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Effective Nursing EOS Exam Quiz

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Undergraduate 1808NRS Effective Nursing Practice Quiz on Effective Nursing EOS Exam Quiz, created by Riana Davis on 03/10/2017.
Riana Davis
Quiz by Riana Davis, updated more than 1 year ago
Riana Davis
Created by Riana Davis almost 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is a HAI?
Answer
  • Health Associated Infection
  • Hospital Associated Infection
  • Health Acquired Infection
  • Hospital Acquired Infection

Question 2

Question
Colonisation defines the... (chose the two applicable definitions)
Answer
  • presence of replicating infectious agents on or in the body
  • a colony of diseased tissue that is dying
  • occurs when there is no production of immune response or disease
  • multiple classes of microorganisms that are attacking the tissue

Question 3

Question
An infection..... (Chose all that apply)
Answer
  • occurs in the reservoir
  • involves the entry and multiplication of an infectious agent within the host
  • will result in an immune response with or without symptomatic disease
  • can always be treated with antibiotics

Question 4

Question
A pathogen is an infective agent
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
A communicable disease is contagious
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 6

Question
The most common HAIs are....
Answer
  • CLABSIs
  • SSIs
  • Latrogenic infections
  • CAUTI's

Question 7

Question
An infection that arises from microorganisms external to an individual that do not exist as the persons normal flora is....
Answer
  • Endogenous
  • Exogenous

Question 8

Question
An MRO is....
Answer
  • MRSA
  • VRE
  • Some Gram Negative bacteria
  • All of the above

Question 9

Question
The Chain of infection's most correct order is......
Answer
  • Reservior - Portal of Exit - Modes of Transmission - Infectious Agent - Portal of entry - Host
  • Infectious Agent - Host - Portal of Exit - Modes of Transmission - Reservior - Portal of Entry
  • Infectious Agent - Reservoir - Portal of Exit - Modes of Transmission - Portal of Entry - Host
  • Infectious Agent - Host - Portal of Entry - Modes of Transmission - Portal of Exit - Reservoir

Question 10

Question
Standard Precautions include (Chose all that apply)
Answer
  • Hand Hygiene
  • PPE
  • isolation
  • reprocessing of reusable equipement

Question 11

Question
The planning of Infection control care involves; Prevention of ______________, and controlling or reducing _____________. It is also important to maintain _______________ to infection, and _______________ family visiting.
Answer
  • infection, exposure, educate, resistance
  • exposure, infection, educate, resistance
  • infection, exposure, resistance, educate
  • exposure, infection, resistance, educate

Question 12

Question
Assessing infection control involves; (Chose all that apply)
Answer
  • Patient susceptibility
  • laboratory data
  • status of defence mechanisms
  • All of the above

Question 13

Question
Asepsis is the presence of pathogenic organisms
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Acute care measures to consider when maintaining transmission based precautions are (chose all that apply)
Answer
  • Transport of patients
  • psychosocial implications of isolation
  • wearing N95 masks at all times
  • no need to wear masks because area is controlled

Question 15

Question
When educating patients and their families in infection control, a nurse needs to include which of the following? (choose all that apply)
Answer
  • Patient susceptibility
  • hygiene practices to minimise organism growth and spread
  • Family members that may be susceptible
  • oral hygiene for both patient and family members

Question 16

Question
As per the diagram - Psychological and cultural dimensions include culture, subculture, and individual culture. Select the two correct answers that outline culture and subculture
Image:
2.1 Psychological And Cultural Dimensions (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • Subculture involves gender, education, experience and age
  • Culture is social norms, values and behaviours, laws and social rules
  • Subculture is religion, social class, special needs and sexuality
  • Culture involves religion and spirituality and language

Question 17

Question
Internal and external factors can determine specific values or behaviours of a person’s family or social group, and contribute to the development of their culture. Which of the following two factors are internal? (Chose one)
Answer
  • Values and beliefs; Norms; thinking style; problem soling style; family loyalties and responsibilities
  • Art and Craft; customs; dietary habits; law system; communication style; family structure

Question 18

Question
Select all of the following that are one of the twelve ADLs......
Answer
  • Eliminating
  • Personal cleansing and dressing
  • body temp
  • mobilising
  • maintaining a safe environment
  • breathing
  • eating and drinking
  • working and playing
  • expressing sexuality
  • They all are ADLs

Question 19

Question
which of the following are types of wound
Answer
  • acute and chronic
  • trauma and pressure
  • venous and arterial
  • all of the above

Question 20

Question
What are the Principles of wound healing in correct order?
Answer
  • Bleeding - proliferative - remodelling - inflammatory
  • bleeding - inflammatory - proliferative - remodelling

Question 21

Question
How do you assess principles of wound healing (select all that apply)
Answer
  • tissue damage - wound history and characteristics
  • tissue perfusion
  • wound bed prep and dressing
  • stage of healing

Question 22

Question
define primary intention (select the most correct answer)
Answer
  • closed with suture
  • includes 4-6 hours after incident
  • granulation of tissue and tissue loss evident
  • closed with suture, without tissue loss

Question 23

Question
What are the four stages of pressure injuries? (Select the 4 correct answers)
Answer
  • 1 - non-blanchable redness, itchy, warm or cool to touch
  • 3 - full thickness skin loss, subcutaneous fat visible, yellow slough
  • 1 - stinging and painful points on bony premises
  • 4 - full thickness tissue loss and exposed bone, yellow slough or black necrotic tissue
  • 2 - partial thickness loss of dermis
  • 3 - skin loss with slight vision of muscles and tendons
  • 4 - only bone visible and all tissue necrotised

Question 24

Question
A wound that ruptures along a surgical incision is
Answer
  • dehiscence
  • evisceration

Question 25

Question
hypertrophic scars are more raised and higher in scar tissue than keloid scars
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
hypergranulation is when death of tissues have already occurred
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 27

Question
A fistula is permanent shortening of muscle or joints (e.g. cerebal palsy)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 28

Question
The STAR skin tear classification system has 3 categories. Identify all of the categories below that are correct
Answer
  • 1a - edges can be realigned and colour is not pale or darkened 1b - edges can be realigned and colour is pale or darkened
  • 2a - edges cannot be realigned and colour is not pale or darkened 2b - edges cannot be realigned and colour is pale or darkened
  • 3 - skin flab is absent
  • 1a - edges can be realigned and colour is pale or darkened 1b - edges can be realigned and colour is not pale or darkened
  • 2a - edges cannot be realigned and colour is pale or darkened 2b - edges cannot be realigned and colour is not pale or darkened
  • 3 - skin flap is lose but necrotised

Question 29

Question
Techniques for assessing the amount of tissue damage in burns include all of the following except:
Answer
  • palmar surface area of patient
  • tudgeons burns scale
  • lund and browder chart
  • Wallace's rule of nines' tool

Question 30

Question
Burn injury is classified according to
Answer
  • Burn TBSA Calculation
  • mechanism of injury, depth of injury and extent of total body surface area
  • BWCP calculation
  • A and B

Question 31

Question
An arterial leg ulcer effects dermis and epidermis of lower legs, where pain is alleviated by elevation
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
______________ is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience select the correct answer
Answer
  • Dying
  • Pain

Question 33

Question
Death is a normal inevitable process. With preparation and education, it can be one of the most profound and rewarding experiences.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
Alterations in urinary elimination include all of the following except...
Answer
  • Urinary retention
  • Lower Urinary Tract Infections
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Urinary obstructions
  • Urinary diversions

Question 35

Question
Wound exudate types are...... (select all that apply)
Answer
  • serous (clear fluid)
  • haemoserous (slight blood stained serous fluid)
  • sanguineous (heavily blood stained)
  • Purulent (containing pus)
  • haemoporous (blood seeps through)
  • fistibulous (tissue extrusion)

Question 36

Question
When assessing wound exudate you look for all of the following except.....
Answer
  • colour: type of exudate or presence of bacteria
  • consistency: thickness or composition
  • Odour: infection or contamination by body pfluids
  • Granulation: proud flesh present
  • amount: light, moderate or heavy

Question 37

Question
Hypoxia signs and symptoms include all except....... (select all that apply)
Answer
  • restlessness/anxiety
  • cyanosis
  • clubbing
  • hyperventilation
  • alertness and increased focus
  • behavioural changes

Question 38

Question
A Pneumothorax is.... (Select the correct option)
Answer
  • a collection of blood and fluid in pleural space
  • a collection of air in pleural space
  • a collection of infected fluid or pus in pleural space
  • Both a and b

Question 39

Question
Maintainance or promotion of lung expansion involves positioning, incentive spirometry, and chest tubes
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 40

Question
Haemoptysis is clear sputum
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 41

Question
Principles of suctioning include all of the following except....
Answer
  • Oro/nasopharyngeal is a clean procedure
  • Tracheal suctioning is a sterile gloves
  • Y catheter is one form of suctioning equipment
  • suction must be applied when withdrawing Y - catheter and must be performed quickly (no longer than 15 seconds)
  • All of these are correct

Question 42

Question
For oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal suctioning the patient can cough effectively but cannot clear secretionstions
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
What are the methods of oxygen delivery? (select all the correct answers below)
Answer
  • Nasal cannula
  • humidification mask
  • nebuliser
  • Hudson Mask
  • Venturi Mask
  • Re-breather and Non Rebreather mask
  • Nares toilets
  • Nasal toilets

Question 44

Question
Nasal Canulas have a litre/minute flow rate of -
Answer
  • 1-4 L/min & 24 - 36 Oz%
  • 5 - 7 L/min & 40 - 50 Oz%

Question 45

Question
Non-breather mask has a litre/minute flow rate of...
Answer
  • 7 - 15 L/min & 65 - 80 Oz%
  • Set to prevent collapse of reservoir & 85 - 100 Oz%

Question 46

Question
A hudson mask litre flow rate is as indicated on device
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 47

Question
Orotracheal and nasotracheal is when patients are unable to manage secretions
Answer
  • True
  • False
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