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MICROBIO quiz for final exam

Description

quiz to prep for final microbiology exam for nursing
Ash Lig
Quiz by Ash Lig, updated more than 1 year ago
Ash Lig
Created by Ash Lig over 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Hand hygiene promotion and flu clinics are examples of which kind of prevention undertaken by a public health nurse?
Answer
  • Primary prevention
  • Secondary prevention
  • Tertiary prevention
  • Community-based prevention

Question 2

Question
Screening and outbreak investigations are examples of which kind of prevention undertaken by a public health nurse?
Answer
  • Primary prevention
  • Secondary prevention
  • Tertiary prevention
  • Detection

Question 3

Question
Tertiary prevention of infectious diseases in the work of a public health nurse would include...
Answer
  • Restoration and rehabilitation, preventing complications from illnesses
  • Early detection and treatment of illnesses
  • Preventing infections from happening
  • Identifying different pathogens common in community settings

Question 4

Question
The Provincial Public Health Acts aid in infectious disease control in part because they...
Answer
  • Protect the health of the community at large and give the Medical Officer of Health the power to act in public health emergencies
  • Detail which neighbourhoods of a municipality should be treated by which facility
  • Prevent the Medical Officer of Health from impeding efforts undertaken by frontline workers in emergencies related to infectious diseases

Question 5

Question
Direct Observed Therapy (DOT) for treatment of TB is an example of tertiary prevention in public health nursing.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Hantavirus?
Answer
  • RNA virus
  • DNA virus
  • Deer mouse are the reservoir
  • Bats are the reservoir
  • It can be spread via person-to-person transmission
  • The average incubation period is 14-30 days (can be 3-60 days)
  • The key messages in public education include ventilating the area for 30 minutes before cleaning

Question 7

Question
A child presents to the community clinic where you work. She is 10 years old and her mother is concerned because she was playing outside and a dog scratched her. What would you be most concerned about with regards to infectious diseases?
Answer
  • Rabies
  • Hantavirus
  • Mumps
  • TB

Question 8

Question
Rabies is a RNA virus, is transmitted through infected saliva, and usually takes 20-60 days to incubate (though it can take years!).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 9

Question
Once a person is ill with rabies, there is no treatment available.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 10

Question
You hear of a daycare where six children have fallen ill in 3 days. These children are presenting with severe diarrhea and the stools are green and watery with blood streaking and mucous. They also have fevers and abdominal pain. You suspect the infectious pathogen is...
Answer
  • Shigellosis
  • Hantavirus
  • Measles
  • Mumps

Question 11

Question
Shigellosis is a gram negative bacteria that has an incubation period of 1-7 days.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 12

Question
Which of the following pathogens can survive outside of the body for up to 2 months and can be shed in feces of carriers for months?
Answer
  • Shigellosis
  • Hantavirus
  • Rabies
  • Staph aureus

Question 13

Question
Which of the following is TRUE concerning mumps?
Answer
  • You are most contagious 2 days before onset of symptoms until 5 days after
  • The incubation period is 2-5 days
  • The classic presentation of symptoms (parotiditis - unilateral or bilateral) are present in 2/3 of cases.
  • Meningitis, oophoritis, orchitis are complications that can occur with measles, not mumps

Question 14

Question
Measles is much more serious than mumps and treatment is supportive.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 15

Question
Koplik's spots (clustered white lesions on buccal mucosa) are indicative of...
Answer
  • Measles
  • Mumps
  • Rubella
  • Shigellosis

Question 16

Question
Only those with active pulmonary TB or laryngeal TB are contagious.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 17

Question
Mode of transmission for TB is air droplet.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 18

Question
70% of people exposed to TB will never progress to active disease.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 19

Question
Fever and night sweats associated with TB infection will more likely be present in the very young or elderly.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
Select from the following factors that increase the probability of transmission of TB.
Answer
  • smear positive sputum
  • short exposure time (very easily transmitted)
  • severity of cough
  • overcrowded housing and poor ventilation
  • delays in diagnosis

Question 21

Question
Select all the correct signs and symptoms of active TB disease.
Answer
  • dry cough lasting more than 2-3 weeks
  • anorexia
  • fever or chills
  • night sweats
  • hemoptysis
  • fatigue
  • local symptoms (e.g. bone pain, swollen lymph nodes, dysuria)

Question 22

Question
Why is Direct Observed Therapy so important? Select the best answer.
Answer
  • It helps prevent the development of drug resistant strains of TB
  • It is a pain in the ass for the patient
  • It helps patients feel that nurses really care about them
  • It makes sure that there is emotional follow up

Question 23

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the detection of TB?
Answer
  • A TB skin test is a diagnostic test that involves an intradermal injection that is read within 48-72 hours of administration.
  • The size of a TB skin test induration plus the clinical picture helps determine whether a client needs a chest xray and sputum collection or not.
  • An induration following a TB skin test does not mean that someone has active TB disease. It only means they've been exposed at some point.
  • If a close contact of an active TB case has an initial TB skin test that is 0 mm, and a repeat test in 3 months is 20 mm, this is highly suggestive that the contact has developed active TB.

Question 24

Question
Someone with a latent TB infection is still contagious.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
Extrapulmonary TB can occur in any organ in the body.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
[blank_start]Epidemiology[blank_end] is the study of the distribution and determinants of disease, mainly infectious.
Answer
  • Epidemiology
  • Microbiology
  • Mycobacteriology

Question 27

Question
Lyme disease is continually present in the Canadian population. Therefore, this is an example of a disease that is...
Answer
  • endemic
  • pandemic
  • nosocomial
  • infectious

Question 28

Question
An increase of cases (more than would be expected) of cholera in Haiti in 2010 or microcephaly in Brazil in 2015 are examples of what kind of disease?
Answer
  • Endemic
  • Pandemic
  • Epidemic
  • Nosocomial

Question 29

Question
H1N1 in 2009 spread around the world. This is an example of...
Answer
  • an endemic disease
  • an epidemic
  • a pandemic
  • a nosocomial infection

Question 30

Question
Nosocomial infections are those that a patient developed purely as a result of their stay in hospital.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
There are a certain number of new cases of HIV infection in Canada every year. These new cases pertain to the...
Answer
  • incidence of HIV
  • prevalence of HIV
  • infectious nature of HIV
  • poor public health campaigns

Question 32

Question
A patient develops c diff as a direct result of a healthcare worker not performing proper hand hygiene. This is an example of...
Answer
  • contact transmission
  • vehicle transmission
  • vector transmission
  • traditional transmission

Question 33

Question
An 82-year-old female patient living in a nursing home develops complications from salmonella poisoning. This is an example of...
Answer
  • contact transmission
  • vehicle transmission
  • vector transmission
  • atypical transmission

Question 34

Question
Heater-cooler devices in the OR causing MOT infections and aspergillus infections in oncology patients are both examples of...
Answer
  • contact transmission
  • vector transmission
  • vehicle transmission
  • bad healthcare

Question 35

Question
What is a fomite?
Answer
  • A non-living object on which microbes live that can harm human health
  • A device used to sterilize stationary objects in the OR
  • An instrument used on oncology floors that are a major source of HAIs
  • A type of infectious vector

Question 36

Question
Which of the following patients are at risk for a hospital acquired infection?
Answer
  • patient in ICU or requiring extensive hands-on care
  • patient that has had invasive procedures or devices
  • patient with non-intact skin
  • debilitated patient with severe underlying disease
  • middle aged patients
  • patients who have recently had antibiotics
  • patients who are immunosuppressed
  • patients who have not been appropriately immunized
  • patients being cared for by inadequately trained staff

Question 37

Question
The work of an infection control nurse is varied and diverse and can include conducting surveillance, investigating outbreaks, analyzing data, and contributing to research.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 38

Question
Over half (53%) of the work of an infection prevention and control nurse will be collecting and analyzing data.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 39

Question
What is the proper order of PPE doffing?
Answer
  • remove gloves; remove goggles or face shield; remove gown; remove mask or respirator
  • remove mask or respirator; remove goggles or face shield; remove gown, remove gloves
  • remove gloves; remove gown; remove goggles or face shield; remove mask or respirator
  • remove goggles or face shield; remove gloves; remove gown; remove mask

Question 40

Question
You should perform hand hygiene between all steps in the process of doffing PPE.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 41

Question
What do the following four things have in common? Catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI), catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTI), ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), and surgical site infections (SSI).
Answer
  • they are all common hospital acquired infections
  • none of them can be prevented
  • they are all very difficult to define
  • they are types of infections that occur in the community setting

Question 42

Question
What is being pushed for as a new way to prevent catheter-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI - "CL" central line)?
Answer
  • using full-barrier precautions during central venous catheter insertion (e.g. surgical attire)
  • having the patient wear a mask during catheter insertion
  • using alcohol to prep skin
  • keeping in CVCs as long as possible

Question 43

Question
Urinary catheters are associated with higher rates of serious complications than most HCPs think.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
Urinary catheters should be inserted using sterile technique.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 45

Question
Routine mouth care with dilute chlorhexidine solution can lead to a 40% reduction in ventilator associated pneumonias.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
Surgical sites should be shaved prior to surgery to keep the site cleaner afterwards to prevent a surgical site infection.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 47

Question
With most antibiotics, they should be administered within 1 hour of cut time to prevent surgical site infections.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
When [blank_start]basophils[blank_end] are in tissues, they are called mast cells.
Answer
  • basophils
  • eosinophils
  • monocytes
  • neutrophils

Question 49

Question
[blank_start]Neutrophils and monocytes[blank_end] both circulate and live in tissues, engulf and destroy pathogens (phagocytosis), and remove dead cells and debris.
Answer
  • Neutrophils and monocytes
  • Neutrophils and eosinophils
  • Natural killer cells and lymphocytes

Question 50

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
Answer
  • Neutrophils and monocytes (phagocytes) don't recognize specific bacteria - they only recognize anything that is "not self"
  • Eosinophils release histamine and are responsible for fighting helminths
  • Basophils contain histamine and are called mast cells when inside tissues
  • Macrophages are called monocytes when they are present in tissues

Question 51

Question
Which of the following is CORRECT?
Answer
  • Lymphocytes and monocytes are granulocytes
  • Natural Killer cells are the first line of defence against viruses
  • Dendritic cells are responsible for forming immune tolerance against good bacteria in the gut
  • Eosinophils are called mast cells when in tissues

Question 52

Question
Leukocytes (WBCs) mature in either the thymus or in bone marrow.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding phagocytosis?
Answer
  • Some bacteria resist digestion, such as M. tuberculosis
  • Some bacteria produce toxins that cause phagocytes to self-digest, such as staphylococci and streptococci
  • Some bacteria are "slippery" (especially CAPSULES) and don't attach easily to the neutrophil or monocyte (aka macrophages in tissues)
  • Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytic and can recognize specific bacteria

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding tissue trauma?
Answer
  • Redness, heat, and swelling occur mainly because basophils/mast cells release histamine, which causes capillaries to dilate and become more permeable
  • Redness, heat, and swelling occur mainly because macrophages/monocytes release histamine, which causes capillaries to dilate and become more permable
  • Damaged cells release cytokines, which triggers leukocytosis and chemotaxis (aka calls other cells to come help)

Question 55

Question
We should permit fever within reason (fever due to infection RARELY exceeds 40 degrees Celcius) because there are many benefits to fever. Select all of the patients from the list below who should NOT be allowed to remain febrile.
Answer
  • Patients with severe heart disease
  • Patients with fluid and electrolyte imbalances
  • Patients with a history of febrile convulsions (especially infants)
  • Patients in the ICU with a neurological injury
  • Patients who have an infection

Question 56

Question
How do alpha and beta interferons help limit the spread of viruses?
Answer
  • They prompt surrounding cells to produce anti-viral proteins to block viral replication
  • They initiate phagocytosis
  • They release histamines
  • They initiate the complement cascade

Question 57

Question
The complement cascade involves large proteins produced in the liver, which is in part why patients with liver disease are immunocompromised.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 58

Question
An [blank_start]antigen[blank_end] is a substance the body identifies as foreign and [blank_start]epitopes[blank_end] are the part of it that our bodies recognize. [blank_start]Haptens[blank_end] are only antigenic if combined with a carrier molecule.
Answer
  • antigen
  • hapten
  • antibody
  • epitopes
  • haptens
  • antigens
  • Haptens
  • Epitopes
  • Antigens
  • Antibodies

Question 59

Question
An antibody is a protein made to match ONE antigen specifically - like a lock and key. The numbers of antibodies counted in a sample of blood is referred to as someone's "titer."
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
Maternal antibodies passed to an infant in utero or through breastmilk is an example of [blank_start]passive[blank_end] [blank_start]natural[blank_end] immunity. Immunization is an example of [blank_start]active[blank_end] [blank_start]artificial[blank_end] immunity.
Answer
  • passive
  • active
  • natural
  • artificial
  • active
  • passive
  • artificial
  • natural

Question 61

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding cell-mediated versus humoral immunity?
Answer
  • Humoral immunity involves B lymphocytes forming antibodies
  • Cell-mediated immunity involves T lymphocytes killing cells directly
  • Cell-mediated immunity is active against agents inside cells
  • Humoral immunity is active against substances inside cells

Question 62

Question
Humoral (B cells) immunity targets substances OUTSIDE of cells (e.g. bacteria, viruses before they enter), whereas cell-medicated (T cells) immunity targets agents INSIDE of cells (e.g. viruses, transplanted organs, parasites, etc.).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 63

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding B cells and humoral immunity?
Answer
  • B cells, along with macrophages and dendritic cells, can present antigens (thus becoming "antigen presenting cells")
  • Antigen presenting cells activate T helper cells, which secrete cytokines
  • The production of cytokines by T helper cells are necessary to begin the process of memory B cell production
  • Antigen presenting cells activate macrophages, which engulf viruses and kill them directly

Question 64

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding antibody classes?
Answer
  • IgG crosses the placenta and is the most abundant (80%) antibody in serum
  • IgA makes up about 10% of the antibodies in a serum sample and is found mostly in tears, saliva, colostrum, and mucous
  • IgM makes up about 5-10% of serum antibodies and indicates a RECENT infection because it is the first antibody in an encounter with a new antigen
  • IgE is about less than 0.005% of serum antibodies and is mostly related to allergy symptoms or helminth infection
  • IgD is elevated in some cancers

Question 65

Question
You are caring for a 45yo male in an ICU setting. He has had a neurological injury and is febrile at 39 degrees celcius. His IgM is elevated and he is on a ventilator. Select all of the following TRUE statements from the list below.
Answer
  • Due to the elevated IgM, we can say that this infection is very likely an OLD infection
  • We can let his fever run, unless he has contraindications, such as a pre-existing heart condiiton
  • We should be worried about him either having or developing ventilator associated pneumonia, as this is one of the most common and concerning hospital acquired infections
  • If he does not already have a ventilator associated pneumonia, we should be using a dilated alcohol solution to perform regular oral care

Question 66

Question
You are caring for a 25yo female who recently returned from a trip touring multiple countries in Western Africa. Her serum antibody results show an elevation in IgE. What might you suspect?
Answer
  • A worm infection
  • A new infection
  • A bacterial infection in her GI tract
  • An autoimmune disorder

Question 67

Question
One main difference in the pattern of antibody concentration during a primary versus a secondary response to an invasive pathogen is that during the SECOND infection, there will be more IgG sooner.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 68

Question
[blank_start]Neutralization[blank_end] of bacterial toxins is accomplished by IgG or IgA. [blank_start]Opsonization[blank_end] (antibodies coating bacteria) is accomplished mainly by IgG. [blank_start]Cell lysis[blank_end] is accomplished by complement proteins, which is activated by IgG or IgM, or is accomplished directly by IgM.
Answer
  • Neutralization
  • Opsonization
  • Presentation
  • Opsonization
  • Neutralization
  • Packaging of antigens
  • Cell lysis
  • Cell integration
  • Opsonization

Question 69

Question
You are caring for a 32yo male, who has recently been told that he is HIV positive. He asks you about the role of T cells in cell-mediated immunity, as he wants to know more about his immune system in general. You explain that...
Answer
  • T cells are like "divas" - they don't produce antibodies so they interact only with antigens *presented* directly to them
  • T cells are like "divas" - they only produce antibodies for very few kinds of viruses
  • T cells are made in the thymus and mature in bone marrow
  • The three main kinds of T cells are helper, cytotoxic, and complement

Question 70

Question
Select all of the following CORRECT statements about factors that modify immune responses.
Answer
  • Our immune systems mature by age 2-3 years
  • T cells are at their nadir (lowest) in winter
  • After running a marathon, you are at 6x the risk for an upper respiratory infection
  • One missed night of sleep drops NK cells by less than 1%
  • T cell immunity decreases during pregnancy

Question 71

Question
Passive immunization only lasts for as long as the cells last, whereas active immunizations can confer lifelong immunity (e.g. oral polio live attenuated vaccine).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 72

Question
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding HIV?
Answer
  • Reverse transcriptase makes errors 1 in every 10,000 copies, which is why resistant strains develop so easily and why we usually combine multiple medications
  • Ontario's priority populations, according to the AIDS Bureau, include heterosexual men, Western European immigrants, and Aboriginal men and women
  • Someone's viral load does not significantly impact their chances of transmitting HIV to a sexual partner
  • Male circumcision increases the risk of HIV transmission

Question 73

Question
Rectal mucosa is most susceptible as a site of transmission for HIV.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 74

Question
Select all of the following appropriate strategies to prevent the vertical transmission of HIV from mother to baby at time of delivery.
Answer
  • C-section reduces risk by about 60%
  • Initiating HIV treatment for mother prior to birth
  • Treating other STIs before birth
  • Vaginal delivery reduces risk of transmission

Question 75

Question
You are caring for a 28yo male. During your intake interview, you take a full sexual history and find that this client identifies as a gay man, takes PrEP but often misses doses, does not use condoms regularly, and has multiple sexual partners. You offer to get him tested for HIV. He asks, "If my test is negative, that means I'm in the clear, right?" Which is the most appropriate response of the options below?
Answer
  • "If your ELISA (antibody) test results are negative, this might mean that you are in the first stage of HIV infection and your body hasn't produced antibodies yet."
  • "If your ELISA (antibody) test results are negative, you are in the clear. However, you might want to consider whether you want to modify some of your risk factors by taking your PrEP regularly, for example."
  • "If you are in the first stage of HIV infection, called "acute HIV syndrome," your ELISA test will be positive but your RNA/molecular test will be negative, so we would recommend you get retested in six months."
  • "You should always use a condom."

Question 76

Question
You are caring for an 50yo male who was diagnosed as HIV positive in the early 1990's. He has never received any treatment for his HIV infection. His ELISA test is positive, however, he does not have any symptoms and his viral load is low. Which stage of infection is he in?
Answer
  • Acute HIV syndrome
  • Latent stage
  • Advanced HIV infection (AIDS)
  • Initial stage

Question 77

Question
You are caring for a 34yo female who is HIV positive and is receiving antiretroviral therapy (ART). She recently lost her job, her partner of 10 years left her, and she is feeling very depressed. She confides in you that she has recently stopped taking her medications regularly. She says, "What's the point anymore, there's nothing to live for." In addition to providing emotional support, which of the following might you consider telling her?
Answer
  • "If you are not taking your drugs regularly, you might develop a drug resistant strain of HIV, which could really limit your treatment options in the future."
  • "It's ok to have regular periods of not taking your ART drugs."
  • "Taking some medication breaks can actually help your body heal."

Question 78

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding percutaneous exposure and risk of transmission of viruses?
Answer
  • You are much more likely to become infected with Hep B than HIV following a needle stick injury
  • Your risk of contracting HIV from a workplace incident is greatly impacted by the type of body fluid you are exposed to (e.g very low risk from urine or saliva)
  • There are a number of documented cases of nurses contracting HIV after a skin splash
  • Your risk of contracting HIV is increased by increased gauge of needle, hollow bore needles versus suture needles, and the viral load of the patient

Question 79

Question
Your coworker comes to you and tells you that five days ago she got a needle stick injury while caring for a patient who is HIV positive. The patient is on ART, their viral load is very low, and the nurse was wearing a glove when she had the needle stick injury. What is your most appropriate response to your coworker?
Answer
  • "You need to go to the emergency department downstairs right away so you can get post exposure prophylactic treatment."
  • "It's been more than three days since your possible exposure so you might be told that it's too late to take post exposure prophylaxis."
  • "You're an idiot."
  • "We should pray."

Question 80

Question
If you have experienced a possible exposure to HIV in your workplace, you should first clean the area thoroughly and then go to ASAP to the occ health office or ER department to receive PEP.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 81

Question
Being infected with other STIs, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, trichomoniasis, or candidiasis, increases your risk of becoming infected with HIV.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 82

Question
A client presents to your clinic. He reports urethral discharge that is quite purulent, dysuria, and pelvic floor pain that radiates to his back. The discomfort comes and goes. You suspect he might have...
Answer
  • gonorrhea
  • chlamydia
  • HIV
  • HPV

Question 83

Question
Which of the following are CORRECT regarding urethritis? You may select more than one statement.
Answer
  • General symptoms include urethral discharge, dysuria (especially if drinking alcohol), and deep pelvic pain, possibly radiating to the back (might mean involvement of other structures)
  • A wide range of symptom severity, often asymptomatic
  • Gonorrhea infections may lead to other clinical manifestations, such as arthritis, dermatitis, and endocarditis
  • Taking cultures is not necessary - might as well go to NAAT directly because it has better sensitivity to diagnose both gonorrhea and chlamydia

Question 84

Question
[blank_start]Syphilis[blank_end] is a non-culturable spirochete. It is called the "great mimicker."
Answer
  • Syphilis
  • Gonorrhea
  • Chlamydia
  • Herpes
  • HPV
  • HIV

Question 85

Question
[blank_start]Painless[blank_end] chancres are usually due to syphillis, whereas [blank_start]painful[blank_end] chancres are usually due to herpes.
Answer
  • Painless
  • Painful
  • painful
  • painless

Question 86

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding syphilis?
Answer
  • Secondary syphilis can have numerous manifestations, including fever, malaise, rashes on palms and soles of feet, alopecia, hepatitis, and meningitis
  • Primary syphilis usually presents with a painful chancre on genitals
  • Latent syphilis will very likely be asymptomatic
  • Tertiary syphilis can present with cardiovascular, neurologic, or gummatous symptoms. The incubation period for tertiary syphilis can be between 1-46 years.

Question 87

Question
Neurosyphilis can present at any stage of syphilis infection.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 88

Question
You are about to administer a dose of IM penicillin to a patient who has been diagnosed with syphilis. Before administering the injection, which is the most important thing to tell the patient?
Answer
  • "You may develop malaise and fever within hours of this first dose, which is called a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction and is due to the immune response to killed treponemes, not the penicillin itself."
  • "You may develop malaise and fever within hours of this first dose, which is a sign that you are having a serious allergic reaction to penicillin. Take yourself to an emergency department and tell them you've been given an IM dose of penicillin."
  • "What did you do that ended up with you having syphilis?"
  • "Did you know you can die of syphilis?"

Question 89

Question
A patient reports recurrent painful blisters on their genitals. You suspect that they might be infected with herpes simplex virus. What should you do FIRST?
Answer
  • Take a thorough sexual history, as this is often enough to diagnose clinically
  • Swab the blister for culture
  • Tell the patient that they should be practicing safer sex
  • Inform the patient that they will need to contact all their sexual partners and tell them they might have herpes

Question 90

Question
You are counselling a patient who was just diagnosed with HPV. She asks you, "doesn't this mean I'm going to develop cervical cancer?" What is the best response?
Answer
  • "Some types of HPV are oncogenic, meaning they can increase your risk of developing cancer. Would you be interested in getting tested to see if you carry an oncogenic strain?"
  • "Yes, you will likely develop cervical cancer, so we should increase the frequency of your Pap smears to every six months."
  • "No, HPV does not have any connection to increased risk of developing cancer."
  • "Google it."

Question 91

Question
Gonorrhea, chalmydia, chancroid, syphilis, and HIV are notifiable diseases, meaning there is a public health requirement for sexual partners to be contacted. Notification can be done by the MD, public health, or by the patient.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 92

Question
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding travel vaccinations?
Answer
  • Yellow Fever and Meningococcus vaccines are usually "required" vaccines
  • "Recommended" vaccines include MMR, chicken pox, DPT, Polio, and Tetanus
  • N Meningitidis vaccine should be given not only to the traveller but also their family members because the vaccine does NOT prevent the person from being a carrier
  • Children handle Hep A well but adults do not

Question 93

Question
You are caring for a client who just returned from a trip and thinks she might have been exposed to Hep B. The potential exposure occurred 10 days ago. What should you NOT say to her regarding treatment?
Answer
  • "Unfortunately, since you're past 7 days, there would be no benefit to you receiving Hep B Immune Globulin."
  • "We should test your blood right away to see if you've been infected and we should get you some Hep B Immune Globulin asap."
  • "Did you get vaccinated before you left?"
  • "If you are infected, there are a few treatment options, including immunotherapy (e.g. interferon) and antiretrovirals (same medications that were used to treat HIV)."

Question 94

Question
Hep D virus replicates only in the presence of Hep B - coinfection or superinfection. Therefore, the Hep B vaccine protects against Hep D.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 95

Question
Which of the following situations would warrant immediate vaccination against rabies, washing and flushing of any wound, and administration of rabies immune globulin?
Answer
  • A child who was touching and feeding animals at the family farm in Eastern Europe
  • A young woman who had a minor scratch from a potentially rabid dog - the scratch did not bleed
  • An elderly man who was licked by a potentially rabid dog on broken skin
  • A young child who had multiple transdermal bites and scratches from a dog in Bangkok

Question 96

Question
A fever from the tropics should be assumed to be malaria until proven otherwise. Quick treatment can be the difference between life and fast deterioration.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 97

Question
[blank_start]Vivax[blank_end] specie of malaria is rarely lethal but incapacitates the host and can stay dormant in the liver for years. [blank_start]Falciparum[blank_end] specie leads to life threatening complications such as coma, wet lung, jaundice, anemia, and renal failure.
Answer
  • Vivax
  • Falciparum
  • Falciparum
  • Vivax
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