Biochemistry Year 1

Description

All of Biochemistry subject knowledge from textbook and lectures.
Nicole Rogowski
Quiz by Nicole Rogowski, updated more than 1 year ago
Nicole Rogowski
Created by Nicole Rogowski about 5 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which set-up forms the strongest hydrogen bonds?
Answer
  • When atoms are at a 90 degree angle from the hydrogen atom.
  • When the atoms are all in a straight line.
  • When atoms are at less than 60 degrees from the hydrogen atom.
  • When atoms are more than 60 degrees from the hydrogen atom.

Question 2

Question
At which distance are van der Waals interactions the strongest?
Answer
  • At the van der Waals contact distance.
  • At less than the van der Waals contact distance.
  • At more than the van der Waals contact distance.
  • When the nuclei of the two atoms are 0.5 angstrom away from each other.

Question 3

Question
Why does the formation of the DNA double helix release heat?
Answer
  • It doesn't release heat, it absorbs it.
  • Because the formation of the double helix is a decrease in entropy, thus heat must be released to increase it and make the reaction favourable.
  • The overall net formation of hydrogen bonds releases energy as heat.
  • Because the enzymes that do it couple the reaction with another one that releases heat.

Question 4

Question
What does pKa represent?
Answer
  • The susceptibility of a proton to be removed by a reaction with a base.
  • The susceptibility of a proton to be removed by a reaction with an acid.
  • The pH at which the concentration of protons is equal to the concentration of OH- for a substance.
  • The pH at which the concentration of the protonated form of a substance is equal to the concentration of OH-.

Question 5

Question
What is the Pauli exclusion principle?
Answer
  • Only two electrons may be placed in each orbital, and these must have opposite spins.
  • Only two electrons may be placed in each orbital.
  • If two or more orbitals of equal energy are available, then one electron must be placed in each orbital until they are half full.
  • The combining of atomic orbitals within an atom to form new orbitals.

Question 6

Question
Which is not a polar amino acid?
Answer
  • Leucine
  • Methionine
  • Tryptophan
  • Serine

Question 7

Question
Which is not a force that notably stabilises protein structure?
Answer
  • Hydrogen bonds
  • Ionic interactions
  • van der Waals interactions
  • Steric clashes

Question 8

Question
What is the dielectric constant of a solvent?
Answer
  • A measure of the solvent's ability to keep opposite charges apart.
  • A measure of the solvent's ability to keep opposite charges together.
  • A measure of the solvent's ability to keep like charges together.
  • A measure of the solvent's ability to keep like charges apart.

Question 9

Question
What did the Anfinsen experiment determine?
Answer
  • The sequence of amino acids is sufficient and necessary for protein folding.
  • Which codon represents which amino acid.
  • DNA is the molecule which stores genetic information.
  • Correct protein folding sometimes requires chaperone proteins.

Question 10

Question
Which is the macro positive end in a amino acid alpha helix?
Answer
  • N terminus
  • C terminus
  • Tryptophan end
  • The end which is central to the protein

Question 11

Question
What is the difference between the equilibrium constant and the mass action ratio?
Answer
  • The mass action ratio depends on actual concentrations, while the equilibrium constant depends on the concentrations at equilibrium.
  • The mass action ratio depends on theoretical concentrations, while the equilibrium constant depends on the concentrations at equilibrium.
  • The mass action ratio depends on concentrations at equilibrium, while the equilibrium constant depends on the actual concentrations.
  • The mass action ratio depends on theoretical concentrations, while the equilibrium constant depends on the actual concentrations.

Question 12

Question
What is the standard state?
Answer
  • The concentrations of all reactants and products at equilibrium.
  • When all reactants have a concentration of 1M.
  • When all products and reactants have a concentration of 1M.
  • When there are equal concentrations of products and reactants at any concentration.

Question 13

Question
Which is a microfilament?
Answer
  • Actin
  • Tubulin
  • Actin and tubulin
  • Myosin

Question 14

Question
Which is the monomeric form of actin?
Answer
  • G-actin
  • F-actin
  • M-actin
  • T-actin

Question 15

Question
Why are the initial stages of actin polymerisation slow?
Answer
  • It is energetically unfavourable.
  • It's energetically favourable
  • The associated Mg2+ cations slow the process down
  • There is never enough actin monomers accumulated in one area

Question 16

Question
What anchors actin to the cell membrane?
Answer
  • Dystrophin
  • CAPZ
  • Fimbrin
  • Tubulin

Question 17

Question
What is the function of filamin?
Answer
  • Creating networks of F-actin as a gelation protein.
  • Severing actin filaments which leads to dissociation of the filament.
  • Prevents the formation of actin clots.
  • Generation of higher order structures.

Question 18

Question
Which myosin is found in sarcomeres?
Answer
  • Myosin II
  • Myosin I
  • Myosin IV
  • Myosin V

Question 19

Question
Which is NOT an example of the function of stable microtubules?
Answer
  • Reorganisation of chromosomes during division
  • Intracellular transport
  • Form an integral part of the neuronal axon
  • Form the backbone of cilia

Question 20

Question
Which tubulin subunit(s) binds GTP irreversibly?
Answer
  • Alpha subunit
  • Beta subunit
  • Both alpha and beta subunits
  • Neither alpha nor beta subunits

Question 21

Question
Why is axonal transport the model system for microtubules?
Answer
  • It is stable.
  • The beta tubulin ringed side has a faster rate of growth than the alpha tubulin side.
  • The dissociation of GDP-tubulin once the cap is lost is slower than in other systems.
  • It only has kinesin motors, making it simple to observe.

Question 22

Question
Which is true?
Answer
  • Actin can be highly branched, while microtubules cannot.
  • Microtubules can be highly branched, while actin cannot.
  • Myosin can be highly branched, while actin cannot.
  • Myosin can be highly branched, while microtubules cannot.

Question 23

Question
Which is NOT a basic type of reaction?
Answer
  • Group transfer
  • Addition/removal of functional groups
  • Hydrolysis
  • Fermentation

Question 24

Question
Which is a benefit of compartmentalisation?
Answer
  • Substrate channeling
  • Formation of proteinaceous compartments
  • Futile cycling
  • Metabolic flux

Question 25

Question
Which is the group carried in a high energy linkage in NADH?
Answer
  • Hydrogen
  • Electrons and hydrogen
  • Carboxyl group
  • Methyl group

Question 26

Question
Why does ATP have the potential to do work as an energy store?
Answer
  • The reaction ATP<=>ADP+Pi is maintained favouring the formation of ATP
  • The reaction ATP<=>ADP+Pi is displaced from the equilibrium ratio
  • The reaction ATP<=>ADP+Pi favours ADP+Pi
  • The The reaction ATP<=>ADP+Pi is maintained within the cell favouring ADP+Pi

Question 27

Question
Which is NOT a method of studying metabolic pathways?
Answer
  • Inhibitors
  • Cell fragmentation
  • Radiolabelling
  • Mutants

Question 28

Question
Which enzyme catalyses the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
Answer
  • Hexokinase
  • Aldolase
  • Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
  • Enolase

Question 29

Question
At which point of glycolysis is there allosteric inhibition to control the entry of sugars into glycolysis?
Answer
  • Phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate by phosphofructokinase
  • Cleavage of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde phosphate by aldolase
  • Oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate using glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
  • Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate by hexokinase

Question 30

Question
Which is an example of a kinetically perfect enzyme in glycolysis?
Answer
  • Triose phosphate isomerase
  • Hexokinase
  • Phosphofructokinase
  • Aldolase

Question 31

Question
Where are the enzymes pyruvate decarboxylase, dihydrolipoyl transacetylase, and dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase located in the cell?
Answer
  • Mitochondrial matrix
  • Mitochondrial intermembrane space
  • Cytoplasm
  • Cell membrane

Question 32

Question
Coenzyme A is an activated carrier molecule. By what kind of a linkage does it carry its acetyl group?
Answer
  • Thioester linkage
  • Ester linkage
  • Esther linkage
  • Phosphodiester linkage

Question 33

Question
Malonate closely resembled which molecule?
Answer
  • Succinate
  • Fumarate
  • Malate
  • Citrate

Question 34

Question
What is the function of aconitase?
Answer
  • Citrate isomerisation
  • Phosphate group transfer from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADP
  • Removal of water from 2-phosphoglycerate
  • Decarboxylation of isocitrate

Question 35

Question
Which complex serves as succinate dehydrogenase?
Answer
  • Complex I
  • Complex II
  • Complex III
  • Complex IV

Question 36

Question
How many protons are required to form a single ATP molecule?
Answer
  • 4
  • 2.5
  • 1.5
  • 6

Question 37

Question
Which complex does not directly pump any protons into the intermembrane space in mitochondria?
Answer
  • Complex I
  • Complex II
  • Complex III
  • Complex IV

Question 38

Question
What does respiratory control refer to?
Answer
  • The inhibition of complex II by malonate
  • Proton 'back pressure' restricting electron flow
  • The breaking down of ATP to ADP+Pi by the cell to keep the ATP concentration low
  • The inhibition of the electron transport chain by the lack of oxygen

Question 39

Question
Which kind of signalling acts locally?
Answer
  • Endocrine signalling
  • Paracrine signalling
  • Steroid signalling
  • Lymphoid signalling

Question 40

Question
Which is NOT a method by which signals can enter a cell?
Answer
  • Diffusion
  • Ion channel
  • T-protein coupled receptor
  • Enzyme receptor
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