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All Pathophysiology Clicker questions

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NCLEX Nursing Quiz on All Pathophysiology Clicker questions, created by Alison Coffey on 08/03/2019.
Alison Coffey
Quiz by Alison Coffey, updated more than 1 year ago
Alison Coffey
Created by Alison Coffey over 5 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Where does transcription take place?
Answer
  • Cytoplasm
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • Nucleus
  • Lysosomes

Question 2

Question
Where does translation take place?
Answer
  • Cytoplasm
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • Nucleus
  • Lysosomes

Question 3

Question
At the end of mitosis, how many chromosomes are there?
Answer
  • 23
  • 46
  • 52
  • 21

Question 4

Question
Which statement is true for meiosis?
Answer
  • Meiosis occurs from the splitting of haploid cells.
  • Meiosis creates 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes
  • Meiosis creates somatic cells
  • Meiosis creates gametes

Question 5

Question
What is this an example of: blonde hair, blue eyes, pale skin, short stature.
Answer
  • Genotype
  • Phenotype

Question 6

Question
What is this an example of: sickle cell disease or Down's Syndrome
Answer
  • Genotype
  • Phenotype

Question 7

Question
Which statement is true about X-linked recessive?
Answer
  • The trait is seen more in females
  • The father always gives the trait to the son
  • Females cannot carry the trait
  • The gene is passed from affected father to all daughters.

Question 8

Question
Who has a higher Total Body Water (TBW) percentage compared to body weight?
Answer
  • 9 month old child
  • 25 year old adult
  • 50 year old obese adult
  • 1 year old obese infant
  • 50 year old adult

Question 9

Question
Females have more body fat compared to males. Males have more muscle mass compared to females. Who will have a higher total body water (TBW)?
Answer
  • Males
  • Females

Question 10

Question
[blank_start]What[blank_end] is the main determinant of osmolality...which is also the most common type of solute in extracellular fluid?
Answer
  • Sodium

Question 11

Question
[blank_start]Potassium[blank_end] is the most common type of solute in the intracellular fluid.
Answer
  • Potassium

Question 12

Question
The [blank_start]sodium-potassium pump[blank_end] helps maintain balance of sodium and potassium. This requires [blank_start]ATP[blank_end].
Answer
  • sodium-potassium pump
  • ATP

Question 13

Question
If you block the venous system, such as in a blood clot, which statement is true about pressure in the VENOUS SYSTEM?
Answer
  • Oncotic pressure increases
  • Oncotic pressure remains neutral
  • Hydrostatic pressure increases
  • Hydrostatic pressure decreases

Question 14

Question
A person takes in 1500mL and voids 1500mL. Which statement is true?
Answer
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Question 15

Question
A person takes in 3000mL and voids 1500mL. Which statement is true?
Answer
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Question 16

Question
A patient is admitted with congestive heart failure and you hear crackles in the lungs. Which statement reflects this patient's fluid status?
Answer
  • They are hydrated
  • Decreased fluid volume
  • Fluid volume excess

Question 17

Question
In a person with high blood sugar, such as a diabetic, which statement is likely true for their fluid status?
Answer
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Question 18

Question
In a patient with tachycardia and hypotension, which of the following statements is likely true regarding their fluid status.
Answer
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Question 19

Question
Patient complaining of thirst with poor skin turgor
Answer
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated.

Question 20

Question
Patient has pitting edema
Answer
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Question 21

Question
Who is at higher risk for dehydration?
Answer
  • An obese infant < 1 year
  • An obese 30 year old
  • An obese 50 year old
  • An obese 70 year old

Question 22

Question
Which is a complication of edema?
Answer
  • Wounds heal slowly
  • Weight loss
  • Temperature increases
  • Decreased Blood Pressure

Question 23

Question
What happens when you give a person who is dehydrated a hypertonic solution?
Answer
  • Decreased capillary oncotic pressure
  • Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
  • Intracellular dehydration
  • Extracellular dehydration

Question 24

Question
What type of solution would you use to treat someone who is dehydrated?
Answer
  • Hypertonic
  • Hypotonic
  • Isotonic

Question 25

Question
A patients pH is 7.31. This is:
Answer
  • Acidosis
  • Alkalosis
  • Normal

Question 26

Question
Which is fastest at acid-base compensation?
Answer
  • The lungs
  • The kidneys
  • The heart

Question 27

Question
Your patient has the following results from an ABG test: pH 7.14, PaCO2 52, HCO3 25. Which of the following describes this patient?
Answer
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis

Question 28

Question
Your patient has the following results from an ABG test: pH 7.14, PaCO2 41, HCO3 18. Which of the following describes this patient?
Answer
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis

Question 29

Question
I can have hypoxemia but not be anemic.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 30

Question
I can be anemic and not be hypoxic.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
I can have hypoxia without being anemic.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
You can never have hypoxemia, anemia, AND hypoxia.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
Which is an example of an acute inflammation?
Answer
  • Syphilis
  • Tuberculosis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Infection

Question 34

Question
Who is the first WBC responder to a site of injury?
Answer
  • Lymphocytes
  • Monocytes
  • Basophils
  • Neutrophils

Question 35

Question
Which of the following statements is not true about B and T lymphocytes?
Answer
  • Lymphocytes are part of the adaptive immunity
  • They endow the body with long-term immunity
  • Lymphocytes make up 20-35% of circulating WBCs
  • They are the first line of defense

Question 36

Question
Which of the following is not a WBC?
Answer
  • Platelets
  • Monocytes
  • T-cells
  • Granulocytes

Question 37

Question
Hematologic cancers like leukemia cause:
Answer
  • Leukopenia
  • Leukocytosis
  • Lymphoma
  • Hemoptysis

Question 38

Question
Which cells make antibodies?
Answer
  • Cytotoxic cells
  • Monocytes
  • T-cells
  • B-cells

Question 39

Question
What occurs during multiple myeloma?
Answer
  • Increase in osteoblast activity
  • Increase in osteoclast activity
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Decreased GI absorption

Question 40

Question
Allergies are which type of hypersensitivity?
Answer
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV

Question 41

Question
What laboratory test determines what medication will destroy an organism?
Answer
  • Urinalysis?
  • Complete blood count
  • Culture and sensitivity
  • Antibody titer

Question 42

Question
An overreaction of the immune systems is also called:
Answer
  • Lymphoma
  • Leukemia
  • Leukopenia
  • Hypersensitivity reaction

Question 43

Question
Which test is the earliest indicator for HIV?
Answer
  • ELISA
  • CD4 count
  • CD8 count
  • RNA assay

Question 44

Question
How is cholesterol obtained?
Answer
  • Liver and gall bladder synthesis
  • Liver synthesis only
  • Diet and gall bladder synthesis
  • Diet and liver synthesis

Question 45

Question
Which of the following accurately identifies risk factors for cardiovascular disease?
Answer
  • Male gender, Family history of CV disease, Obesity, history of tobacco use
  • Family history of CV disease, history of autoimmune disease, female gender
  • Female gender, history of tobacco use, low stress
  • Male gender, history of tobacco use, lack of exercise, history of traumatic brain injury

Question 46

Question
When blood flows from a larger area of vessel diameter to a smaller area of diameter, blood pressure:
Answer
  • Increases
  • Decreases
  • Does not change

Question 47

Question
Stimulation of the SNS does what to heart rate?
Answer
  • Decreases it
  • Increases it
  • Does not change

Question 48

Question
Cardiac output is determined by:
Answer
  • PVR and HR
  • HR and BP
  • BP and pulse pressure
  • PVR and BP

Question 49

Question
Which of the following is NOT considered a secondary cause of HTN?
Answer
  • Coarctation of the aorta
  • Brain tumor
  • Pneumonia
  • Chronic kidney disease

Question 50

Question
Which client meets the definition of orthostatic hypotension?
Answer
  • Client 1: BP laying 130/90, Standing 121/90
  • Client 2: BP laying 118/80, standing 120/80
  • Client 3: BP laying 140/90, standing 130/80
  • Client 4: BP laying 112/76, standing 112/70

Question 51

Question
Which of the following is true regarding aortic dissection?
Answer
  • Females are more affected than males
  • Males are more affected than femals
  • Both sexes are affected equally by the condition

Question 52

Question
What is the most common symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease?
Answer
  • Intermittent claudication
  • Chest Pain
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Cyanotic extremeties

Question 53

Question
Which of the following statements is true regarding circulation?
Answer
  • The pulmonary system is high pressure and the systemic system is low pressure.
  • Both systems are low pressure
  • The pulmonary system is low pressure and the systemic system is high pressure
  • Both systems are high pressure

Question 54

Question
Which statement best differentiates cardiac afterload from cardiac preload?
Answer
  • Cardiac afterload is the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole
  • Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome
  • Cardiac afterload is the factor that affects cardiac output
  • Cardiac afterload is the amount of blood that enters the right atrium

Question 55

Question
Which symptom is present in right sided heart failure?
Answer
  • Blood in the lungs
  • Respiratory problems
  • Cyanosis
  • Edema in ankles and feet

Question 56

Question
Which symptom is present in left sided heart failure?
Answer
  • Cyanosis
  • Ascites
  • Leg edema
  • Swelling in hands

Question 57

Question
How is systolic dysfunction different from diastolic dysfunction?
Answer
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty ejecting blood out of the chamber.
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty relaxing and is unable to expand fully
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle pumps out insufficient blood volume.
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has low blood volume.

Question 58

Question
Which lobe would a patient most commonly aspirate into, due to its anatomical position?
Answer
  • RML
  • RLL
  • LLL
  • LUL

Question 59

Question
Each hemoglobin molecule can carry [blank_start]4[blank_end] oxygen molecules
Answer
  • 4

Question 60

Question
When PO2 falls below [blank_start]60[blank_end] mmHg, hemoglobin quickly drops off all oxygen molecules.
Answer
  • 60

Question 61

Question
Ventilation-perfusion mismatching occurs wen air cannot flow into an alveolus or blood flow around an alveolus is altered. One of the most common etiologies for this is:
Answer
  • Pneumonia
  • Pulmonary Embolism
  • Atelectasis
  • Pulmonary hypertension

Question 62

Question
The most common virus to cause community acquired pneumonia is:
Answer
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Mycoplasma
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 63

Question
Hospital Acquired Pneumonia is a common cause of mortality for hospital patients. What is the most common microbe in this type of pneumonia?
Answer
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Mycoplasma
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella

Question 64

Question
Right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary disease is also known as:
Answer
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Cyanosis
  • Cor pulmonale
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy

Question 65

Question
A spirometer measures the amount of air moved into and out of the lungs. The maximal amount of air exhaled is called:
Answer
  • FEV-1
  • FVC
  • Tidal Volume
  • FEV-1/FVC ratio

Question 66

Question
The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
Answer
  • Left ventricular heart failure
  • Right ventricular heart failure
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pulmonary embolism

Question 67

Question
Playing tennis is more likely to cause a:
Answer
  • Strain
  • Sprain

Question 68

Question
Playing football is more likely to cause a:
Answer
  • Strain
  • Sprain

Question 69

Question
Which diagnostic test is best to see soft tissue damage?
Answer
  • Ultrasound
  • CT
  • X-Ray
  • MRI

Question 70

Question
What is true of bursitis?
Answer
  • It is caused by overuse of the tendon
  • It is caused by damage of the ligaments and bone
  • It is caused by underuse of the muscles
  • It is caused by inflammation of the bursa

Question 71

Question
Where are you more likely to see melanomas?
Answer
  • Face
  • Back of hands
  • Forearms
  • Lower Legs

Question 72

Question
What is the difference between allergic dermatitis and irritant dermatitis?
Answer
  • Irritant dermatitis is contagious to others if they have an open wound.
  • Irritant dermatitis is an immunological inflammatory process
  • Allergic dermatitis is the most common type of dermatitis
  • Allergic dermatitis initiates a cell-mediated response

Question 73

Question
Your patient is a 20 year old male who just started a new running program. What type of fracture would you expect to find?
Answer
  • Stress fracture
  • Insufficiency fracture
  • Pathological fracture
  • Tendinopathy

Question 74

Question
If our osteoclasts work faster than our osteoblasts as you get older, you are at risk for:
Answer
  • Increased bone production
  • Fractures
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Compartment syndrome

Question 75

Question
A 78 year old female has a fracture of her pelvis. The likely cause is:
Answer
  • Trauma
  • Exercise
  • Osteoporosis
  • Osteoarthritis

Question 76

Question
What type of fracture would you expect from a 78 year old female with osteoporosis?
Answer
  • Open
  • Pathologic
  • Subluxation
  • Greenstick

Question 77

Question
Your patient with a right hand fracture is complaining of severe right hand pain and has numbness and tingling. You suspect:
Answer
  • This is a normal process of healing
  • Compartment syndrome
  • The fracture has increased
  • An altered inflammatory response leading to excessive fluid accumulation

Question 78

Question
A 56 year old male with a recent history of a right hip repair after a fall is admitted for SOB and tachycardia. What do you think is occurring?
Answer
  • A pneumothorax?
  • Hemorrhagic anemia
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Pulmonary embolism

Question 79

Question
You overhear the doctor say the patient has a dowager's hump. You know that this is:
Answer
  • A life threatening condition
  • The same as kyphosis
  • The same as a bursae
  • Caused by tendonitis

Question 80

Question
Lice can "jump or fly" so just being around someone puts you at risk for getting lice.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 81

Question
The number one cause of a hemorrhagic stroke is:
Answer
  • Heart valve defect
  • Smoking
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension

Question 82

Question
Which of the following symptoms would you almost always see if your patient developed a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Answer
  • Blurred vision
  • Decreased blood pressure
  • Worst headache of their life
  • Upper extremity paralysis

Question 83

Question
Select all of the following risk factors for a stroke:
Answer
  • Family history
  • Hypertension
  • Previous stroke
  • Cancer
  • Obesity
  • High Cholesterol
  • Heavy alcohol use
  • Diabetes Mellitus
  • Diabetes Insipidus
  • Atrial Fibrillation

Question 84

Question
If a patient had a TIA, which statement is always true?
Answer
  • They had an ischemic episode
  • They had ischemia
  • They had a blood clot but then it moved
  • Irreversible damage has occurred

Question 85

Question
You are taking care of a newly admitted patient who had neural tissue death on CT scan, but all of his symptoms have resolved. What is the best answer to tell him about his diagnosis?
Answer
  • He had a TIA because his symptoms resolved
  • He had an ischemic attack with death of brain tissue
  • He had a stroke with death of brain tissue
  • He had a TIA which is lack of oxygen to the brain

Question 86

Question
Your patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has issues with their CSF because of:
Answer
  • Limited reabsorption
  • Decreased production
  • Constricted blood vessels
  • Impaired venous system

Question 87

Question
According to the TNM system, stage the following: A 2.5 cm tumor in the R breast, palpable lymph nodes, and a CT scan that reveals metastasis in the liver.
Answer
  • T1, N0, M0
  • T2, N1, M1
  • T1, N1, M1
  • T2, N0, M1

Question 88

Question
Cancer cells are suited for metastasis because they secrete:
Answer
  • Proto-oncogenes
  • Endothelin
  • Von Willebrand factor
  • Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor

Question 89

Question
This form of lung cancer grows rapidly, and often has already metastasized when the patient presents to their PCP
Answer
  • Lung cancer in situ
  • Small cell lung cancer
  • Non-small cell lung cancer

Question 90

Question
An individual who smoked 2 packs per day from age 20-60 has a(n) [blank_start]80[blank_end] pack year history.
Answer
  • 80

Question 91

Question
Both BRCA1 and BRCA2 have defective ________.
Answer
  • Tumor suppressor genes
  • Proto-oncogenes
  • Oncogenes
  • Both A and B

Question 92

Question
Most breast cancer lesions are found in this quadrant of the breast
Answer
  • Upper Inner
  • Upper Outer
  • Lower Inner
  • Lower Outer

Question 93

Question
Which of the following accurately depicts symptoms of liver cancer?
Answer
  • Weight gain, fever, increased appetite, pulmonary edema
  • Weight loss, increased appetite, vision changes
  • Weight loss, fever, ascites, jaundice
  • Weight loss, chest pain, dyspnea

Question 94

Question
The most common GI disorder in the US is:
Answer
  • GERD
  • IBD
  • Pyloric Stenosis
  • Cirrhosis

Question 95

Question
GERD is most commonly present in which patient populations?
Answer
  • Infants and adults over 40
  • Infants and teenaged children
  • Adults over 40 and patients with neuro disorders
  • Adults over 65 years old

Question 96

Question
Your patient is admitted for Upper GI bleed. Their SBP has decreased from 132 to 110 and their heart rate has increased from 84 to 108. You can anticipate the provider will order as the priority intervention:
Answer
  • Fluids to prevent impending shock
  • Platelets to help blood clot
  • H2 blockers for stomach acid secretion
  • Albumin to pull fluid

Question 97

Question
You are assigned to care for a patient that will be admitted for a chronic upper GI bleed. What signs and symptoms or findings will you expect?
Answer
  • Increased BP and elevated Hgb
  • Decreased BP and bradycardia
  • Decreased BP and flushed skin
  • Decreased BP and fatigue

Question 98

Question
A patient says, "I have had abdominal pain, bloating, visual changes, and bone pain over the past 3-6 months." On assessment, the nurse finds: weight loss and suspects an autoimmune hypersensitivity disorder. Which test does the nurse recommend for further confirmation?
Answer
  • Serology celiac panel
  • CT of abdomen
  • Ultrasound
  • Barium contrast series

Question 99

Question
Which is the most common etiologic agent of gastroenteritis in adults?
Answer
  • Escherichia coli (E.Coli)
  • Candida albicans
  • Norovirus
  • Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori)

Question 100

Question
Pancreatitis is commonly caused by
Answer
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Biliary tract disease and alcohol abuse
  • Hyperlipidemia and HTN

Question 101

Question
Which is a normal urine output?
Answer
  • 10-30 mL/hr
  • 30-60 mL/hr
  • 400 mL per hour for 4 hours
  • 100 mL/hr

Question 102

Question
Which of the following are not common manifestations of a UTI
Answer
  • Fever
  • Urgency
  • Confusion in the elderly
  • Dysuria

Question 103

Question
Which of the following is NOT a sign of nephrotic syndrome?
Answer
  • Hypertension
  • Low oncotic pressure
  • Ascites
  • Urinary obstruction
  • Pleural effusion

Question 104

Question
Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of renal colic?
Answer
  • Proteinuria
  • Nausea
  • Pain
  • Fever

Question 105

Question
If someone says they have flank pain, this is associated with:
Answer
  • Problem with the liver
  • Problem with the kidney
  • Problem with a small bladder
  • Problem with chronic back pain

Question 106

Question
Who is the least likely to get a UTI?
Answer
  • Spinal cord injury patient
  • Someone with kidney stones
  • An elderly women
  • A person with pneumonia
  • Diabetic patient

Question 107

Question
Who is more at risk for UTI?
Answer
  • Men
  • Women

Question 108

Question
What lab values would you expect with glomerulonephritis?
Answer
  • Increase serum creatinine, decrease GFR
  • Increase serum creatinine, increased GFR
  • Decreased serum creatinine, decreased GFR
  • Decreased serum creatinine, increased GFR

Question 109

Question
In acute kidney injury, which type of acid base abnormality would you expect to see?
Answer
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis

Question 110

Question
What happens with fluid and electrolytes shifts with chronic kidney injury?
Answer
  • Intracellular dehydration
  • Decreased extracellular fluid
  • Increased extracellular fluid

Question 111

Question
Glomerular filtration rate does not provide information on the cause of the kidney disease.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 112

Question
Endocrine disorders are easy to diagnose by the clinical manifestations.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 113

Question
When can someone develop a goiter?
Answer
  • Thyroid hypofunction
  • Thyroid hyperfunction
  • Either thyroid hypo/hyperfunction
  • None of the above

Question 114

Question
What is this a picture of?
Image:
Screen Shot 2019 03 09 At 09.02.29 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • Goiter
  • Exophthalamous
  • Graves dermopathy

Question 115

Question
What is this a picture of?
Image:
Screen Shot 2019 03 09 At 09.06.47 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • Goiter
  • Exophthalmous
  • Graves Dermopathy

Question 116

Question
What is this a picture of?
Image:
Screen Shot 2019 03 09 At 09.07.57 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • Goiter
  • Exophtalmous
  • Graves Dermopathy

Question 117

Question
In primary adrenal insufficiency, adrenal cortical hormone levels are:
Answer
  • High
  • Low
  • Not affected

Question 118

Question
In primary adrenal insufficiency, how much damage has occurred to the adrenal glands before it is diagnosed?
Answer
  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 60%
  • 90%

Question 119

Question
Cushing disease and Cushing syndrome are the same thing.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 120

Question
Cushing disease refers to:
Answer
  • Increased cortisol due to a thyroid tumor
  • Increased cortisol due to medications
  • Increased ACTH due to a tumor
  • Decreased cortisol due to medications

Question 121

Question
The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is:
Answer
  • Increased cortisol due to a tumor
  • Increased cortisol due to medications
  • Increased ACTH due to a tumor
  • Decreased cortisol due to medications

Question 122

Question
Why is the TSH elevated with hypothyroidism?
Answer
  • Due to positive feedback
  • Due to negative feedback
  • Due to hypothalamus not working
  • Due to adrenal glands not working

Question 123

Question
Which of the following is not a reason people can get SIADH
Answer
  • Cancer
  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Tylenol
  • Pneumonia

Question 124

Question
Which disease would have a urine [Na] that is high?
Answer
  • SIADH
  • DI
  • Addison's disease
  • Hyperthyroidism

Question 125

Question
Which disease would have a serum [Na] that is high?
Answer
  • SIADH
  • DI
  • Addison's disease
  • Hyperthyroidism

Question 126

Question
Which disease would you expect hyponatremia?
Answer
  • Grave's Disease
  • Addison's Disease
  • Hashimotos

Question 127

Question
A person who is thin and young can only have Type I Diabetes.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 128

Question
Which of the following accurately identifies the metabolic syndrome?
Answer
  • Elevated waist circumference, increased HDL, reduced triglycerides
  • Reduced HDL, elevated triglycerides, and increased waist circumference
  • Reduced HDL and waist circumference with increased BP
  • Elevated triglycerides, decreased waist circumference, decreased BP

Question 129

Question
The best test to assess a patient's glucose level over the past few months is:
Answer
  • Finger stick test while in the office
  • Basic metabolic panel
  • Hemoglobin A1C
  • Complete Blood Count

Question 130

Question
All of the following are complications of DM except:
Answer
  • Diabetic retinopathy
  • Renal disease
  • Increased susceptibility to infection
  • Increased incidence of cholelithiasis

Question 131

Question
All of the following are true regarding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation, except:
Answer
  • DIC is most commonly caused by sepsis and shock
  • DIC causes severe bleeding
  • DIC causes blood clotting
  • DIC is diagnosed by a high platelet count

Question 132

Question
Which of the following is one way sickle cell anemia can cause disease?
Answer
  • Sickled cells occlude the blood vessels preventing transportation of oxygen to tissues and organs
  • Sickled cells cause vasodilation, leading to hypotension
  • Red blood cells affected by sickle cell anemia have a longer than average lifespan, which results in a deterioration of oxygen carrying capacity
  • Sickled cells do not cause secondary complications, such as stroke and myocardial infarcion

Question 133

Question
A patient is suspected of having systemic lupus erythmatous. The nurse monitors her, knowing that which of the following is one of the initial characteristic signs of SLE?
Answer
  • Low temperature reading
  • Weight gain
  • Elevated RBC's
  • Rash on the face and across the bridge of the nose

Question 134

Question
How do you develop shingles?
Answer
  • Receiving the varicella vaccine
  • Through exposure to someone with shingles in the blister phase and subsequently contracting the varicella zoster virus
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • All of the above

Question 135

Question
Dilated cardiomyopathy can cause heart failure due to?
Answer
  • Left ventricle atrophy
  • Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
  • Increased systolic dysfunction
  • Thickening of the cardiac ventricle walls

Question 136

Question
What is the most common cause of mitral valve prolapse?
Answer
  • Middle age
  • Excess valve tissue
  • Stiffening of the valve
  • Bacterial or viral infection within the valve

Question 137

Question
In ventral septal defect, children may initially present with hypertrophy of the:
Answer
  • Liver
  • Right ventricle
  • Left ventricle
  • Spleen

Question 138

Question
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a combination of four cardiac defects. Which of the four is least responsible for the hypoxia that results from the condition?
Answer
  • Pulmonary artery stenosis
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Ventral septal defect
  • Overriding large ascending aorta

Question 139

Question
What is the primary cause of inflammation in endocarditis?
Answer
  • Valve malfunction
  • Normal wear and tear
  • Bacterial vegetations
  • Heart murmurs

Question 140

Question
Which of the following is a risk factor for Chlamydia?
Answer
  • Unprotected sexual intercourse
  • Swimming in public pools and freshwater lakes
  • Receiving a blood transfusion
  • Sharing a beverage with someone who has chlamydia

Question 141

Question
Herpes Simplex Virus 2 can be transmitted:
Answer
  • When you have genital sores
  • When you have sores in your mouth
  • When you don't have sores
  • From mother to fetus
  • All of the above

Question 142

Question
What is the body's response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in the lungs?
Answer
  • Pulmonary capillary damage leads to alveolar injury
  • Macrophages release enzymes that cause lung tissue necrosis
  • Hyperglycemia results, leading to diabetic ketoacidosis
  • Fluid builds up in the alveoli, impairing oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange, leading to hypoxia

Question 143

Question
Cystic Fibrosis mainly affects which body system?
Answer
  • Circulatory
  • Respiratory
  • Digestive
  • Nervous
  • B and C

Question 144

Question
When Bordetella pertussis is inhaled, the pertussis toxin is released. What does this toxin do to the airways?
Answer
  • Large toxins cause airway obstruction in the alvioli
  • Dilates airways
  • Causes airway inflammation
  • Causes pulmonary edema

Question 145

Question
What are some common causes of gout?
Answer
  • Excessive alcohol consumption
  • Family history
  • Purine rich diet
  • Active Lifestyle
  • A, B, and C

Question 146

Question
Which is not a typical symptom of psoriasis?
Answer
  • Bleeding gums
  • Red, thickened patches of skin
  • Silver white scales
  • Flaky skin

Question 147

Question
Huntington disease is...
Answer
  • Caused by a genetic defect in which the DNA unnecessarily repeats the CAG sequence
  • An autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disease
  • An X-linked dominant disease, more common in males
  • A disorder of the central nervous system that affects movement and occurs primarily in children

Question 148

Question
The following is not among early or late clinical problems associated with with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:
Answer
  • Difficulties with ADLs
  • Dyspnea and associated breathing problems
  • Slurred speech
  • High urine output

Question 149

Question
Diane is 70 years old and was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's Disease. It was identified as the "early stage" and she is very worried about the diagnosis since she witnessed her mother experience the disease as well. What changes in the brain would we see in Diane?
Answer
  • An increase in brain size
  • Neurofibrillary tangles and beta-amyloid plaques in the brain
  • Increased cellular communication and repair
  • Decrease in pineal gland size

Question 150

Question
Which of the following scenarios would NOT lead to peritonitis?
Answer
  • A case of untreated appendicitis
  • Pneumothorax following pneumocystic pneumonia infection
  • Unhygienic peritoneal dialysis
  • An infected fallopian tube

Question 151

Question
What is not true about neonatal jaundice?
Answer
  • Most babies experience some form of jaundice
  • The skin turns yellow due to build-up of bilirubin in the blood
  • Most babies are still jaundiced after one month of age
  • If the baby is not eating well, they have a higher risk of the condition

Question 152

Question
Why is mid-back pain associated with pyelonephritis and not a lower urinary tract infections?
Answer
  • Inflammation of the kidneys causes tenderness mid-back
  • Pyelonephritis is more common in older adults
  • Increased urination causes back pain
  • Mid-back pain is not associated with pyelonephritis

Question 153

Question
What is the difference between Cushing's disease and Cushing's syndrome?
Answer
  • Cushing's Syndrome is caused by hyperactive adrenal gland, secreting excess cortisol
  • Cushing's Syndrome can result from Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
  • Cushing's Disease is a result of an ACTH-secreting pituitary tumor, resulting in excess cortisol
  • Both A and C

Question 154

Question
Which of the following is NOT an effect of elevated parathyroid hormone secretion?
Answer
  • Serum calcium is increased due to bone resorption
  • Intestinal absorption of calcium is decreased
  • Extra calcium is built up in the kidneys, causing stones
  • Excretion of calcium through urination is decreased
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