort.
  • (E) They hit their mothers.

Question 60

In the nature versus nurture controversy, “nature” refers to
  • (A) heredity
  • (B) plants and animals
  • (C) all living things we interact with
  • (D) constituents of the problem
  • (E) the environment

Question 61

Researchers were interested in studying the effects of divorce on children. Their study included 250 4-year-olds. Interviews and family observations were conducted 6 months, 2 years, 5 years, and 10 years after the initial interviews and observations. Which method did the researcher use?
  • (A) cohort sequential
  • (B) cross sectional
  • (C) longitudinal
  • (D) experimental
  • (E) quasi-experimental

Question 62

Object permanence is
  • (A) the belief that all objects have life just like humans do
  • (B) the idea that gender does not change by putting on the clothes of the opposite sex
  • (C) the understanding that a tall beaker and a short beaker can hold the same amount of water
  • (D) a belief that all objects in the world, including mountains and streams, are made by people
  • (E) the understanding that things continue to exist even when they are out of sight

Question 63

The rooting reflex is a neonate’s tendency to
  • (A) open its mouth and turn its head when touched on the cheek
  • (B) throw out its arms and legs and quickly retract them when startled
  • (C) explore the world through sucking objects
  • (D) look longer at round shapes that look like faces than square shapes that do not
  • (E) grasp nearby objects

Question 64

Dorothy just celebrated her 90th birthday with her close friends, and is excited about a visit from her grandchildren. According to Erikson, she has probably most recently achieved
  • (A) isolation
  • (B) integrity
  • (C) despair
  • (D) autonomy
  • (E) industry

Question 65

Mr. Hernandez explains to his son that the speed limit is 55 mph. He tells him to stay under the speed limit when driving because it’s the law and will probably prevent accidents. Kohlberg’s level of morality illustrated by this example is
  • (A) preconventional
  • (B) concrete operational
  • (C) conventional
  • (D) egocentric
  • (E) postconventional

Question 66

A critical period is a stage in development when
  • (A) specific stimuli have a major effect on develop- ment that they do not produce at other times
  • (B) children are resistant to any kind of discipline by their parents
  • (C) new learning is prevented by older learning
  • (D) bonding between the child and parent first takes place
  • (E) the child first enters elementary school and needs positive reinforcement

Question 67

Adam loved the girlfriend who dropped him, but acts as if he’s glad to be rid of her. His behavior most clearly illustrates which of the following Freudian defense mechanisms?
  • (A) repression
  • (B) projection
  • (C) reaction formation
  • (D) sublimation
  • (E) regression

Question 68

Which Freudian personality system is guided by the reality principle?
  • (A) id
  • (B) libido
  • (C) ego
  • (D) unconscious
  • (E) superego

Question 69

In contrast to the blank slate view of human nature held by the behaviorists, humanists believe humans are born
  • (A) evil and instinctively selfish
  • (B) good and with an inner drive to reach full potential
  • (C) neutral and that personality is based on perceptions of reality
  • (D) neither good nor evil, but personality is a product of their environment
  • (E) weak and needing others to find a meaning and purpose in life

Question 70

Which of the following is a good example of a Jungian archetype?
  • (A) John, whose domineering mother’s voice is always in the back of his head
  • (B) Patty, who is haunted by her memories of child abuse
  • (C) Yan, who always roots for the underdog
  • (D) Tariq, who consciously strives to be the best tennis player he can be
  • (E) Kendra, whose power motive influences everything she does

Question 71

Which is an example of a projective test, consisting of a set of ambiguous pictures about which people are asked to tell a story?
  • (A) TAT
  • (B) MMPI-2
  • (C) 16 PF
  • (D) NEO-PI
  • (E) Rorschach

Question 72

In order to determine a client’s personality, Carl Rogers used a Q-sort to measure the difference between
  • (A) self-esteem and self-efficacy
  • (B) ideal self and real self
  • (C) locus of control and self-actualization
  • (D) conditions of worth and locus of control
  • (E) ego strength and need for approval

Question 73

Aptitude tests are designed to measure
  • (A) previously learned facts
  • (B) future performance
  • (C) previously learned skills
  • (D) current competence
  • (E) your IQ score

Question 74

A standardization sample for developing a test
  • (A) should be representative of all the types of people for whom the test is designed
  • (B) is an early version of the test to determine questions that differentiate individuals
  • (C) is a set of norms that will determine what score should be considered passing
  • (D) should include people from all different age groups, ethnic groups, and genders
  • (E) must include a standard set of directions for administering the test that all students will receive

Question 75

If Mrs. Delvecchio compared the scores of stu- dents on the odd-numbered questions on the test with their scores for the even-numbered questions, she would be attempting to determine if the test had
  • (A) content validity
  • (B) split-half reliability
  • (C) predictive validity
  • (D) test-retest reliability
  • (E) concurrent validity

Question 76

Advantages of group tests as compared to individualized tests include
  • (A) that they are cheaper and give more accurate results
  • (B) that they can be given to a large group of people at one time and are cheaper to grade
  • (C) the ability to establish rapport between the examiner and subjects to put them at ease
  • (D) that they have proven to be more reliable and valid in measuring abilities
  • (E) more subjective scoring of results by examiners who evaluate them

Question 77

Which of the following best describes Charles Spearman’s g of intelligence?
  • (A) There are many factors that determine intelligence, but genetics is the most important one.
  • (B) The internal validity of an intelligence test is g.
  • (C) A general intelligence that underlies success on a wide variety of tasks is g.
  • (D) Giftedness is determined by both innate ability to perform and experiences one has in life.
  • (E) The g is measured by the speed with which one can process information.

Question 78

According to Sternberg, which of the following types of intelligence in his triarchic theory are measured by standard IQ tests? I. analytic II. practical III. creative
  • (A) I only
  • (B) II only
  • (C) III only
  • (D) I and II only
  • (E) I, II, and III

Question 79

Hani was unable to tell the difference between right and wrong. Which of the following definitions of abnormal behavior is described in this example?
  • (A) maladaptive
  • (B) insanity
  • (C) commitment
  • (D) statistical
  • (E) personal

Question 80

The behavioral approach attributes the cause of abnormal behavior to
  • (A) internal conflict from early childhood trauma
  • (B) the result of neurochemical imbalances
  • (C) poor self-concept
  • (D) reinforcement of maladaptive behaviors learned through experience
  • (E) irrational and illogical perceptions of reality

Question 81

Which of the following best characterizes a person experiencing obsessive-compulsive disorder?
  • (A) Anna, who hyperventilates whenever she is trapped in an elevator
  • (B) Ben, who returns home seven times a day to see if he has turned off the stove
  • (C) Katia, who complains constantly about feeling sick and goes to many different doctors
  • (D) Kabir, who keeps remembering the plane crash that killed the other members of his family
  • (E) Miguel, who wanders about a town in a daze, not sure who he is or how he got there

Question 82

A soldier who experiences sudden blindness after seeing his buddies killed in battle is best diagnosed with
  • (A) a phobic disorder
  • (B) hypochondriasis
  • (C) bipolar disorder
  • (D) dissociative fugue
  • (E) conversion disorder

Question 83

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the manic state of bipolar disorder?
  • (A) inflated ego
  • (B) excessive talking
  • (C) shopping sprees
  • (D) fearfulness
  • (E) too much sleep

Question 84

A delusion is a
  • (A) phobia of being in a social situation
  • (B) misperception of visual and auditory stimuli
  • (C) faulty and disordered thought pattern
  • (D) first indication of dissociative disorders
  • (E) characteristic of people suffering from dependent personality disorder

Question 85

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
  • (A) delusional thinking
  • (B) incoherent speech
  • (C) hyperexcitability
  • (D) hearing voices
  • (E) flat affect

Question 86

Jenna is telling her therapist about the dream she had last night, and her therapist begins to interpret it for her. Which approach to psychotherapy does Jenna's therapist represent?
  • (A) group
  • (B) behaviroal
  • (C) Gestalt
  • (D) cognitive
  • (E) biomedical

Question 87

In contrast to a clinical psychologist, a psychiatrist is more likely to
  • (A) engage in an eclectic approach
  • (B) use a biomedical treatment
  • (C) recognize the importance of group therapy with patients having the same disorder
  • (D) treat clients in community mental health centers excusively
  • (E) see patients with less serious mental health problems

Question 88

Tommy came to Dr. Chambers seeking help with his fear of heights. First, Dr. Chambers asked Tommy to list all of the situations concerning heights that led to his fear response. After they had ordered them from least fear-provoking to most fear-provoking, Dr. Chambers had Tommy listen to soothing music and slowly relaxed him as he imagined each step. Which of the following best describes Dr. Chambers’s treatment?
  • (A) the exposure technique of flooding
  • (B) systematic desensitization
  • (C) rational emotive therapy
  • (D) aversive conditioning
  • (E) the social cognitive technique of modeling

Question 89

The goal of psychoanalytic therapy is
  • (A) to change maladaptive behavior to more socially acceptable behavior
  • (B) to change negative thinking into more positive attributions
  • (C) to attain self-actualization
  • (D) to unite the mind and body elements into a whole
  • (E) to bring unconscious conflicts to conscious awareness and gain insight

Question 90

Vic is encouraged to take charge of the therapy session and his therapist uses an active listening approach to mirror back the feelings he hears from him. Which therapy is most likely being described?
  • (A) client-centered therapy
  • (B) cognitive therapy
  • (C) psychodynamic therapy
  • (D) existential therapy
  • (E) rational-emotive therapy

Question 91

Mr. Moffatt overheard another teacher describe one of his students as lazy and unmotivated. Though Mr. Moffatt had not previously noted this tendency, he began to see exactly what the other teacher had noted. What might account for this phenomenon?
  • (A) norms
  • (B) deindividuation
  • (C) social loafing
  • (D) self-fulfilling prophecy
  • (E) representativeness heuristic

Question 92

Some difficult cuts needed to be made in the school board budget and everyone on the board knew that there had to be consensus and cooperation. Even though many members disagreed with certain proposals, each one met with unanimous support or defeat. To preserve cooperation, no one offered conflicting viewpoints. Which of the following concepts is best described by this example?
  • (A) group polarization
  • (B) fundamental attribution error
  • (C) groupthink
  • (D) role schema
  • (E) reciprocity

Question 93

A young woman was gunned down at a gas station. A busload of onlookers saw the entire event and no one did anything. The bus driver even stepped over the body to pay for his gas. What social psychological phenomenon best accounts for this behavior?
  • (A) groupthink
  • (B) altruism
  • (C) social impairment
  • (D) superordinate goals
  • (E) diffusion of responsibility

Question 94

You read in the newspaper that survivors in a plane accident in the Andes were discovered to have eaten other survivors during their 32-day ordeal. You will have committed the fundamental attribution error if you
  • (A) attribute the behavior to dispositional (personal) factors
  • (B) attribute the behavior to situational factors
  • (C) think you would have done the same thing if you had been there
  • (D) consider the behavior as a signal for the moral degradation of our society
  • (E) decide never to fly in a plane again

Question 95

Ethnocentrism is the belief that
  • (A) ethnic foods are all good
  • (B) human diversity is a positive force
  • (C) one’s own culture is superior to others
  • (D) other people are all pretty much alike in their opinions
  • (E) cultural pluralism is a destructive goal that fosters conflict

Question 96

The effect of one confederate selecting a different line from the others in the Asch conformity test was
  • (A) continuing conformity by the participant to avoid looking bad to the others
  • (B) the participant asking to vote privately on a separate piece of paper
  • (C) a boost to the self-efficacy of the participant
  • (D) to release the participant from the conformity effect
  • (E) to cause the experimenter to release that confederate in the next trial period, thus ensur- ing continued conformity by the participant

Question 97

Which of the following factors probably plays the least important role in explaining why children often share the same political and economic values as their parents?
  • (A) exposure to mass media
  • (B) operant conditioning
  • (C) they have never questioned these beliefs and do not really understand them
  • (D) modeling
  • (E) mere exposure effect

Question 98

Of the following, which would be a good example of a self-serving bias?
  • (A) Carlos, who feels that everyone should strive to help themselves as well as others
  • (B) Antoine, who says that he has bombed a test even though he always gets an A
  • (C) Mai, who works harder for teachers who compliment her on her efforts
  • (D) Lina, who overestimates the degree to which people agree with her opinions
  • (E) Betty, who believes that she works harder than others and is underappreciated

Question 99

Although Graham has not yet met his future col- lege roommate, he learned that the roommate is a football player. He is anxious and unhappy about sharing his room with a football player because he expects that his roommate will be a “party animal” who makes studying in his room difficult. Graham’s attitude can be classified as
  • (A) stereotype threat
  • (B) prejudice
  • (C) discrimination
  • (D) scapegoating
  • (E) fully justified

Question 100

When asked what they would do if they could be totally invisible and there would be no recrimination, most people answered that they would commit an antisocial act. Which of the following social phenomena might best be able to explain this response?
  • (A) reciprocity
  • (B) group polarization
  • (C) social loafing
  • (D) deindividuation
  • (E) self-fulfilling prophecy
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