Week 2 DFT Prep - Equality, CQC, Radiography, Pilot schemes, quality assurance, GDC standard 4

Description

Week 2 DFT prep
Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
Quiz by Rachael Eleanor Alexandra, updated more than 1 year ago
Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
Created by Rachael Eleanor Alexandra about 8 years ago
10
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
According to the Equality Act 2010, how many protected characteristics are there?
Answer
  • 7
  • 8
  • 6
  • 10

Question 2

Question
What act dictates that treatment of employees should not be affected by 8 "protected" characteristics?
Answer
  • Freedom of information act 2000
  • Disability discrimination act
  • GDC Standards for the dental team
  • Equality act 2010

Question 3

Question
The treatment of employees should not be affected due to any of the following 8 protected characteristics A[blank_start]ge[blank_end] D[blank_start]isability[blank_end] Gender r[blank_start]eassignment[blank_end] M[blank_start]arriage[blank_end] and c[blank_start]ivil[blank_end] p[blank_start]artnership[blank_end] R[blank_start]ace[blank_end] R[blank_start]eligion[blank_end] or belief S[blank_start]ex[blank_end] S[blank_start]exual[blank_end] orientation [blank_start]Pregnant[blank_end] women have special protections Employers/service providers must make reasonable a[blank_start]djustments[blank_end] to the workplace to overcome b[blank_start]arriers[blank_end] experienced by d[blank_start]isabled[blank_end] people.
Answer
  • ge
  • isability
  • eassignment
  • arriage
  • artnership
  • ivil
  • ace
  • eligion
  • ex
  • exual
  • Pregnant
  • djustments
  • arriers
  • isabled

Question 4

Question
True or false: the CQC have the right to carry out inspections unnanounced
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
True or false: Comprehensive CQC inspections can be carried out unannounced
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 6

Question
True or false: Focussed inspections by the CQC are usually in response to a specific issue or concern
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 7

Question
True or false: Dental providers do not need to register with the CQC before they begin activities.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 8

Question
The CQC is an i[blank_start]ndependent[blank_end] regulatory body for health and social care services. Providers of care must satisfy CQC registration requirements. They rate providers as such: O[blank_start]utstanding[blank_end] Good Require i[blank_start]mprovement[blank_end] In[blank_start]adequate[blank_end] Rating s[blank_start]uspended[blank_end]. They ask 5 key questions during the inspection process. 1. Are they s[blank_start]afe[blank_end]? 2. Are they e[blank_start]ffective[blank_end]? 3. Are they c[blank_start]aring[blank_end]? 4. Are they well l[blank_start]ed[blank_end]? 5. Are they r[blank_start]esponsive[blank_end] to peoples n[blank_start]eeds[blank_end]?
Answer
  • ndependent
  • utstanding
  • mprovement
  • adequate
  • uspended
  • afe
  • ffective
  • aring
  • ed
  • esponsive
  • eeds

Question 9

Question
True or false: All dental practices were given a comprehensive inspection by the CQC in 2015/2016
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 10

Question
True or false: It is only in comprehensive inspections that the CQC ask the 5 key questions
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 11

Question
How long does a comprehensive inspection usually take?
Answer
  • A week
  • 2 hours
  • 30 minutes
  • A day

Question 12

Question
The CQC may take action on service providers should they identify concerns. Should this concern breach a regulation, they have enforcement powers given to them by which act?
Answer
  • Equality act 2010
  • Health and social care act 2008
  • Disability discrimination act

Question 13

Question
Clinical governance is defined as: "A framework through which NHS organisations are a[blank_start]ccountable[blank_end] for continually improving the q[blank_start]uality[blank_end] of their services and safeguarding high standards of c[blank_start]are[blank_end] by creating an environment in which e[blank_start]xcellence[blank_end] in clinical care will flourish" Put simply, this means that clinical governance means that a service provider is responsible for improving their services and ensuring the services are always excellent in quality.
Answer
  • ccountable
  • uality
  • are
  • xcellence

Question 14

Question
In the primary care dental services clinical governance document, dental radiography requirements state that procedures and policies should be in accordance with which two key documents?
Answer
  • HTM01-05
  • IRR and IRMER
  • Caldicott principles
  • Freedom of information act

Question 15

Question
Dental radiography service providers must ensure that they follow the dental radiography requirements from the Primary care dental services clinical governance documents. These are: 1. Procedures and policies are in accordance with [blank_start]IRR[blank_end] and IRMER 2. A quality a[blank_start]ssurance[blank_end] system is in place 3. X ray m[blank_start]alfunction[blank_end] plan should be stated - including management of over-exposures 4. Records of staff t[blank_start]raining[blank_end] and updates 5. X ray equipment m[blank_start]aintenance[blank_end] records
Answer
  • ssurance
  • IRR
  • alfunction
  • raining
  • aintenance

Question 16

Question
An [blank_start]excellent[blank_end] quality radiograph is given the rating [blank_start]1[blank_end]. This means there are no errors of patient preparation, exposure, positioning, processing, or film handling A [blank_start]diagnostically[blank_end] acceptable radiograph is given the rating 2. This means there are some errors of patient preparation, exposure, positioning, processing, or film handling but they do not detract from the diagnostic utility of the radiograph An unacceptable radiograph is given the [blank_start]rating 3[blank_end]. This means there are errors of preparation, exposure, positioning, processing, or film handling that render the radiograph diagnostically unacceptable.
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • excellent
  • diagnostically acceptable
  • unacceptable
  • diagnostically
  • radiographically
  • practicably
  • rating 3
  • rating 2
  • rating 1

Question 17

Question
Quality assurance in radiography ensures consistently a[blank_start]ccurate[blank_end] diagnostic information, keeping radiation doses to the patient A[blank_start]LARP[blank_end] (according to I[blank_start]RR[blank_end]). Radiographs must be prescribed and j[blank_start]ustified[blank_end], taking into account: P[blank_start]reviou[blank_end]s x rays R[blank_start]easons[blank_end] for taking radiograph Diagnostic b[blank_start]enefit[blank_end] to patient R[blank_start]adiation[blank_end] risk A[blank_start]lternative[blank_end] techniques Radiographs should be carried out in a c[blank_start]ontrolled[blank_end] area.
Answer
  • ccurate
  • LARP
  • RR
  • ustified
  • reviou
  • easons
  • enefit
  • adiation
  • lternative
  • ontrolled

Question 18

Question
The target for grade 1 rated radiographs should ideally not be less than...
Answer
  • 70%
  • 60%
  • %0%

Question 19

Question
The target for radiographs graded 3 should not be more than...
Answer
  • 5%
  • 15%
  • 10%
  • 20%

Question 20

Question
Who should be contacted if a patient receives a dose of radiation much greater than intended?
Answer
  • An RPA
  • The dentists' indemnity provider
  • Practice manager
  • Local trust board

Question 21

Question
What multiple of the intended dose is considered "much greater than intended"?
Answer
  • 10 times
  • 5 times
  • 30 times
  • 20 times

Question 22

Question
Bisphosphonates [blank_start]reduce[blank_end] bone resorption by hindering formation and function of [blank_start]osteoclasts[blank_end]. Bisphosphonates can cause bone fracture and pain. They accumulate at [blank_start]high[blank_end] sites of bone turnover e.g. the jaw and can lead to bone death due to decreased [blank_start]blood[blank_end] supply. This is known as bisphosphonate related [blank_start]osteonecrosis[blank_end] of the jaw.
Answer
  • reduce
  • increase
  • osteoclasts
  • osteoblasts
  • high
  • low
  • blood
  • lymph
  • antibiotic
  • bisphosphonate
  • osteonecrosis
  • osteoradionecrosis
  • osteomyelitis
  • osteogenesis

Question 23

Question
To be classified as BRONJ, necrotic bone must be present in the mouth for more than how many weeks?
Answer
  • 2 weeks
  • 4 weeks
  • 8 weeks
  • 12 weeks

Question 24

Question
True or false: for diagnosis of BRONJ, a patient must have had a history of radiation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
Select all the symptoms of BRONJ
Answer
  • Stratified mucosa
  • Pain
  • Soft tissue swelling
  • Infection
  • Delayed healing
  • Glossitis

Question 26

Question
True or false: A patient should not be advised to stop taking their bisphosphonates even if they present with BRONJ
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 27

Question
True or false: patients on bisphosphonates should avoid dental treatment
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 28

Question
Select all the high risk BRONJ patients.
Answer
  • Treatment for malignant condition
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Paget's disease
  • Previous bronj
  • Corticosteroid use
  • Oral bisphosphonates
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Osteoporosis

Question 29

Question
Why would cessation of bisphosphonate use not impact on a patient's risk for BRONJ following dental treatment?
Answer
  • Bisphosphonates remain in the bone for some time after they've stopped taking it
  • Cessation would increase likelihood of pathological fracture
  • Bisphosphonates act to strengthen bone and would increase the chance of BRONJ if stopped
  • Bisphosphonates prevent secondary infection of extraction sockets

Question 30

Question
True or false: even low risk patients for BRONJ should be referred to maxfacs
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
To reduce the chance of BRONJ, low risk patients may be treated with which of the following precautions?
Answer
  • Referral to maxfacs for routine XLA
  • Atraumatic extractions
  • Surgical extractions
  • Increased time between check ups
  • Denture adjustment
  • Periodontal/preventative treatment
  • XGA for all extractions

Question 32

Question
If a high risk patient for BRONJ arrives at your practice for treatment, who should you ask for advice?
Answer
  • Local maxfacs don
  • Local periodontal expert
  • Primary care trust board
  • Your trainer

Question 33

Question
In what year did the first NHS pilot schemes begin?
Answer
  • 2009
  • 2012
  • 2011
  • 2003

Question 34

Question
NHS pilot schemes have shifted focus towards...
Answer
  • Treatment and repair
  • Prevention and oral health
  • Increased services for non UK residents

Question 35

Question
The two main paradigm shifts in the pilot NHS contracts focus on which two of the following key principles?
Answer
  • Risk assessment and management
  • Renumeration models
  • Treatment options
  • Increased bureaucracy

Question 36

Question
Renumeration models in pilot schemes reward dentists on...
Answer
  • Quality of care
  • Number of treatments
  • Number of treatment courses
  • Quality of premises

Question 37

Question
Type 1 pilots remunerate dentists for providing an [blank_start]expected[blank_end] level of care based on what they were delivering prior to the pilot. This essentially means they are paid based on [blank_start]achieving[blank_end] their average target and not based on financial incentives for increased activity or patient numbers. Providing treatment that surpasses these targets [blank_start]does not[blank_end] provide any benefit to the dentist.
Answer
  • expected
  • increased
  • decreased
  • achieving
  • exceeding
  • does not
  • will always

Question 38

Question
Type 2 pilots are remunerated based on the [blank_start]number[blank_end] of weighted capitated patients they have - capitation weighting depends on the patients age, gender, and [blank_start]deprivation[blank_end] status. The capitation payment system is intended to [blank_start]compensate[blank_end] for the average cost of care for an individual with that capitation weighting. The remuneration is dependent on the number of patients.
Answer
  • deprivation
  • social
  • financial
  • number
  • type
  • compensate
  • incentivise

Question 39

Question
Type 3 pilots are remunerated based on their number of weighted capitated patients also. However; the weighted capitation payment is only for [blank_start]preventive and routine[blank_end] treatment only (i.e. band 3 treatment payments are fixed and not adjusted for with capitation weightings).
Answer
  • preventive and routine
  • prosthodontic and paedodontic
  • endodontic

Question 40

Question
The clinical care pathway was developed for use in the pilot schemes and is based on need/risk pathways. The pathway begins with what clinical activity?
Answer
  • Comprehensive oral health assessment
  • Extraction of hopeless teeth
  • Smoking cessation, diet advice, and alcohol advice as necessary
  • Referral to GP for health assessment

Question 41

Question
According to the clinical care pathway, which of the following are considered the four main causes of poor oral health?
Answer
  • Dental caries
  • Periodontal disease
  • Tooth surface loss
  • Soft tissue conditions
  • Bony abnormalities
  • Delayed development
  • Smoking

Question 42

Question
The clinical care pathway developed for pilot schemes focusses on the patient's need for treatment based on their risk for the [blank_start]4[blank_end] main causes of poor oral health. A [blank_start]comprehensive[blank_end] oral health assessment will identify a patient's risk of these conditions occuring/[blank_start]progressing[blank_end] and the pathway guides clinicians to provide preventive care plans. These plans are based on a red amber green (RAG) system for risk for each of these 4 causes of poor oral health. The care plan provides a platform for [blank_start]communication[blank_end] with patients and aids in transferring [blank_start]responsibility[blank_end] for patient self care.
Answer
  • 4
  • 3
  • 2
  • 5
  • comprehensive
  • brief
  • focussed
  • progressing
  • resolving
  • communication
  • invoicing
  • pizza
  • responsibility
  • money
  • need

Question 43

Question
True or false: pilot schemes using the clinical care pathway put more onus on the clinical for responsibility over the patient's oral health status
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
Clinical care pathway plans based on a patients [blank_start]RAG[blank_end] risk status for dental caries, [blank_start]periodontal[blank_end] disease, tooth surface loss, and soft tissue conditions includes the following; [blank_start]Tailored[blank_end] advice to patients on their oral health and preventive actions they need to take to improve oral health information about prevention regimes implemented by the [blank_start]dental team[blank_end] - interim care management. This includes use of fluoride varnish. Suggested timing for the next [blank_start]oral health review[blank_end]
Answer
  • RAG
  • sexual
  • environmental
  • periodontal
  • gastrointestinal
  • bony
  • Tailored
  • General
  • Brief
  • dental team
  • patient
  • Parents
  • oral health review
  • extractions
  • root surface debridement

Question 45

Question
The GDC outlines a set of standards for education for their quality assurance programme. This ensures the degree is fit for purpose. These standards are: [blank_start]Patient[blank_end] protection Quality evaluation and review Student [blank_start]assessment[blank_end] Equality and diversity
Answer
  • Patient
  • Payment
  • assessment
  • expulsion
  • torture

Question 46

Question
A good q[blank_start]uality[blank_end] a[blank_start]ssurance[blank_end] programme is essential in practice and should cover all aspects of patient care. It should also help the practice work more e[blank_start]fficiently[blank_end] and reduce the kinds of incident that can lead to c[blank_start]omplaint[blank_end] or claim. Review practice p[blank_start]olicies[blank_end] and procedures to ensure they are fit for purpose and encourage members of staff to speak up should problems may arise
Answer
  • uality
  • ssurance
  • fficiently
  • omplaint
  • olicies

Question 47

Question
GDC standard 4: Maintaining and protecting patient c[blank_start]onfidentiality[blank_end]. This standard focusses on the patient's expectation for records to be: - Up to [blank_start]date[blank_end] - C[blank_start]lear[blank_end] - Stored s[blank_start]ecurely[blank_end] - A[blank_start]ccessible[blank_end] should they be requested
Answer
  • onfidentiality
  • date
  • lear
  • ecurely
  • ccessible

Question 48

Question
GDC Standard 4.1 Make and keep c[blank_start]ontemporaneous[blank_end], complete, and a[blank_start]ccurate[blank_end] patient records
Answer
  • ontemporaneous
  • ccurate

Question 49

Question
GDC standard 4.2 Protect c[blank_start]onfidentiality[blank_end] and only use the information for the p[blank_start]urpose[blank_end] for which it was given
Answer
  • onfidentiality
  • urpose

Question 50

Question
GDC standard 4.3 Only release information without p[blank_start]ermission[blank_end] in e[blank_start]xceptiona[blank_end]l circumstances e.g. interests of public, risk to patient. Document efforts to gain consent.
Answer
  • ermission
  • xceptiona

Question 51

Question
GDC standard 4.4 Ensure patients have a[blank_start]ccess[blank_end] to their records Under the data p[blank_start]rotection[blank_end] act 1998. You may charge for this.
Answer
  • ccess
  • rotection

Question 52

Question
GDC standard 4.5 Keep information s[blank_start]ecure[blank_end] at all times wether paper or electric
Answer
  • ecure
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