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Bvms small animals (rabies) Quiz on Past MCQ questions, created by buzzybea1 on 18/02/2014.
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Quiz by buzzybea1, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by buzzybea1 almost 11 years ago
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Question 1

Question
You get a positive result on an in house FeLV test, what do you do next?
Answer
  • Put the cat to sleep
  • There's a 50% chance that its a false positive, so send the blood for confirmation
  • There's a 5% chance that its a false positive, so send the blood for confirmation
  • Give the cat antibiotics
  • Do nothing the prognosis is good

Question 2

Question
Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 1- feline infectous peritonitis
Answer
  • a- Upper respiratory signs
  • B- anaemia
  • C- Ascites
  • D- conjunctivitis
  • E- sudden death

Question 3

Question
Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 2- candidatus mycoplasma haemominutum
Answer
  • A- Upper respiratory signs
  • B- anaemia
  • C- ascites
  • D- conjunctivitis
  • E- sudden death

Question 4

Question
Mach the infectious disease with the major presenting clinical sign; 3- feline panleucopenia virus
Answer
  • A- upper respiratory signs
  • B- anaemia
  • C-ascites
  • D- conjunctivitis
  • E- Sudden death

Question 5

Question
Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding propofol?
Answer
  • It can cause Heinz body anaemia in cats
  • It exhibits low hepatic clearance
  • It is irritant if administered perivascularly
  • If presented in rubber topped vials it can be kept for 72 hrs after first use
  • It causes an increase in arterial blood pressure

Question 6

Question
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange?
Answer
  • Is zoonotic
  • Demodex canis mites are commensal
  • Is a common disease
  • Mostly occurs in dogs under one year of age
  • Can be easily diagnosed

Question 7

Question
Which ONE of the following is NOT a valid treatment for sarcoids in the horse?
Answer
  • Intralesional injection with cisplatin
  • Iridium wires
  • Autogenous vaccine
  • Cryosurgery
  • AW4-LUDES (Liverpool Cream)

Question 8

Question
The anatomical staging system used to assess tumour extent is known as Choose one answer.
Answer
  • MNT
  • MTN
  • NMT
  • NTM
  • TNM

Question 9

Question
Which is the most malignant oropharyngeal tumour Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Acanthomatous equlid
  • Fibrosarcoma
  • Gingival squamous cell carcinoma
  • Ossifying epulid
  • Tonsillar carcinoma

Question 10

Question
In the dog scrotal ablation is definitely indicated for Choose one answer.
Answer
  • castration for inguinal hernia
  • castration for testicular neoplasia
  • elective closed castration
  • elective open castration
  • when castration is a co-treatment for perineal hernia

Question 11

Question
For a solitary skin mass on the distal limb, which would NOT form part of your normal work up Choose one answer.
Answer
  • FNA
  • Incisional biopsy
  • palpation of the local lymph node
  • thoracic radiography
  • urinalysis

Question 12

Question
Which imaging modality is most sensitive to detecting changes in the middle ear Choose one answer.
Answer
  • a. Computed Tomography
  • b. Otoscopy
  • c. Plain radiography
  • d. Ultrasound
  • e. Video otoscopy

Question 13

Question
The best ancillary aid for the diagnosis of sublingual sialocoele is Choose one answer.
Answer
  • a. “drip test”
  • b. fine needle aspirate smear
  • c. plain radiographs
  • d. sialography
  • e. ultrasonography

Question 14

Question
Which dermatological diseases does NOT typically present with pruritus in the dog Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Atopic dermatitis
  • Cheyletiellosis
  • Food allergy
  • Sarcoptic acariasis
  • Seasonal flank alopecia

Question 15

Question
A client asks about managing oestrus in her female Ferret. She plans to use the Jill for breeding in 2 years time. What is the most appropriate advice
Answer
  • a. Administer oral Megoestrol acetate until breeding is required
  • b. An Ovariohysterectomy should be performed on the Jill
  • c. House the Jill individually until breeding is required
  • d. Keep the Jill with a Castrated Hob
  • e. Use a Deslorelin implant until breeding is required

Question 16

Question
Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse Choose one answer.
Answer
  • a. Caecum
  • b. Left dorsal colon
  • c. Pelvic flexure
  • d. Small colon
  • e. Small intestine

Question 17

Question
Cases of Spirocerca lupi are most likely to be seen in Choose one answer.
Answer
  • a. Canada
  • b. Denmark
  • c. Morocco
  • d. Scotland
  • e. Tanzania

Question 18

Question
The gravel sign in the dog is indicative of Choose one answer
Answer
  • a. complete intestinal obstruction
  • b. intestinal lymphoma
  • c. intestinal volvulus
  • d. partial intestinal obstruction
  • e. typhlitis

Question 19

Question
Which is NOT usually associated with small intestinal diarrhoea in the dog Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Borborygmi
  • Increased frequency of defecation
  • Increased volume of faeces
  • Steathorrea
  • Weight loss

Question 20

Question
Which ONE of the following is NOT a cause of haematuria in the dog Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Cystitis
  • prostatitis
  • pyelonephritis
  • renal amyloidosis
  • uroltiasis

Question 21

Question
Which is FALSE regarding the Lack coaxial breathing system
Answer
  • Its a non rebreathing system
  • Its classified as a mapelson A
  • Its unsuitable for long term IPPV
  • The fresh gas flows down the outer tube
  • The reservoir bag is on the expiratory limb

Question 22

Question
Which condition is NOT associated with ascites in the dog Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Cirrhosis with portal hypertension and hypoalbuminaemia
  • Glomerulonephritis with hypoalbuminaemia
  • Mitral dysplasia and left sided heart failure
  • Pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade
  • Pulmonic stenosis and right sided heart failure

Question 23

Question
Which clinical sign is NOT seen in cats with chronic renal failure Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Anaemia
  • hypertension (high blood pressure)
  • polyphagia
  • polyuria/polydipsia
  • weight loss

Question 24

Question
In nuclear scintigraphy the key data is gathered from Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Alpha particles
  • Beta particles
  • Gamma rays
  • positrons
  • x-rays

Question 25

Question
Which cytological feature listed below is NOT consistent with malignancy
Answer
  • High mitotic rate
  • large number of nucleoli
  • multinucleate cells
  • small nuclear sizes
  • variation in the cells size and shape

Question 26

Question
Which poison is LEAST likely to be fatal once clinical signs have developed Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Acorns
  • carbon monoxide
  • Ethylene glycol
  • metaldehyde
  • paraquat

Question 27

Question
A dog is presented with a large tissue defect of the inner thigh and stifle. 
Which axial pattern flap would you use to close the defect
Answer
  • caudal auricular
  • caudal superfical epigastric
  • omocervical
  • reverse saphenous
  • thoracodorsalis

Question 28

Question
Using the Triadan system of dental nomenclature what is the correct identification of the left maxillary wolf tooth in the horse
Answer
  • 104
  • 105
  • 204
  • 205
  • 304

Question 29

Question
Which treatment is NOT used for laryngeal hemiplagia in the horse
Answer
  • larygoplasty
  • Neuromuscular pedicle graft
  • staphelectomy
  • tie back
  • ventriculocordectomy

Question 30

Question
Which statement describes why rectal examination is so important in dogs with PUPD
Answer
  • To check for anal adenoma
  • To check for apocrine gland adenocarcinoma of anal sac
  • To check for bladder patency
  • To check for constipation
  • To check for pelvic lymphadenopathy, a good indicator of T-cell lymphoma

Question 31

Question
Which statement about gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) is FALSE Choose one answer.
Answer
  • A large/Giant breed of dog is has a higher risk of getting a GDV than a smaller dog
  • Dogs characterised by their owners as happy or easy going dogs are at lower risk of GDV than nervous dogs
  • Eating rapidly decreases susceptibility to GDV
  • Having a first degree relative that has had GDV is a risk factor for GDV
  • Middle aged to older dogs have a higher risk of getting GDV than young dogs

Question 32

Question
The ideal pressure, in pounds per square inch (psi), for lavaging a wound in a dog is Choose one answer.
Answer
  • <5 PSI
  • 5-15 PSI
  • 15-25 PSI
  • 25-30 PSI
  • >30 PSI

Question 33

Question
You have the option of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) to assess a pituitary mass in a dog. Which statement is TRUE
Answer
  • Cerebrospinal fluid in the lateral ventricles is always black on MRI but can be white or black on CT
  • CT does not require the use of contrast (unlike MRI)
  • CT generally does not require an anaesthetic whereas MRI does
  • MRI produces higher detail than CT
  • The levels of ionising radiation produced by MRI are much higher then produced by CT

Question 34

Question
Which group of clinicopathological findings is consistent with liver failure Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Elevated albumin, low globulin, normal urea
  • Low albumin, low globulin, elevated urea
  • Low albumin, normal globulin, elevated urea
  • Low albumin, normal globulin, low urea
  • Normal albumin, normal globulin, elevated urea

Question 35

Question
During surgical repair of a perineal hernia which nerve is adjacent to the sacrotuberous ligament and potentially liable to damage
Answer
  • Femoral
  • obturator
  • perineal (pudendal)
  • sacral
  • sciatic

Question 36

Question
Which imaging modality is most sensitive to detecting changes in the middle ear Choose one answer.
Answer
  • CT
  • Ottoscope
  • Plain radiograph
  • ultrasound
  • video ottoscope

Question 37

Question
The best ancillary aid for the diagnosis of sublingual sialocoele is Choose one answer.
Answer
  • ''drip test''
  • FNA smear
  • plain radiographs
  • sialography
  • U/S

Question 38

Question
Which dermatological diseases does NOT typically present with pruritus in the dog Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Atopic dermatitis
  • Cheyletiellosis
  • Food allergy
  • Sarcoptic acariasis
  • Seasonal flank alopecia

Question 39

Question
A 3 year old female neutered cat presents in July with bilaterally symmetrical alopecia. The owner reported a similar problem the previous summer which resolved in the winter. Which disease would you want to rule out first (i.e. what is your main differential diagnosis)
Answer
  • Feline cushings
  • feline hypothyroidism
  • Flea allergy dermatitis
  • Food allergy dermatitis
  • psychogenic allopecia

Question 40

Question
Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Caecum
  • Left dorsal colon
  • pelvic flexure
  • small colon
  • small intestine

Question 41

Question
Which abdominal viscus is NOT normally palpable during rectal examination of the horse Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Caecum
  • Left dorsal colon
  • pelvic flexure
  • small colon
  • small intestine

Question 42

Question
Following intravenous administration of ketamine what commonly occurs Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypertension
  • Increased reap rate
  • pupillary constriction
  • vomiting

Question 43

Question
Which statement does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Can be easily diagnosed
  • Demodex canis mites are commensal
  • Is a common disease
  • Is zoonotic
  • mostly occurs in dogs <1 year old

Question 44

Question
Which statement does NOT apply to canine demodectic mange Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Can be easily diagnosed
  • Demodex canis mites are commensal
  • Is a common disease
  • Is zoonotic
  • mostly occurs in dogs <1 year old

Question 45

Question
Which drug is contra-indicated in the treatment of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Atenolol
  • Benazipril
  • Digoxin
  • Diltiazem
  • frusemide

Question 46

Question
The pain resulting from large colon volvulus in the horse is best characterized as
Answer
  • Mild pain, responsive to analgesia
  • Mild pain, unresponsive to analgesia
  • Moderate pain, responsive to analgesia
  • Severe pain, responsive to analgesia
  • Severe pain, unresponsive to analgesia

Question 47

Question
The commonest bone tumour in giant breed dogs is Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Chondrosarcoma
  • Haemangiosarcoma
  • multiple myeloma
  • osteoma
  • osteosarcoma

Question 48

Question
Which is most likely to lead to post-anaesthetic myopathy in a horse having colic surgery under isoflourane / oxygen anaesthesia
Answer
  • administration of hypertonic saline prior to anaesthesia
  • elevated carbon dioxide concentration in arterial blood
  • mean arterial blood pressure of 78mmHg
  • repeated movement during the procedure due to ‘light’ anaesthesia, necessitating intermittent ‘top-ups’ with ketamine
  • surgical duration of 4 hours

Question 49

Question
For a solitary skin mass on the distal limb, which would NOT form part of your normal work up Choose one answer.
Answer
  • FNA
  • Incisional biopsy
  • palpation of the lymph nodes
  • thraocic radiography
  • urinalysis

Question 50

Question
Immediate surgery is indicated for diaphragmatic rupture when Choose one answer.
Answer
  • A coexisting ventrolateral rupture is present
  • The animal is cyanotic
  • The stomach is in the thorax
  • There is a gastric dilation
  • There is significant pleural effusion

Question 51

Question
Which would be the likely underlying cause of the ascites Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Bacterial peritonitis
  • FIP
  • Ruptured bladder
  • Visceral mast cell neoplasia

Question 52

Question
Which is most likely to require a TECA/LBO Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Glue ear
  • Irreversible otitis externa
  • Pinnal squamous cell carcinoma
  • Reversible otitis externa
  • Vertical canal polyp

Question 53

Question
Which is most likely to require a TECA/LBO Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Glue ear
  • Irreversible otitis externa
  • Pinnal squamous cell carcinoma
  • Reversible otitis externa
  • Vertical canal polyp

Question 54

Question
Which agent is appropriate for therapy of Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO) in the horse Choose one answer.
Answer
  • Beclomethasone
  • Bethanecol
  • Carprofen
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Oxytetracycline

Question 55

Question
Which is true of alfaxalone
Answer
  • can be used in cats but not dogs
  • can be used in dogs but not cats
  • causes pain on injection
  • is formulated in cyclodextrin
  • tends to cause histamine release

Question 56

Question
Which opioid should be avoided for premedication in a dog presented for endoscopic removal of a bone lodged in the oesophagus
Answer
  • buprenorphine
  • butorphanol
  • methadone
  • morphine
  • Pithidine

Question 57

Question
The aetiology of equine laminitis is multifactorial, all of the below predisposing risk factors have been associated with the onset of laminitis EXCEPT
Answer
  • Endometritis
  • Equine rhabdomyolysis syndrome
  • Hyperadrenocoriticism
  • Obesity
  • strangulating intestinal lesions
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