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GROUP DYNAMICS YO

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its the midterm for conestogas class enjoy
Raquel Lindsay-M
Quiz by Raquel Lindsay-M, updated more than 1 year ago
Raquel Lindsay-M
Created by Raquel Lindsay-M almost 9 years ago
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Question 1

Question
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the three essential conditions for team success as presented in the text?
Answer
  • a. Trust
  • b. Time management
  • c. Group identity
  • d. Group efficacy

Question 2

Question
2. When team members are willing to rely upon each other, they have established:
Answer
  • a. Trust
  • b. Group identity
  • c. Team coordination
  • d. Task integration

Question 3

Question
3. Which of the following characteristics of members is NOT related to their trustworthiness?
Answer
  • a. Competence
  • b. Benevolence
  • c. Integrity
  • d. Competitiveness

Question 4

Question
4. What is the most important factor that determines whether a group will have high group efficacy for a given task?
Answer
  • a. The leader must feel the group is capable of success.
  • b. Group members must feel they have what it takes to succeed in the task.
  • c. Group members must be generally optimistic.
  • d. Members must form interpersonal bonds outside of the task group.

Question 5

Question
5. As the team leader, Janice used meeting agendas and made sure each member knew what was expected of them. In addition, she created a list of all the major tasks for the project and assigned roles to each of her team members. What aspect of creating an ideal team climate best describes Janice's actions?
Answer
  • a. Shared vision
  • b. Task orientation
  • c. Open communication
  • d. Support for innovation

Question 6

Question
6. Teams that are committed to the effective use of meeting time are demonstrating which of the characteristics of an ideal team climate?
Answer
  • a. Open communication
  • b. Task orientation
  • c. Shared vision
  • d. Support for innovation

Question 7

Question
7. Which of the following aspects of team climate is related to participative safety?
Answer
  • a. Members feel free to participate in group discussions & decisions.
  • b. Team members are not afraid of being fired from the group
  • c. The room that the team meets is locked and secure.
  • d. The leader shares power with the team.

Question 8

Question
8. Group norms such as the way meetings are run, how people perform their task roles, and how members communicate with each other are refined during the __________ stage of development.
Answer
  • a. Forming
  • b. Storming
  • c. Norming
  • d. Performing

Question 9

Question
9. According to Tuckman's stages of group development, the beginning stage of a group is known as ________ and the ending stage is ________.
Answer
  • a. Forming and norming
  • b. Adjourning and storming
  • c. Norming and performing
  • d. Forming and adjourning

Question 10

Question
10. Mackenzie's team is meeting after a pretty bad fight between two team members. Since then, the two team members have apologized to one another, made amends, and a few compromises have been made to adjust the team structure and reorient the team in the direction of team goals. Mackenzie's team is in the :
Answer
  • a. Norming
  • b. Storming
  • c. Forming
  • d. Performing

Question 11

Question
11. Diane's team is starting to experience tension and conflict and the members are starting question her leadership. The team is most likely in which stage of group development?
Answer
  • a. Storming
  • b. Norming
  • c. Conforming
  • d. Performing

Question 12

Question
12. According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the threats to effective collaboration?
Answer
  • a. Age of the members
  • b. Size of the team
  • c. Amount of diversity
  • d. Education level

Question 13

Question
14. Every team needs advice from the outside on key points in the progress of a group. According to Hackman, this team needs:
Answer
  • a. Expert coaching
  • b. Effective leadership
  • c. Clear and concise chain of command
  • d. None of the above

Question 14

Question
15. Teams with a task orientation:
Answer
  • a. Commit to performance standards
  • b. Have higher forms of education
  • c. Have difficulty resolving conflict
  • d. All of the above

Question 15

Question
16. Collaboration can be improved by all of the following except:
Answer
  • a. Creating teams out of members that have worked together before
  • b. Organizing a team retreat during the first few weeks of group development
  • c. Leaders who model collaborative behaviors and attitudes
  • d. Rewarding and coaching collaboration

Question 16

Question
17. Researchers who study teams have identified two important trends that are radically changing the way people participate in teams. They are:
Answer
  • a. Facebook and education
  • b. Globalization and technology
  • c. Technology and education
  • d. Diversity and globalization

Question 17

Question
18. Which of the following is true concerning roles?
Answer
  • a. A given role can change the role carrier's behavior
  • b. Roles are formally given and defined
  • c. Roles are primarily task-oriented
  • d. Roles are focused on group success

Question 18

Question
19. It's almost the end of the semester and Ariel's team is putting the final touches on its project. Throughout the semester, they have shown a strong sense of team identity by wearing matching team t-shirts to each meeting, recognizing small victories, and giving each member an important role in the group. These are all demonstrations of what?
Answer
  • a. A task focused leader
  • b. Strong team coaching
  • c. A strong team culture
  • d. Weak collective efficacy

Question 19

Question
20. Which of the following are NOT important in establishing a team or group culture?
Answer
  • a. Myths, folklore, or stories
  • b. Company logos and team names
  • c. Rituals and ceremonies
  • d. Roles and responsibilities

Question 20

Question
21. Social Identity Theory has two major components. First, it explains how we categorize various groups of people. What is the second major component of the theory?
Answer
  • a. It explains how we become integrated into specific groups.
  • b. It explains why we experience dissonance in various groups.
  • c. It explains how we develop interpersonal skills by observing other.
  • d. It explains why some people choose not to affiliate with various groups.

Question 21

Question
22. James has an overly optimistic view of his own fraternity and is very critical and demeaning towards other fraternities. What is he most likely experiencing?
Answer
  • a. Dismissive attribution
  • b. Ingroup/outgroup bias
  • c. Misallocation attributes
  • d. Ego-centric tendencies

Question 22

Question
23. What is one of the negative consequences of a strong team culture that produces a lot of member cohesion?
Answer
  • a. Task confusion
  • b. Passive aggressive conflict
  • c. Groupthink
  • d. Disempowered leadership

Question 23

Question
24. Ingroup/outgroup bias is a possible consequence of:
Answer
  • a. Large team sizes
  • b. Cross-functional teams
  • c. Strong team culture
  • d. Diverse teams

Question 24

Question
25. Sara's study group has decided to divide up business cases and present them to each other to prepare for an upcoming exam. She wasn't able to make it to the planning meeting and doesn't have strong opinions about the best way to prepare but told her teammates that she is willing to do whatever they want her to do. Sara's level of
Answer
  • a. Committed
  • b. Compliant
  • c. Resistant
  • d. Disengaged

Question 25

Question
26. What type of commitment best describes a team member who does NOT agree with most of the group's norms, roles, and decisions and voices his or her opinion often?
Answer
  • a. Compliant
  • b. Disengaged
  • c. Resistant
  • d. None of the above

Question 26

Question
27. Dan and his team are creating a marketing campaign for a student organization. Some of the members are working on a video while others are designing a brochure. A third group is creating a social media webpage. All three groups work independently but have the same deadline to complete their work. What type of interdependence is taking place on this team?
Answer
  • a. Reciprocal
  • b. Pooled
  • c. Sequential
  • d. Descriptive

Question 27

Question
28. Ted works at a local soup kitchen on the weekends. Each of the patrons comes in, and Ted's job is to spoon chili into each patron's bowl before they move on to one of the other volunteers to receive the rest of their meal. The soup kitchen is an example of: a. Reciprocal interdependence
Answer
  • a. Reciprocal interdependence
  • b. Pooled interdependence
  • c. Sequential interdependence
  • d. Descriptive interdependence

Question 28

Question
29. Team design begins with:
Answer
  • a. Finding a diverse set of skilled team members
  • b. Finding a problem
  • c. Reducing task complexity
  • d. Understanding a problem

Question 29

Question
30. BioCorp, a local pharmaceutical company, has been losing market share and needs to create a strategic plan for growth so the CEO convened a team with directors from each department in the company to address this issue. Due to the ambiguity of the assignment, many team members did NOT understand exactly what was being asked of them. According to the textbook, which important step in the launch of a new group did NOT happen?
Answer
  • a. Delegating roles and tasks
  • b. Establishing a vision and purpose
  • c. Choosing a deviant
  • d. Executing a plan

Question 30

Question
31. Which of the following is one of the five specific areas associated with participation in groups, as defined by Stevens and Campion (1999)?
Answer
  • a. Communication
  • b. Emotional Intelligence
  • c. Intrinsic Motivation
  • d. Interpersonal Skills

Question 31

Question
32. All of the following increase task complexity except:
Answer
  • a. The number of alternatives available in reaching the desired outcome
  • b. Task unfamiliarity
  • c. The number of members on the team
  • d. The number of subordinate tasks to be defined and coordinated

Question 32

Question
33. The ideal group size is approximately _____ members.
Answer
  • a. 4-8
  • b. 5-10
  • c. 6-12
  • d. Impossible to determine an ideal size

Question 33

Question
34. Which of the following is a useful and practical strategy for a leader to use in a group's first meeting?
Answer
  • a. Introduce members instead of allowing members to introduce themselves, so that individual members will not attempt to promote themselves to the team
  • b. Recognize and discuss implicit norms
  • c. Prepare a statement to convey a shared vision
  • d. Have each member sign an agreement of commitment to the group's goals and members

Question 34

Question
35. Jesse is the new hire at a consulting company in Boston. She was hired straight out of college, and is unsure of exactly what the environment of the firm is like. She has previous internships under her belt, but being in a full-time salary position just feels different. She uses her breaks to observe group interactions and ask employees about the do's and don'ts of the workplace. She is discovering group norms through:
Answer
  • a. Initial group patterns
  • b. Explicit behavior or statements
  • c. A critical event
  • d. Past group experiences

Question 35

Question
36. Hackman (author discussed in textbook) argues which that which of the following group norms are absolutely necessary?
Answer
  • a. Ethical standards of behavior
  • b. Ongoing self-evaluation
  • c. Punctuality
  • d. Both a and b

Question 36

Question
37. Groups often experience conflict. About 40% of the time, it stems from:
Answer
  • a. Different approaches to completing the task
  • b. A driver social style
  • c. Interpersonal problems
  • d. An avoiding conflict management style

Question 37

Question
38. The keys to interpersonal success are which of the following?
Answer
  • a. Assertiveness, Emotiveness, Sociability.
  • b. Sociability, Sensitivity, Emotiveness.
  • c. Assertiveness, Cohesiveness, Sensitivity.
  • d. Assertiveness, Sociability, Sensitivity.

Question 38

Question
39. Ellie likes to trade stories about the weekend with her coworkers whenever she goes on lunch break. Ellie is:
Answer
  • a. Asking
  • b. Telling
  • c. Expressive
  • d. Emotive

Question 39

Question
40. According to the interpersonal complex, interpersonal success hinged on the balance of three dimensions, which are:
Answer
  • a. Assertiveness, Emotiveness, Sociability
  • b. Sociability, Emotiveness, Assertiveness
  • c. Sociability, Assertiveness, Sensibility
  • d. Emotiveness, Assertiveness, Sensibility

Question 40

Question
41. Someone categorized as domineering, friendly, and oversensitive by interpersonal complex theory would be most closely classified with what social style?
Answer
  • a. Analytic
  • b. Expressive
  • c. Driver
  • d. Amiable

Question 41

Question
42. Which of the following is always unhealthy for a team?
Answer
  • a. Emotional contagion
  • b. Passive leadership
  • c. conflict
  • d. None of the above

Question 42

Question
43. Taylor was elected president of his pledge class and wants to increase group cohesion. Which of the following strategies will be least effective?
Answer
  • a. Have pledges interview each other to find similarities between them.
  • b. Challenge the active brothers to a friendly competition.
  • c. Make a presentation to the pledges on the benefits of Greek life.
  • d. Have regular meals together.

Question 43

Question
44. Conflict is most difficult to resolve when it concerns:
Answer
  • a. Goals or purposes
  • b. Facts or data
  • c. Processes or methods
  • d. Values or beliefs

Question 44

Question
45. Your team is meeting for the first time to discuss a group presentation for your philosophy class. Jeremy is frustrated because Lawrence has NOT gotten him the numbers he needs to complete his work for the week. Lawrence, on the other hand, is upset because he has had significantly more work than everyone else, and although many other tasks on dependent on his completion of his part, he wishes that the rest of the team was more willing to take on some of the work. As team leader, what style of conflict management is best to approach this situation?
Answer
  • a. Collaboration
  • b. Experimentation
  • c. Compromise
  • d. Accomodating

Question 45

Question
46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five conflict management styles described by Thomas and Kilmann?
Answer
  • a. Competing
  • b. Collaborating
  • c. Avoiding
  • d. Disengaging

Question 46

Question
47. The natural course of a conflict can be described as moving from:
Answer
  • a. Confrontation -> escalation -> resolution
  • b. Instigation -> escalation -> improvement
  • c. Instigation -> development -> improvement
  • d. Initiation -> confrontation -> resolution

Question 47

Question
48. Effective teams seek to:
Answer
  • a. engage in affective conflict and minimize task conflict
  • b. avoid any conflict
  • c. engage in both task conflict and affective conflict
  • d. engage in task conflict and minimize affective conflict

Question 48

Question
48. Effective teams seek to:
Answer
  • a. engage in affective conflict and minimize task conflict
  • b. avoid any conflict
  • c. engage in both task conflict and affective conflict
  • d. engage in task conflict and minimize affective conflict

Question 49

Question
49. Which of the following is NOT an example of Barsade's four emotional states?
Answer
  • a. Cheerful Enthusiasm
  • b. Serene Warmth
  • c. Depressed Sluggishness
  • d. Irritable Frustration

Question 50

Question
50. Principled negotiation involves:
Answer
  • a. Incorporating subjective opinions
  • b. Separating people from the problem
  • c. Focusing on positions, not interests
  • d. a and c

Question 51

Question
51. Which of the following would be the most difficult conflict to resolve?
Answer
  • a. A disagreement over a financial calculation
  • b. A conflict over setting a deadline
  • c. A disagreement over ethical experimentation with animals
  • d. A conflict over the importance of a marketing campaign

Question 52

Question
52. As a consultant, you have been assigned to a team that has failed to come together as a single unit. Which of the following could be reasonably recommended to increase team cohesion?
Answer
  • a. Early Conflict
  • b. Competition
  • c. New leadership
  • d. Reestablishment of group culture and norms

Question 53

Question
53. Sam is out to dinner with his friends. He just made a big bonus at work, and treats himself with a $30 steak plate. Everyone else has a ticket of about $15, except for Tim, who is on a tight budget and pays $10 for his meal. The waiter brings only one check to the table. What is the best way for the group to split the ticket?
Answer
  • a. Power Method
  • b. Responsibility Method
  • c. Equality Method
  • d. Equity Method

Question 54

Question
54. Cherniss and Goleman (2001) conclude that the most effective team members are the ones who:
Answer
  • a. Regularly challenge group processes
  • b. Offer constructive feedback and present creative solutions
  • c. Regularly recognize and regulate emotions in themselves and others
  • d. Have an accommodating conflict style

Question 55

Question
55. Primal Leadership:
Answer
  • a. Emphasizes the ability to recognize and manage emotions
  • b. Focuses on intentional leadership development
  • c. Prioritizes social maturity
  • d. All of the above

Question 56

Question
56. Goldman and his associates believe that leadership can be developed by:
Answer
  • a. Knowing strengths and weaknesses
  • b. Promoting from within
  • c. Rewarding desired outcomes
  • d. Committing to being a resonant leader

Question 57

Question
57. The difference between Primal and Resonant Leadership can be best described as:
Answer
  • a. Primal leadership focuses on intrinsic motivation while resonant leadership relies on extrinsic motivators
  • b. Primal leadership focuses on skilled structural managers while Resonant leadership focuses more on interpersonal skills.
  • c. Resonant leadership focuses on social awareness while Primal leadership focuses on self-awareness
  • d. Primal leadership emphasizes emotional intelligence while Resonant leadership focuses more on relationships with direct reports.

Question 58

Question
58. What is the most common, ongoing challenge for leaders?
Answer
  • a. Developing clear goals
  • b. Developing and sustaining high motivation
  • c. Fostering creativity and innovation
  • d. Minimizing confusion and coordination problems

Question 59

Question
59. Which of the following is not a practice of exemplary leadership according to Kouzes and Posner?
Answer
  • a. Model the way
  • b. Maximize efficiency
  • c. Challenge the process
  • d. Encourage the heart

Question 60

Question
60. David was selected to become a member of a five person team because of his knowledge and experience with three dimensional computer modeling. When he is not present, the group is unable to discuss the technical aspects of their project. Which of the five bases of power does David hold?
Answer
  • a. Coercive Power
  • b. Legitimate Power
  • c. Expert Power
  • d. Referent Power

Question 61

Question
61. According to the situational leadership model, the best leaders move from:
Answer
  • a. delegation to supportive to coaching to directive
  • b. coaching to directive to supportive to delegation
  • c. supportive to coaching to directive to delegation
  • d. directive to coaching to supportive to delegation

Question 62

Question
62. Olivia believes that management is often about the little things. One of the little things she does at every team meeting is that she asks everyone individually, "How was your weekend?" "What are you looking forward to this week?" and "What is one way that I or the team can make this week less burdensome?" In doing so, Olivia is:
Answer
  • a. Inspiring a shared vision
  • b. Encouraging the heart
  • c. Enabling others to act
  • d. Modeling the way

Question 63

Question
63. Kouzes and Posner (2007) concluded from survey on leadership that the most admired trait of a leader is:
Answer
  • a. Forward-Looking
  • b. Honesty
  • c. Competency
  • d. Inspiration

Question 64

Question
64. Anna is a part of a self-managed team at a small software company in Seattle. She is well-liked, charismatic, and generally she if the go-to if anyone has a problem regarding product development. Anna could be best described as having:
Answer
  • a. Expert Power
  • b. Referent Power
  • c. Legitimate Power
  • d. Both a and b

Question 65

Question
65. Kelsey has just been promoted to Senior Manager of Marketing for the Atlanta branch of a successful retail company. Her newly acquired position could be best described as:
Answer
  • a. Expert Power
  • b. Referent Power
  • c. Reward Power
  • d. Legitimate Power

Question 66

Question
66. Al works in a wealth management firm in Boston. He has a really good idea to pitch to his boss. He knows that the boss really values Jeff's input, so if he can get Jeff to support his pitch, there is a good chance the boss will go through with the idea. This is an example of which influence tactic?
Answer
  • a. Consultation
  • b. Legitimating
  • c. Personal Appeal
  • d. Coalition

Question 67

Question
67. In the study conducted by Falbe and Yukl (1992), managers found which influence tactic to be most successful?
Answer
  • a. Personal Appeal
  • b. Legitimating
  • c. Inspirational Appeal
  • d. Collaboration

Question 68

Question
68. Dan takes his boss out for a round on him after work. At the bar, Dan brings up how hard he has worked the past six months and respectfully asks the boss about the possibility of a promotion. The following scenario is an example of which of the following influence tactics?
Answer
  • a. Pressure
  • b. Ingratiation
  • c. Apprising
  • d. Inspirational Appeal

Question 69

Question
69. Elliot is participating in a brainstorming session for a new ad campaign. Last year, Elliot's idea was the contribution that became the new campaign. In what ways has Elliot's contribution to the group affected his persuasive power in the group?
Answer
  • a. He has provided evidence of his capabilities through past performance.
  • b. He has established credibility by being active and productive in group meetings.
  • c. He has demonstrated intellectual competence through a previous contribution to the group.
  • d. Both b and c

Question 70

Question
70. According to Conger (1998), which of the following is NOT one of the four components of successful persuasion
Answer
  • a. finding common ground
  • b. making an emotional connection
  • c. providing evidence
  • d. being the deviant

Question 71

Question
71. Which of the following is not a means of making meetings more effective, as identified by Whetton and Cameron (2007)?
Answer
  • a. Providing incentives for meeting participation and performance
  • b. Keeping attendance
  • c. Having an explicit purpose to the meeting
  • d. Begin the meeting with introductions to create a comfortable setting and encourage participation

Question 72

Question
72. Which of the following is true about transformational leadership?
Answer
  • a. Transformational leaders chiefly use referent legitimate power to lead
  • b. Transformational leaders use inspirational and rational appeal as their chief influence tactics
  • c. Transformation leaders rely on structure, accountability, and reward systems to get work done
  • d. Transformational leaders usually prefer team or group members to volunteer for tasks

Question 73

Question
73. Gary asks Macy how her weekend was. Macy responds by saying, "Fine. I was able to rest adequately and now I am prepared for another productive week." Macy has just made a:
Answer
  • a. Counterdependency statement
  • b. Counterpairing statement
  • c. Flight statement
  • d. Robotic statement

Question 74

Question
74. Sally attempts to delegate work to Travis for a group project in their class on organizational theory, but Travis says, "I am coming off a really hard week, and if someone else can do it, then I need some time off." Travis has just made a:
Answer
  • a. Pairing statement
  • b. Unscorable statement
  • c. Dependency statement
  • d. Flight Statement

Question 75

Question
75. Alice just finished her first day on the job, and Cindy, the woman in the cubicle next to her says, "Some of us are going to try a new Thai place on Main street if you want to come!" Cindy's statement is an example of a:
Answer
  • a. Flight statement
  • b. Fashion statement
  • c. Dependency statement
  • d. Pairing statement

Question 76

Question
76. Which of the following nonverbal cues could be used to interject a comment?
Answer
  • a. Leaning forward
  • b. Clearing the throat
  • c. Making direct eye contact
  • d. All of the above

Question 77

Question
77. Pertaining to the Group Development Observation System, which of the following is not true about teams?
Answer
  • a. Although a statement could be placed in multiple categories, statements made by a team member can be classified as one of eight statement 95% of the time
  • b. Pairing statements remain relatively stable throughout the life of a team
  • c. Early groups commonly make use of fight, flight, and counterdependency statements
  • d. Established groups use twice as many task-related statements, compared to newly formed groups

Question 78

Question
78. Which of the following is NOT an Identity Marker as stated by Polzer (2003)?
Answer
  • a. Physical gestures
  • b. Physical appearance
  • c. Body posture
  • d. Demeanor

Question 79

Question
79. Identity markers are primarily driven by the motive for____
Answer
  • a. Power
  • b. Self-enhancement
  • c. Relationships
  • d. Self-esteem

Question 80

Question
80. As a listener, when asked a leading question, the best response is to:
Answer
  • a. Politely ask the questioner to rephrase the question
  • b. Rephrase the question yourself to make the question more open-ended
  • c. Begin your response with a brief overview to soften the question before answering
  • d. Divert the conversation by asking the questioner if he can talk privately later

Question 81

Question
81. Rachel knows that Alex has had a hard day. When Alex comes in to talk, Rachel sits facing Alex and occasionally nods to show interest. She sits back with her arms and legs crossed to reflect a relaxed posture. She does her best to maintain eye contact, but occasionally looks away to not make Alex feel uncomfortable. What should Rachel do to improve her active listening?
Answer
  • a. Maintain constant eye contact with Alex to demonstrate focus and
  • b. Lean forward to increase engagement
  • c. Uncross her arms and legs to open her posture
  • d. Both b and c

Question 82

Question
82. What is an example of an identity marker?
Answer
  • a. A loud voice
  • b. A tailored suit
  • c. Reference to past accomplishments
  • d. All of the above

Question 83

Question
83. Dominic sees Harry walking out of their boss' office with a dejected face. He brings Harry over to his desk to talk. As Harry begins, to talk what can Dominic do to best show Harry that he is listening?
Answer
  • a. Sit back in his chair to create a relaxed environment
  • b. Maintain eye contact with Harry to demonstrate attentiveness
  • c. Fill silence to keep Harry talking
  • d. Both a and b

Question 84

Question
84. Which of the following is true concerning forced-choice questions and leading questions?
Answer
  • a. Forced-choice question are manipulative, while leading questions are more conducive to active listening.
  • b. Force-choice questions and leading questions should both be avoided in place of open questions.
  • c. Force-choice questions effectively limit options to help a respondent make a choice while leading questions are often accusatory and inflammatory.
  • d. Both a and b

Question 85

Question
85. Randy is having difficulty with one of his employees, Albert, who is constantly late on deadlines, forcing others to pick up his slack. Other members of his team are beginning to notice, and Randy decides he needs to confront Albert before the issue becomes a major source of division among the team. What is the best statement Randy could make?
Answer
  • a. "Albert, I am concerned that other people are noticing your lack of performance."
  • b. "Albert, you are putting a burden on this team with your lack of motivation."
  • c. "I am frustrated by your inability to meet deadlines, and I am asking you on behalf of the team to step up."
  • d. "I've noticed that you have missed some deadlines this quarter."

Question 86

Question
86. Intel is organizing a group to work on a new chip processor that can be put in home appliances to alert consumers of potential problems in the machine. The group spans 18 members from America, Canada, France, Japan, and India, and the project is estimated to cost approximately $30 million dollars for the initial design and testing process alone. The group should adopt what kind of group structure?
Answer
  • a. A centralized structure to ensure a clear chain of command and concise communication
  • b. A centralized structure to bridge diverse people and integrate isolated processes
  • c. A decentralized structure to accommodate a more complex task that requires adaptation and innovation
  • d. A decentralized structure to direct discussion and coordinate efforts across diverse people

Question 87

Question
87. Of the following, which is not a characteristic of virtual teams?
Answer
  • a. Efficiency of communication
  • b. Development of intellectual capital
  • c. Greater productivity in team meetings
  • d. Easier scheduling and attendance

Question 88

Question
88. Which of the following is true with respect to virtual teams and face-to-face teams?
Answer
  • a. Trust is more easily gained in virtual teams
  • b. Virtual teams are more diverse
  • c. Face to face teams have more difficulty developing shared vision
  • d. Face-to-face teams are not as efficient

Question 89

Question
89. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a virtual team?
Answer
  • a. Efficient communication
  • b. Development of intellectual capital
  • c. Maximized outcomes from skilled and diverse team members
  • d. Lack of departmental competition breeds trust

Question 90

Question
90. Virtual teams:
Answer
  • a. Allow problems to be identified more quickly than in F2F meetings
  • b. Find it easier to trust one another when members are not in departmental competition
  • c. Are a financial burden with the amount of technology required to connect members
  • d. Amplify dysfunction and dilute leadership

Question 91

Question
91. Ted and Bailey are in a debate concerning what the best strategy would be to advertise for their team'a fundraiser. If Drew wanted to intervene, how could he bring the two to a mutual understanding?
Answer
  • a. Engaged posture
  • b. Probing questions
  • c. Paraphrasing
  • d. All of the above

Question 92

Question
92. A large multinational corporation wanted to look into how to best reduce its carbon footprint. A team was assembled with some of the best minds in the company from the United Kingdom, Italy, Japan, the United States, and Brazil. Even though they never met face to face, the team had a solid plan that would reduce carbon emissions by 20% within a month. What was the primary reason this virtual team was so successful?
Answer
  • a. Being able to fully understand each other's views
  • b. Having a lack of formal leadership
  • c. Having the best group composition possible
  • d. Being able to see important nonverbal cues
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