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HPS202 exam revision

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HPS202 quiz Deakin uni
kiera.mj
Quiz by kiera.mj, updated more than 1 year ago
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Created by kiera.mj about 9 years ago
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Question 1

Question
Which of the following best describes DNA?
Answer
  • DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, and contains all of the genetic information required for features of our bodies
  • DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, and sends messages to our brain about how to control our bodily movements
  • DNA is an inherited script, based upon our environmental interactions early on in life
  • DNA is something that we all carry, but only utilise it in conscious situations

Question 2

Question
If a father's sperm contains an X chromosome, when paired with a mother's egg, the resulting child:
Answer
  • Will not have its sex determined until after 8 weeks gestation
  • Will be male
  • Will inherit both male and female characteristics
  • Will be female

Question 3

Question
To be expressed, a dominant gene:
Answer
  • Must have its pair in order to be expressed
  • Will be expressed regardless if a recessive gene is present
  • Will not be expressed if a recessive gene is present
  • Is expressed in combination with the recessive gene

Question 4

Question
If blue eye color is a recessive gene, then in order for a person to have a phenotype of blue eyes:
Answer
  • Two blue eye genes must be present
  • As long as one blue eye gene is present, the trait will be expressed in the phenotype
  • Blue eye color is expressed randomly, there is no genetic pattern
  • Blue eye recessive genes will dominate over dominant genes of, for example, brown eyes

Question 5

Question
A gene showing co-dominance:
Answer
  • Has one allele that is dominant to the other
  • Has two alleles that are equal in dominance
  • Has alleles linked tightly on the same chromosome
  • Has alleles which are recessive to each other

Question 6

Question
Identify the differences between a genotype and phenotype:
Answer
  • A genotype is the genes carried by a person; the phenotype is the observable expression of the genes
  • A phenotype is the genes carried by a person; the genotype is the observable expression of the genes
  • A genotype carries all of the genes from your mother; A phenotype carries all of the genes from your father
  • A genotype is the observable expression of the genes; A phenotype is all of the alleles that you carry

Question 7

Question
Place the three phases of prenatal development in the correct procedural order:
Answer
  • Germinal, foetal, embryonic
  • Germinal, embryonic, foetal
  • Embryonic, germinal, foetal
  • Embryonic, foetal, germinal

Question 8

Question
Which of the following correctly matches the layers of the embryonic disc with the structures that they form, with ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm respectively?
Answer
  • the nervous system, skin and hair; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands
  • the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the nervous system, skin and hair
  • muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; the nervous system, skin and hair
  • the nervous system, skin and hair; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs

Question 9

Question
Which of the following occur during the embryonic period?
Answer
  • All basic organs of the body are formed, and the embryo begins to respond to direct stimulation
  • Organs take on their final form and begin to function
  • An inner membrane, called the amnion, forms a watertight sac with amniotic fluid to protect the developing organism
  • Implantation

Question 10

Question
During which trimester does the foetus begin to move and kick, as well as develop the sucking and swallowing complexes?
Answer
  • Trimester 1
  • Trimester 2
  • Trimester 3
  • Within two weeks of birth

Question 11

Question
During which trimester does the foetus respond reflexively to touch on the face?
Answer
  • Trimester 1
  • Trimester 2
  • Trimester 3
  • Between trimester 2 and 3

Question 12

Question
During which trimester does the brain indicate periods of sleep and wakefulness?
Answer
  • Trimester 1
  • Trimester 2
  • Trimester 3
  • From implantation

Question 13

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding teratogens?
Answer
  • A teratogen is an agent which can cause birth defects
  • A teratogen causes speedier and healthier development
  • Some common teratogens include alcohol, tobacco, some STIs, illicit and prescribed drugs
  • Teratogens are usually something in the environment that the mother is exposed to during pregnancy

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is an example of how environmental influences can impact on our genetics?
Answer
  • A child grows to be very tall, like his mother and father
  • A boy learns to play the guitar from his father
  • A neglected child still creates meaningful attachments later in life
  • A neglected and malnourished child does not grow to be very tall, despite having tall parents

Question 15

Question
The frontal lobe of the brain is the last to develop, and often does not reach maturity until early adulthood. Which of the following are functions of the frontal lobes?
Answer
  • Reasoning, decision making, and executive functioning
  • Imagining, memory, and risk taking
  • Taste, touch, smell, hearing and sight
  • Emotional reactions to fear-inducing stimuli

Question 16

Question
Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Trust V Mistrust'?
Answer
  • Occurs from birth-18 moths; a key event during this period is exploration. To resolve this crisis, the child must be able to safely explore and engage with their environment.
  • Occurs from 2-3 years old; a key event during this period is feeding. Trust is developed when caregivers consistently meet the child's needs.
  • Occurs from 2-3 years; a key event during this period is exploration. To resolve this crisis, the child must be able to safely explore and engage with their environment.
  • Occurs from birth-18 months; a key event during this period is feeding. Trust is developed when caregivers consistently meet the child's needs.

Question 17

Question
Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Autonomy V Shame and Doubt'?
Answer
  • Occurs at 2-3 years of age; a key event during this period is toilet training. Autonomy is achieved when children can develop a sense of personal control over physical skills.
  • Occurs at 6-11 years of age; a key event during this period is feeding. To achieve autonomy, the child must be able to source their own food and necessary supplies.
  • Occurs at birth-18 months; a key event during this period is toilet training. Autonomy is achieved when children can develop a sense of personal control over physical skills.
  • Occurs at 6-11 years of age; a key event during this period is friendships. To achieve autonomy, a child must be able to make friendships without parental assistance.

Question 18

Question
Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Intiative V Guilt'?
Answer
  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is exploration. Children need to establish power and control over their environment, leading them to a sense of purpose.
  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is pre-school. Children need to cope with new social and academic demands.
  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is school. Children need to cope with new social and academic demands.
  • Occurs from 2-3 years; a key event during this period is exploration. Children need to establish power and control over their environment, leading them to a sense of purpose.

Question 19

Question
Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Industry V Inferiority'?
Answer
  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is schooling. Industry is achieved when the child is able to cope with the new social and academic demands.
  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is schooling. Industry is achieved when the child is able to cope with the new social and academic demands.
  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success is achieved when children feel valued and useful within their friendship groups.
  • Occurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success is achieved when children feel valued and useful within their friendship groups.

Question 20

Question
Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Identity V Role Confusion'?
Answer
  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success in this stage leads to a formed ability to develop a sense of self and stay to true to oneself.
  • Occurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success in this stage leads to a formed ability to develop a sense of self and stay to true to oneself.
  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is intimate relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when individuals are able to develop an identity in combination with their partner.
  • Occurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is intimate relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when individuals are able to develop an identity in combination with their partner.

Question 21

Question
Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Intimacy V Isolation'?
Answer
  • Occurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual can form intimate, loving relationships with others.
  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual can form intimate, loving relationships with others.
  • Occurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when the individual is able to interact with people in passing.
  • Occurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual engages in sexual activity.

Question 22

Question
Which of the following statements accurately describes the most sophisticated self-theory seen during late adolescence?
Answer
  • "I am a boy, I am five, and I like playing sport"
  • "I am a feminist, I am creative, and I support the Labor party"
  • "I am a feminist, I am creative, and I support the Labor party. I am happy and extroverted with friends, but sad and quiet at home"
  • "I am a female, and I am usually happy, and I am in high school"

Question 23

Question
Which of the following statements accurately describes identity diffusion?
Answer
  • I haven't really thought about who I am, or who I am going to be yet.
  • My parents are Catholic, so I am going to be Catholic.
  • I have considered many religions, including Catholicism, which I was raised as. I have decided to convert to Buddhism.
  • I was brought up being taught how to run the family farm, but I am considering other career options currently.

Question 24

Question
Which of the following statements accurately describes identity foreclosure?
Answer
  • My parents were doctors, so I will be too.
  • I have not thought about who I am, or what I want to be.
  • I believe I want to be a doctor, I am just making my final decisions about it now.
  • My parents were doctors, but I am looking into being a vet.

Question 25

Question
Which of the following statements accurately describes identity moratorium?
Answer
  • I have been brought up Christian, but am currently looking into Catholicism.
  • My parents were Christian, therefore I will be too.
  • I haven't given any thought as to who I am or who I want to be.
  • I have considered many options, and have decided to practice Buddhism.

Question 26

Question
Which of the following statements accurately describes identity achievement?
Answer
  • I have considered many different career options, and I have decided that I am going to be a doctor.
  • My parents were doctors so I am going to be a doctor also.
  • Because my parents were doctors and unhappy, I am going to do something other than be a doctor.
  • My parents were doctors, but I am looking into some career options of my own.

Question 27

Question
Which of the following do NOT have a major influence on identify formation?
Answer
  • Cognitive development and scholastic opportunities
  • Parental relationships and influence
  • Sociocultural influences
  • Emotional regulation

Question 28

Question
At what age does gender constancy occur?
Answer
  • 5-7 years
  • 2-4 years
  • 3-5 years
  • 6-8 years

Question 29

Question
At what age does gender-typed behaviour begin?
Answer
  • 2 years
  • 3 years
  • 5 years
  • 12 years

Question 30

Question
During which period are racial and prejudicial attitudes influenced by parents most strongly?
Answer
  • At 3 years
  • At 7 years
  • Adolescence
  • Adulthood

Question 31

Question
The child may be engaged in seemingly random movements, with no clear objective. This best describes which type of play?
Answer
  • Unoccupied play
  • Solitary play
  • Onlooker play
  • Multi-dimension play

Question 32

Question
The child plays alone with different toys or other objects, and with no direct or indirect awareness of or involvement with other children, even if nearby. This best describes which type of play?
Answer
  • Solitary play
  • Onlooker play
  • Unoccupied play
  • Only-child play

Question 33

Question
The child watches others play without actually entering into the activities. The child is clearly involved with what is happening, and is usually within speaking distance of the participants. This best describes which type of play?
Answer
  • Onlooker play
  • Solitary play
  • Unoccupied play
  • Excluded play

Question 34

Question
Involves two or more children playing side-by-side in close proximity and with an awareness of each other's presence, often with the same toy or enjoying similar activity, but do not share toys, talk, or interact except in very minimal ways. This best describes which type of play?
Answer
  • Parallel play
  • Associative play
  • Cooperative play
  • Solitary play

Question 35

Question
Children engage in a common activity and talk about it with each other, but do not assign tasks or roles to particular individuals and are not very clear about common goals. This describes best which type of play?
Answer
  • Onlooker play
  • Parallel play
  • Cooperative play
  • Associative play

Question 36

Question
Children consciously form into groups to make something, attain a goal, or dramatise a situation. One or two members organise and direct the activity with children assuming different roles and responsibilities. Which type of play does this most accurately describe?
Answer
  • Group play
  • Parallel play
  • Cooperative play
  • Associative play

Question 37

Question
Identify the categories of Grussec and Lytton's play typology:
Answer
  • Functional, constructive, pretend, and games with rules
  • Onlooker, parallel, associative, and cooperative play
  • Solitary, onlooker, parallel, and cooperative
  • Functional, fine motor, pretend, and gross motor

Question 38

Question
What emotions are present from birth?
Answer
  • Interest, disgust, and contentment
  • Disgust, contentment, and discomfort
  • Anger, sadness, and joy
  • Surprise, joy, and anger

Question 39

Question
What emotions appear in the 2-7 month period in infants?
Answer
  • Anger, sadness, joy, and surprise
  • Interest, disgust, and contentment
  • Embarassment, shame, and guilt
  • Envy, pride, and happiness

Question 40

Question
Self-conscious emotions (including embarrassment, shame, guilt, envy, and pride), are called so because:
Answer
  • Each involves some damage or enhancement to our sense of self
  • Each is detrimental to our sense of self
  • Each improves our sense of self
  • Each requires self-recognition and an understanding of rules or standards for evaluating one's conduct

Question 41

Question
Self-evaluative emotions, including shame, guilt and pride, are called so because:
Answer
  • They either enhance or are detrimental to our sense of self
  • They are detrimental to our sense of self
  • They enhance our sense of self
  • They require self-recognition and an understanding of rules or standards for evaluating one's conduct

Question 42

Question
Regarding emotional display rules, which of the following is FALSE:
Answer
  • Emotional display rules vary across cultures
  • Every culture has similar or the same emotional display rules
  • A child who feigns pleasure at a displeasing present has mastered Westernised emotional display rules
  • At age 3, children can begin to disguise, suppress, and replace emotions

Question 43

Question
Social referencing beings to occur at 7-10 months. This refers to:
Answer
  • Using others' emotional expressions to infer the meaning of otherwise ambiguous situations
  • If other people are happy, the infant will display this emotion also
  • Infants learn facial expressions and emotions from others, and put these into use at a later date
  • Children learn emotional display rules from social referencing

Question 44

Question
The 3 components of emotional competence include:
Answer
  • Competent emotional expressivity, competent emotional regulation, and competent emotional knowledge
  • Competent in being quiet and still, competent behavioural skills, and competent communication of emotions
  • Competent emotional expressivity, competent in raising the moods of others, and competent social referencing
  • Competent in maintaining positive moods, competent communication skills, and competent emotional knowledge

Question 45

Question
There are six dimensions to temperaments. Identify which of the following is NOT one of these core dimensions:
Answer
  • Fearful distress
  • Irritable distress
  • Positive affect
  • Activity level
  • Attention span/persistence
  • Rhythmicity
  • Desire for social engagement

Question 46

Question
Thomas and Chess' notion of 'goodness of fit' refers to:
Answer
  • Development being optimised when parents' child rearing practices are sensitively adapted to the child's temperamental characteristics
  • Development being delayed when parents' child rearing practices are sensitively adapted to the child's temperamental characteristics
  • Development being optimised when parents' child rearing practices are standardised regardless of temperament
  • Development is delayed if parents do not adjust their lives properly around their children

Question 47

Question
Identify the correct order in which the phases of attachment occur:
Answer
  • Social phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, the specific attachment phase, and the phase of multiple attachments
  • The phase of indiscriminate attachments, the specific attachment phase, the phase of multiple attachments, and the social phase
  • Social phase, the specific attachment phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, and the phase of multiple attachments
  • The phase of multiple attachments, the specific attachment phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, and the social phase,

Question 48

Question
"To love you, I must know you will always be there". This statement refers most closely to which of the following theories of attachment?
Answer
  • Psychoanalytic theory
  • Learning theory
  • Cognitive developmental theory
  • Ethological theory

Question 49

Question
Stranger anxiety occurs at _____, and is _______________:
Answer
  • 7-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is approached by an unfamiliar person
  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is approached by an unfamiliar person
  • 7-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached
  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached

Question 50

Question
Separation anxiety occurs at _____, and is ____________:
Answer
  • 6-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached
  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached
  • 6-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are approached by a stranger
  • 9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from their home environment

Question 51

Question
Four types of attachment types have been proposed. These include __________,__________, __________, and __________. The most common type of attachment is __________.
Answer
  • Secure, resistant, avoidant, and disorganised; secure
  • Secure, resistant, avoidant, and disorganised; disorganised
  • Secure, wary, infactuated, and disorganised; secure
  • Secure, wary, infactuated, and disorganised; infactuated

Question 52

Question
A child who has a secure attachment has most likely experienced:
Answer
  • Positive attitudes from parents, and parents are sensitive to infant's needs
  • Mostly positive attitudes from parents, but the parents often have bursts of anger
  • Parents are inflexible in their schedules, only providing care for the child at specific times
  • Positive attitudes from strangers, and strangers are sensitive to infant's needs

Question 53

Question
A child who has a positive model of themselves, but a negative model of others (according to the 'working models' theory), most likely has which attachment type:
Answer
  • Avoidant attachment
  • Secure attachment
  • Resistant attachment
  • Disorganised attachment

Question 54

Question
A child has only ever known their family dog-a small chihuahua. Upon seeing a large Labrador, his mother explains that this is also a dog. The child therefore adds this image to his existing schema of dogs. This is a process best known as:
Answer
  • Assimilation
  • Accommodation
  • Maturation
  • Reflexive learning

Question 55

Question
Identify the correct ordering of the 6 substages of Piaget's sensorimotor period:
Answer
  • Simple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular motions, and beginnings of thought.
  • Simple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, coordination of secondary reactions, and beginnings of thought.
  • Beginnings of thought, simple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, and coordination of secondary reactions.
  • Beginnings of thought, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, coordination of secondary reactions, and simple reflexes.

Question 56

Question
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of children's thinking during Piaget's preoperational stage?
Answer
  • Centration
  • Lack of knowledge regarding conservation
  • Egocentrism
  • Object permanence

Question 57

Question
The concrete operational stage refers to the ability to solve problems regarding:
Answer
  • Tangible objects
  • Abstract problems
  • Hypothetical-deductive reasoning
  • Theorising cause and effect

Question 58

Question
Which of the following is NOT something a child learns to do in the formal operational stage:
Answer
  • Solve abstract problems
  • Use hypothetical-deductive reasoning
  • Apply logic to situations
  • Understand knowledge of conservation

Question 59

Question
When a child is aggressive, but their main goal is to gain access to objects, space, or privileges, this aggression is best described as:
Answer
  • Immature aggression
  • Hostile aggression
  • Instrumental aggression
  • Relational aggression

Question 60

Question
The stages of the social information-processing theory of aggression are: encode, interpret, ________, generate possible strategies, __________, and ___________.
Answer
  • Formulate a goal; evaluate which strategy to employ; enact response
  • Evaluate which strategy to employ; enact response, evaluate enacted strategy
  • Formulate a goal; enact first response; enact scond response
  • Evaluate which strategy to employ; enact first response; enact scond response

Question 61

Question
Which of the following is NOT shown to be common in the nature of bullies:
Answer
  • May have been bullied themselves
  • Have high self esteem
  • Have low self esteem
  • View aggression positively

Question 62

Question
Which one of the following is NOT a stage in Piaget's theory of moral development?
Answer
  • Pre-moral
  • Heternomous
  • Autonomous
  • Socially-defined

Question 63

Question
If someone said that they would cheat if they knew that they would not get caught, then they would be considered to be in the ________ level of morality, in stage __.
Answer
  • Preconventional; 1
  • Preconventional; 2
  • Postconventional; 6
  • Conventional; 3

Question 64

Question
If an individual said that they would let you copy their homework, if they could also copy yours from another subject, then this individual would be placed in the ____ level of morality, in stage __.
Answer
  • Preconventional; 2
  • Conventional; 3
  • Conventional; 4
  • Preconventional; 1

Question 65

Question
If an individual decided not to do something to someone, because they want to be liked by them, then this individual would be considered to be in the _____ level of morality, in stage __.
Answer
  • Conventional; 3
  • Conventional; 4
  • Pre-conventional; 2
  • Post-conventional; 5

Question 66

Question
If a child says "you can't do that, because the teacher said not to!", you can assume that they are in the ____ level of morality, in stage __.
Answer
  • Conventional; 4
  • Conventional; 3
  • Preconventional; 2
  • Postconventional; 5

Question 67

Question
In Kohlberg's scenario of the man stealing the medicine for his wife because he couldn't afford it, if an individual stated that this may have been a case where the rule needed breaking, you could assume that they are in ______ level of morality, and in stage __.
Answer
  • Post-conventional; 5
  • Post-conventional; 6
  • Conventional; 3
  • Conventional; 4

Question 68

Question
If an individual is acting consistently in such a way that they believe is right, regardless of punishment, or laws, this person is probably in the ______ level of morality, in stage __.
Answer
  • Post-conventional; 6
  • Conventional; 3
  • Post-conventional; 5
  • Conventional; 4

Question 69

Question
The basic units of sound refers to:
Answer
  • Phonemes
  • Morphemes
  • Semantics
  • Pragmatics

Question 70

Question
The word 'elephant' is an example of a ____ morpheme, whereas '-s' is an example of a _____ morpheme.
Answer
  • Free; bound
  • Bound; free
  • Pragmatic; semantic
  • Semantic; pragmatic

Question 71

Question
Rules that specify how words are to be combined to form meaningful phrases and sentences refers to:
Answer
  • Syntax
  • Semantics
  • Pragmatics
  • Morphology

Question 72

Question
The suggestion that language is learned by imitation (of adults) and reinforcement, is most strongly correlated with the _______________ theory of language development.
Answer
  • Learning/empiricist
  • Nativist
  • Interactionist
  • Cognitive

Question 73

Question
At what ages does 'cooing' begin (e.g. 'ooh' and 'aaah')?
Answer
  • 2 months
  • 4-6 months
  • From birth
  • 7 months

Question 74

Question
At what age does babbling (consonants added to speech, although words do not convey meaning) occur?
Answer
  • 4-6 months
  • 2 months
  • 10-12 months
  • 8 months

Question 75

Question
At what age do infants begin to reserve certain sounds for certain situations (for example, 'mm' when making requests, thus indicating knowledge of meaning)?
Answer
  • 2 months
  • 4-6 months
  • 6-8 months
  • 10-12 months

Question 76

Question
At what age do gestures and non-verbal responses tend to begin?
Answer
  • 7 months
  • 4-6 months
  • 10-12 months
  • 8-10 months

Question 77

Question
Pointing at something to draw attention to it is an example of a(n) ________ gesture, whereas by tugging on a caregiver's leg, indicating that they want to be picked up, is a(n) ________ gesture.
Answer
  • Declarative; imperative
  • Imperative; declarative
  • Indicative; meaningful
  • Meaningful; indicative

Question 78

Question
Using one word to represent a sentence (e.g. 'ball', to represent 'I want the ball'), is an example of a:
Answer
  • Holophrase
  • Monophrase
  • Telegraphic phrase
  • Immature sentence

Question 79

Question
Comprehension via the process of fast-mapping occurs at ______, but is not expressive until ______.
Answer
  • 13-15 months; 24-30 months
  • 15-18 months; 18-24 months
  • 12-14 months; 18-24 months
  • 12-24 months; 24-36 months

Question 80

Question
When a child speaks using only critical words to a sentence, for example, 'kitty go, ' this is an example of:
Answer
  • Holophrases
  • Telegraphic speech
  • Dual phrases
  • Pragmatic speech

Question 81

Question
When a child says 'I runned' instead of 'I ran', this is an example of:
Answer
  • Speech error
  • Overregulation
  • Pragmatic development
  • Motherese

Question 82

Question
At what age can children understand illocutionary intent (underlying meaning)?
Answer
  • 3 years
  • 1 year
  • 2 years
  • 4 years

Question 83

Question
Which of the following is NOT part of criteria A for ASD?
Answer
  • Persistent deficits in social communication and social interactions across multiple contexts
  • Deficits in nonverbal communicative behaviours used for social interaction
  • Deficits in developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships
  • Restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities

Question 84

Question
Which of the following are NOT part of criteria B for ASD? Restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interest, or activities over at least two of the following:
Answer
  • Stereotyped or repetitive motor movements
  • Use of objects or speech
  • Highly restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in intensity or focus
  • Insistence on different routines every day

Question 85

Question
In higher functioning individuals with ASD, what is the male:female ratio of prevalence?
Answer
  • 4:1
  • 9:1
  • !:1
  • 4:2

Question 86

Question
Which of the following is NOT a proposed causal factor of ASD?
Answer
  • Weaker central coherence
  • Extreme male brain
  • Extreme female brain
  • Executive functioning disabilities

Question 87

Question
Under the DSM-V criteria, the prevalence for ADHD is said to be __. The concordance rate between monozygotic twins is up to __.
Answer
  • 8%; 80%
  • 80%; 8%
  • 18%; 80%
  • 80%; 18%

Question 88

Question
Which of the following is NOT an explanation used to explain why ASD is less prevalent in females?
Answer
  • Females may have innately better social skills
  • Diagnoses may not recognize female manifestations of ASD
  • Females may have a larger innate desire to socialise
  • Females possess the Y chromosome, thus exposing them less to the disorder

Question 89

Question
Which of the following is NOT a presentation of ADHD?
Answer
  • ADHD predominantly inattentive presentation
  • ADHD predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation
  • ADHD combined presentation
  • ADHD attention-deficit presentation

Question 90

Question
Which of the following is NOT required for a diagnosis of ADHD?
Answer
  • If the individual is <17, 6 diagnostic criteria must be present
  • If the individual is >17, 5 diagnostic criteria must be present
  • Symptoms must be present before 12 years of age
  • The individual must have a co-existing psychotic disorder

Question 91

Question
There is no evidence to suggest that ADHD is a brain-based dysfunction
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 92

Question
Which of the following is the most effective treatment for ADHD?
Answer
  • Stimulants such as Ritalin, Dexedrine, and Amphetamines
  • Cognitive Behaviour Therapy
  • Cognitive Behaviour Therapy in combination with stimulants such as Ritalin, Dexedrine, and Amphetamines
  • This disorder resolves with age and maturity

Question 93

Question
Which of the following is not a risk factor for Schizophrenia?
Answer
  • Prenatal stressors
  • Drug use/abuse
  • Obstetric complications
  • Living within a functional family environment

Question 94

Question
The average age of onset for Schizophrenia is __ in men, and __ in women.
Answer
  • 18; 25
  • 25; 18
  • 18; 18
  • 18; 22

Question 95

Question
Schizophrenia tends to affect ___ more predominantly, with a(n) ______ onset, and generally more severe symptoms
Answer
  • Men; earlier
  • Men; later
  • Females; earlier
  • Females; later

Question 96

Question
(RE Schizophrenia) In 10 years post-diagnosis, ___ of patients completely recover, and ___ are much improved
Answer
  • 25%; 25%
  • 25%; 50%
  • 50%; 25%
  • One in 3 individuals diagnosed

Question 97

Question
Violence towards others is a symptom of Schizophrenia
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 98

Question
Which of the following is NOT part of the neurobiological explanation for schizophrenia?
Answer
  • Imbalances of dopamine and glutamate exist
  • Ventricles in the brain are larger
  • There tends to be less grey matter in the brain
  • There tends to be more white matter in the brain

Question 99

Question
Which of the following is a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
Answer
  • Hallucinations
  • Delusions
  • Flat affect
  • Movement disorders

Question 100

Question
Eating disorders affect approximately __ of the Australian population
Answer
  • 9%
  • 15%
  • 11%
  • 21%

Question 101

Question
Which of the following is NOT a long-term consequence of eating disorders?
Answer
  • Social isoloation
  • Increased social support
  • Medical complications
  • Psychological illness

Question 102

Question
Which of the following distinguishes Bulimia from Binge-Eating disorder?
Answer
  • Bulimia does not involve compensatory behaviours for binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does
  • Bulimia involves compensatory behaviours for binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does not
  • Bulimia does not involve binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does
  • Bulimia compensatory behaviours include only exercise, whereas binge-eating disorder compensatory behaviours include laxative and enema abuse.

Question 103

Question
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing an eating disorder?
Answer
  • Having diabetes
  • Having an obsession with food and dieting
  • Going to a public high school
  • Living in Westernised cultures

Question 104

Question
Which of the following is true of the proximodistal principle?
Answer
  • Controlling your hand before your arm
  • Controlling your fingers before your hand
  • Controlling your foot before your toes
  • Controlling your toes before your foot

Question 105

Question
Which of the following is true of the cephalocaudal principle?
Answer
  • Controlling your torso before your legs
  • Controlling your legs before your torso
  • Controlling your legs before your arms
  • Controlling your feet before your hands

Question 106

Question
At what age are children considered to be at the 'schematic' stage of drawing?
Answer
  • 6 years
  • 5 years
  • 4 years
  • 8 years

Question 107

Question
Which of the following is NOT a proposed effect of sport in child development?
Answer
  • Poorer academic grades
  • Improved heart and lung function
  • Lower obesity rates
  • Improved sleep

Question 108

Question
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dyspraxia?
Answer
  • Delayed milestones
  • Deficits in memory
  • Deficits in attention
  • Facial abnormalities

Question 109

Question
Which of the following is not a suggested treatment for dyspraxia?
Answer
  • Providing scaffolding and practice for the child
  • Adapting the environment to the child's needs
  • Engaging specific training
  • Routing the child to achieve milestones earlier than their peers

Question 110

Question
Which of the following are NOT factors that may impair motor development?
Answer
  • Muscle tone and strength
  • Motor planning
  • Sensory processing
  • Emotional regulation

Question 111

Question
Which of the following is not an example of a teratogen in pregnant women?
Answer
  • Blood disorders
  • Temperature
  • Diet
  • Personality

Question 112

Question
DNA is:
Answer
  • The information coded in genes that is then copied onto Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
  • Comprised of Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
  • The biological structure underpinning every human attribute and trait
  • The unchangeable, static biological blueprint we all possess

Question 113

Question
When we inherit characteristics from our parents, the form of genetic transmission is via:
Answer
  • Dominant alleles and recessive alleles
  • Dominant alleles, but not recessive alleles
  • Co-dominant alleles
  • Dominant, recessive and co-dominant alleles

Question 114

Question
If I have two blue-eyed parents and I have brown eyes, I can say that my brown eyes are:
Answer
  • An indication that I was probably adopted
  • A phenotypic manifestation of my genotype
  • A genotypic manifestation of my phenotype
  • Unrelated to my genetic inheritance

Question 115

Question
Organogenesis occurs during the:
Answer
  • Foetal gestational period
  • Germinal period
  • Embryonic period
  • Foetal period

Question 116

Question
A synapse is
Answer
  • A connection between neurons
  • Empty spaces between neurons
  • The fatty sheath covering neurons
  • The last part of the brain to develop

Question 117

Question
During brain development in adolescence:
Answer
  • The neurons are stripped of their myelin to facilitate quicker transmission between neurons
  • The brain has already reached full maturity and only changes when we learn skills
  • Synapses are pruned and myelin developed
  • More synapses are created rapidly to deal with larger amounts of information processing

Question 118

Question
Bones and other internal organs develop from
Answer
  • The introderm
  • The ectoderm
  • The endoderm
  • The mesoderm

Question 119

Question
Children’s tendency to associate with same-sex playmates and to think of the other sex as an out-group is known as:
Answer
  • Gender segregation
  • Gender differentiation
  • Gender separation
  • Gender avoidment

Question 120

Question
Which of the following is true of Stereotypes?
Answer
  • They are widely shared knowledge structures that are learnt through socialization
  • They are always based on facts
  • They are distinct cognitive structures
  • They are widely shared knowledge structures that are learnt through socialization, AND They are distinct cognitive structures

Question 121

Question
Children involved in a game of ‘tag’ are demonstrating which type of play?
Answer
  • Solitary play
  • Parallel play
  • Onlooker play
  • Cooperative play

Question 122

Question
According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial stages of development, children aged 6-11 years are typically dealing with which basic conflict?
Answer
  • initiative versus guilt
  • initiative versus industry
  • industry versus inferiority
  • industry versus guilt

Question 123

Question
Children generally demonstrate self recognition using the rouge test at approximately
Answer
  • 18-24 months of age
  • 15-17 months of age
  • 12-15 months of age
  • None of the above

Question 124

Question
Which of the following have been identified as attachment-related fears in infancy:
Answer
  • Stranger anxiety
  • Separation Anxiety
  • Separation Anxiety AND Stranger anxiety
  • Imprinting

Question 125

Question
Infants who construct a positive working model of both themselves and their caregivers can be expected to develop which type of attachment style to their caregiver:
Answer
  • Secure attachment
  • Resistant attachment
  • Avoidant attachment
  • Disorganized/disoriented attachment

Question 126

Question
An infant who shows little distress when their mother leaves the room and seems to ignore her upon her return is likely to have which type of attachment:
Answer
  • Secure attachment
  • Resistant attachment
  • Avoidant attachment
  • Disorganized/disoriented attachment

Question 127

Question
The notion that the type of attachment that an infant develops with a caregiver depends primarily on the kind of caregiving the child received from that person is known as:
Answer
  • The Attachment hypothesis
  • The Caregiving hypothesis
  • The Emotional support hypothesis
  • None of the above

Question 128

Question
A child whose behaviour is somewhat inactive and somewhat moody, and is slow to adapt to new persons and situations could be described as having which type of temperament?
Answer
  • Easy temperament
  • Difficult temperament
  • Slow-to-warm up temperament
  • Insecure temperament

Question 129

Question
Social learning approaches to aggression contend that aggression is based on:
Answer
  • Observation and learning
  • Genetic pre-disposition
  • Neurological maturation
  • All answers provided

Question 130

Question
Which of the following statements best summarises Dodge’s social information-processing theory of aggression?
Answer
  • Aggressive behaviour is the result of inferring hostile intent in others and reacting angrily.
  • Aggressive behaviour is the result of receiving a (often inadvertent) reward for aggression.
  • Aggressive behaviour depends on the social information provided to the child by the primary caregiver.
  • Aggression develops as a result of biological and cognitive maturation.

Question 131

Question
Boys are more physically and verbally aggressive on average than girls. This is most likely due to:
Answer
  • Higher testosterone levels in boys.
  • Parents react more negatively to aggressive behaviours from girls than boys.
  • Parents play rougher with boys than girls.
  • All answers provided

Question 132

Question
Maggie is supervising a play date between her daughter, Isla, and Isla’s friend Lily when she sees Isla kick Lily in an effort to avoid sharing the puzzle she is working on. Lily starts to cry. If Maggie wishes to foster compassion and altruism in Isla, the most appropriate response to Isla’s behaviour would be
Answer
  • To walk away from the situation to avoid inadvertently rewarding Isla for her aggressive behaviour.
  • To smack Isla on the bottom immediately, so that Isla makes the connection between her aggressive actions, and the punitive consequence.
  • To immediately yell at Isla and remove her from the situation.
  • To explain to Isla the harm and distress she has caused to Lily

Question 133

Question
You are administering Piaget’s moral-decisions exercise on Laurie. You read two stories to Laurie. In story A, Bob is trying to make a surprise breakfast in bed for his mum when he accidently knocks over four glasses, breaking them. In story B, while his mother isn’t looking, Jeff tries to steal a muffin from the kitchen bench when he knocks over one glass and breaks it. After the stories, you ask Laurie which child is naughtier, Bob or Jeff. Laurie says Jeff is the naughtier child because he was trying to do something naughty. How would you classify Laurie’s stage of moral development?
Answer
  • Premoral
  • Heteronomous morality
  • Autonomous morality
  • Social-order-maintaining morality

Question 134

Question
Egocentrism may best be defined as:
Answer
  • A desire to play alone rather than with others
  • A lack of empathy
  • The realization that others have internal states such as emotions and desires
  • Thinking that is dominated by an infant’s own experiences, perceptions and position in space

Question 135

Question
A child who picks up a stick and plays with it pretending it is a sword is demonstrating which of the following:
Answer
  • Symbolic representation
  • Achievement of Formal Operations
  • Engagement in cooperative play
  • None of the answers provided

Question 136

Question
When children answer incorrectly in Piaget’s classic Conservation Task experiments, what cognitive developmental characteristic are they proposed to have demonstrated?
Answer
  • Schemes
  • Centration
  • Concrete operations
  • Symbolic representations

Question 137

Question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Concrete Operational Thought?
Answer
  • The ability to conserve across a wide range of conservation tasks
  • The ability to manipulate mental representations about the outside to solve problems
  • The ability to reason about immediate reality
  • The ability to reason about abstract possibilities

Question 138

Question
The ability to create and test hypotheses through systematic observation is called:
Answer
  • Hypothetico-deductive reasoning
  • Hypothetico-inductive reasoning
  • Observation-based reasoning
  • Piagetian reasoning

Question 139

Question
A child who utters the sentence “ Home Daddy come” has not yet mastered the rules of
Answer
  • syntax
  • pragmatics
  • semantics
  • morphology

Question 140

Question
When a child says ' I runned home' they demonstrate
Answer
  • Exposure to poor adult language models
  • Overregularlisation errors
  • Syntactic bootstrapping
  • None of the answers provided

Question 141

Question
According to the interactionist perspective, language development is influenced by
Answer
  • Children’s cognitive development and modified language used by family members
  • An innate ‘learning activation device’ that is programmed to acquire language
  • Differential reinforcement from family as words are acquired and used
  • Appropriate exposure to language during a sensitive period of development

Question 142

Question
What is the rate of prevalence of autism in boys compared to girls?
Answer
  • Boys are twice more likely to be diagnosed with autism than girls
  • Boys are half as likely to be diagnosed with autism as girls
  • The prevalence is the same
  • Boys are 3-5 times more likely to be diagnosed with autism than girls

Question 143

Question
Given recent revisions in the diagnostic criteria for ASD, it is expected that prevalence rates will likely
Answer
  • decrease because fewer children will be diagnosed
  • decrease because fewer children will develop ASD
  • remain stable because there have been no changes to diagnostic criteria
  • increase because practitioners are more aware of the condition

Question 144

Question
What are the main symptoms of ADHD?
Answer
  • Inattention, recklessness and hyperactivity
  • Impulsivity and low concentration
  • Fidgeting, inattention and hyperactivity
  • Hyperactivity and inattention

Question 145

Question
ADHD is thought to develop due to
Answer
  • poor diet
  • failure of carers to set appropriate expectations and boundaries
  • failure of carers to set appropriate expectations and boundaries AND poor diet
  • None of the answers provided

Question 146

Question
Children with ADHD respond best to treatments involving
Answer
  • Sedatives and behavioural modification
  • Cognitive behavioural therapy and stimulants
  • A good smack
  • Behavioursal modification and stimulants

Question 147

Question
Anorexia nervosa (AN) is primarily characterized by:
Answer
  • An intense fear of gaining weight and refusal to maintain a normal body weight
  • A lack of appetite which leads to subsequent weight loss
  • Repetitive, constant exercise with a view to losing weight
  • Episodes of purging and laxative use with a view to losing weight

Question 148

Question
Bulimia Nervosa is primarily characterized by
Answer
  • An intense fear of gaining weight and refusal to maintain a normal body weight
  • Recurrent episodes of binge eating and a sense of a lack of control over the binges followed by compensatory behaviour
  • Recurrent episodes of binge eating and a sense of a lack of control over the binges
  • Repetitive, constant exercise with a view to losing weight

Question 149

Question
Current estimates are that approximately
Answer
  • 1% adolescent girls develop anorexia
  • Approximately 15% children with anorexia are male
  • 40% of those with anorexia are at risk of developing bulimia
  • 40% of those with anorexia are at risk of developing bulimia AND 1% adolescent girls develop anorexia

Question 150

Question
People with schizophrenia are at high risk of
Answer
  • self harm
  • uncontrollable violence
  • domestic violence
  • having a split personality

Question 151

Question
People with schizophrenia tend to have brains that
Answer
  • are larger than most people
  • have larger fluid-filled cavities in them than most people
  • have less white matter and more grey matter than most people
  • are more active than most people

Question 152

Question
Which of the following statements about reflexes is true?
Answer
  • Reflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate neurological integrity.
  • While reflexes once held survival value to human infants, they are no longer relevant indicators of healthy development.
  • Reflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate muscular integrity.
  • Reflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate social development.

Question 153

Question
The impact of environment on motor development may best be summed up by saying:
Answer
  • Environment and practice are useful tools for the development of motor skills, but are not necessary.
  • Environmental factors can account for all the motor development observed in infants and children.
  • The environment is not a sufficient condition for the acquisition of motor skills but plays an important role in timing of skill acquisition.
  • Practice makes perfect – the more children practice motor skills, the faster they acquire them!

Question 154

Question
Sophie is about to turn 4 years old. Assuming she is on a normal developmental trajectory, what motor skills would her parents expect her to develop in the coming year?
Answer
  • Gross motor skills such as throwing and catching.
  • Fine motor skills such as cursive writing.
  • Fine motor skills such as drawing.
  • Fine motor skills such as drawing AND Gross motor skills such as throwing and catching.

Question 155

Question
Three - four year old children around the world typically draw people as ‘tadpole figures’ with a large head and no body. It is not until age 5 or 6 that most children draw human forms with a differentiated head and body. What is the most likely reason for this?
Answer
  • Because very young children are still developing the ability to interpret and understand sensory input.
  • Because older children have the ability to attend to a task for a longer period of time.
  • Because including a body with attached arms and legs requires fine motor skills which very young children are unlikely to possess.
  • Because including a body with attached arms and legs requires fine motor skills which very young children are unlikely to possess, AND Because very young children are still developing the ability to interpret and understand sensory input.

Question 156

Question
According to the dynamic systems theory, a child’s motor skills are:
Answer
  • Genetically programmed responses that emerge as dictated by maturation.
  • Genetically programmed responses that emerge as dictated by maturation and opportunities to practice.
  • Increasingly complex systems of action that represents the most effective way of achieving some objective using the limited capabilities the child may have.
  • Are dependent on a dynamic vicarious learning relationship between the child and the primary caregiver

Question 157

Question
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • Chromosomes are made up of DNA
  • Genes are part of chromosomes
  • Genes are made up of DNA
  • All of the answers provided

Question 158

Question
With respect to hair colour, ____ is a genotype and ____ is a phenotype:
Answer
  • AO, group A
  • The dominant allele of a gene, the recessive allele of a gene
  • Brunette hair, brunette hair gene
  • Brunette hair gene, brunette hair

Question 159

Question
In blood groups, the A allele is dominant over the O allele. Therefore, if a father’s blood type is AO, and a mother’s is OO, their child:
Answer
  • Will have blood group A
  • Will have blood group OO.
  • Has a 50/50 chance of having either blood group AO or OO.
  • Has a one in three chance of having each of blood groups A, AO or OO

Question 160

Question
Which of the following is not a period within prenatal development?
Answer
  • Embryonic period
  • Placental period
  • Germinal period
  • Foetal period

Question 161

Question
Myelination refers to the
Answer
  • Gradual pruning of synapses
  • The ‘use it or lose it’ concept in neural development
  • The insulation of brain synapses
  • The insulation of mature brain cells

Question 162

Question
Which of the following is not true of the development of emotional expressions:
Answer
  • Adults can identify both positive and negative emotions equally well
  • Adults find it easy to identify baby’s positive emotions from facial expressions
  • Babies communicate their feelings through their facial expressions
  • Emotional expressions become easier to identify as children get older

Question 163

Question
Expression of self-evaluative emotions requires:
Answer
  • Self recognition
  • An understanding of the rules or standards for evaluating one’s conducts
  • An understanding of the rules or standards for evaluating one’s conducts AND self recognition
  • Acquisition of all five basic emotions

Question 164

Question
Emotional display rules:
Answer
  • Are culturally defined
  • Emerge around 2 years of age
  • Are a set of emotions present at birth
  • Only apply to self-conscious emotions

Question 165

Question
Activity level, irritability/negative emotionality, attention span, fearfulness and sociability (or positive affect) have been identified as important components of:
Answer
  • Emotional regulation
  • Temperament
  • Social referencing
  • Emotional competence

Question 166

Question
‘Goodness of fit’ is the term used to describe:
Answer
  • The notion that a child’s development is likely to be optimized when a parent’s child rearing practices match the child’s temperament
  • A slow to warm up temperament, where a child may be slow to adapt to new people or situations
  • An easy temperament, where a child is easy going and typically in a positive mood
  • A tendency to withdraw from unfamiliar people or situations

Question 167

Question
If a child displays tendencies to prefer same-sex activities over those typically linked with the opposite sex, the child is displaying
Answer
  • gender identity
  • gender-role stereotypes
  • gender-typed patterns of behaviour
  • None of the answers provided

Question 168

Question
Which of the following is an example of identity diffusion:
Answer
  • ‘I’ve not really thought much about my career, I don’t know exactly what I want to do’
  • ‘My parents are teachers and so I’ll be a teacher’
  • ‘I’m trying to decide if I should pursue a degree in law or psychology next year
  • 'I have finally found the right job for me’

Question 169

Question
Which of the following is not one of the four factors thought to influence an adolescents identity formation:
Answer
  • Cognitive development
  • Schooling
  • Emotional development
  • Relationship with parents

Question 170

Question
According to Parten’s play typology, a group of children engaging in a game of tag is an example of:
Answer
  • Onlooker play
  • Cooperative play
  • Associative play
  • Parallel play

Question 171

Question
Pursuant to Grusec and Lytton’s play typology, a child digging a hole in a sandpit is an example of:
Answer
  • pretend play
  • functional play
  • solitary play
  • unoccupied play

Question 172

Question
Cognitive Development may best be defined as:
Answer
  • The changes that take place in cognitive processes from birth until the beginning of adulthood
  • The changes that take place in cognitive processes over the lifespan
  • The changes in ways of thinking in a society over time
  • None of the answers provided

Question 173

Question
Which of the following is not one of the assumptions of Piaget’s theory of Cognitive development:
Answer
  • All stages are universal in that they describe the pattern of development in all children
  • The framework is domain-general
  • All children pass through the stages in the same order and no stage can be skipped
  • None of the answers provided

Question 174

Question
The process of incorporating a new experience into an existing scheme is known as:
Answer
  • Assimilation
  • Adaption
  • Preoperational thought
  • Accommodation

Question 175

Question
During what age period does Object Permanence typically emerge in children?
Answer
  • Birth – 1 month
  • 1 – 4 months
  • 4 – 7 months
  • 8 – 12 months

Question 176

Question
Children in the Preoperational Period of cognitive development would have difficulty understanding
Answer
  • Causality
  • The point of view of others
  • Object permanence
  • None of the answers provided

Question 177

Question
According to Dodge’s social information processing theory of aggression, after a child encodes social cues, the next step they engage in is:
Answer
  • interpret the social cues
  • respond without adequate thought about the consequences.
  • formulate social goals
  • consider strategies to deal with the social situation.

Question 178

Question
According to the social learning approach to aggression, children may behave aggressively because:
Answer
  • it is an inherent component of their personality
  • aggression acts as a release of stress hormone, cortisol.
  • of their environmental conditions.
  • of social frustration.

Question 179

Question
Children’s aggression is likely to be exacerbated by parental conflict when:
Answer
  • the child is exposed to the conflict on numerous occasions
  • the conflict is intensive and high stress.
  • parents withdraw and become emotionally unavailable.
  • all of the above are likely to exacerbate aggression.

Question 180

Question
According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, a child who sees the rules of authority figures as sacred and unalterable is likely to be in the:
Answer
  • premoral period
  • ‘Good boy’ or ‘good girl’ orientation
  • social-order maintaining morality
  • heteronomous morality

Question 181

Question
The Heinz dilemma is posed to a child who responds as follows: ‘Well, stealing is wrong, but you need to consider the whole situation. Heinz knows that there is no legal grounds for him to steal the drug. But he’s in a very difficult situation and anybody in that situation would think it was reasonable to steal the drug” According to Kohlberg’s levels and stages, what is the most appropriate classification of this response?
Answer
  • Level 3, post-conventional morality, stage 5.
  • Level 1, pre-conventional morality, stage 2
  • Level 2, conventional morality, stage 3.
  • Level 2, conventional morality, stage 4

Question 182

Question
What are the main symptoms of autism?
Answer
  • Hyperactivity, and impaired social interaction
  • Low energy and impaired communication
  • Impaired social communication and interaction, and restricted interests
  • All answers provided

Question 183

Question
The recent revision of the DSM and consequent changes to the diagnostic criteria for Autism spectrum disorders caused some problems including:
Answer
  • increasing the sensitivity of the assessment so that individuals who may not previously have been diagnosed with ASD now may be.
  • improving the specificity but reducing the sensitivity of the assessment so higher functioning individuals may not receive the diagnosis.
  • limiting the applicability of the diagnosis to females.
  • limiting the cultural sensitivity of the assessment.

Question 184

Question
The theory that attempts to explain autism in terms of an inability to understand another’s knowledge and beliefs is
Answer
  • The theory of mind
  • The theory of poor executive functioning
  • The weak central coherence hypothesis
  • The mirror neuron theory

Question 185

Question
The three subtypes of ADHD are:
Answer
  • hyperactive, impulsive, and inattentive.
  • early onset, late onset and mixed onset.
  • onset before 12 years, 12-16, or over 17 years old.
  • predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

Question 186

Question
Currently, the most effective form of treatment for ADHD is:
Answer
  • stimulants such as Ritalin
  • psychological treatments such as CBT
  • neuro-biological treatments such as ECT
  • stimulants such as Ritalin AND psychological treatments such as CBT

Question 187

Question
Which of the following is not a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
Answer
  • Psychosis
  • Hallucations
  • Delusions
  • Reduced emotions

Question 188

Question
Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Answer
  • Poverty of speech
  • Disorganized speech and thought
  • Hallucinations
  • Delusions

Question 189

Question
In terms of the prevalence and onset of schizophrenia, which of the following statements is true:
Answer
  • Schizophrenia tends to develop in early adulthood, with the average age of onset 18 years old in men, and 25 years old in women.
  • Schizophrenia typically begins in childhood but is usually left undiagnosed until later in life.
  • On most occasions, schizophrenia emerges in middle adulthood, the average age of onset (for both sexes) is 42 years.
  • Schizophrenia tends to develop in early adulthood, with the average age of onset 18 years old in women, and 25 years old in men.

Question 190

Question
Current prevalence estimates of anorexia are that, at some point during the lifespan,
Answer
  • Approximately 15% of women will experience the condition
  • Approximately 1% of women will experience the condition
  • Approximately 10% of women will experience the condition
  • Approximately 5% of women will experience the condition

Question 191

Question
The most important/influential risk factor for developing an eating disorder is:
Answer
  • Exposure to body-typed images in the media.
  • Genetics
  • Personality
  • A history of dieting

Question 192

Question
Which of the following is not an example of a survival reflex that is present at birth?
Answer
  • Closing both eyes when a puff of air reaches the eye
  • Turning head towards touch and opening mouth when stroked on the cheek
  • The ‘pincer grasp’ to grip things placed in hand
  • Arching back and extending arms when a sudden loud sound is heard.

Question 193

Question
Evidence on sex difference in infant motor development:
Answer
  • suggests that boys tend to reach motor development milestones slightly earlier than girls.
  • suggests that Boys tend to excel at gross motor movement while girls excel at fine motor movement.
  • suggests that there is no difference in the development or use of motor skills by male and female infants
  • is inconsistent and inconclusive.

Question 194

Question
Symptoms of dyspraxia include:
Answer
  • significant delay in reaching motor milestones
  • problems concentrating
  • delays or ‘slowness’ of speech.
  • All answers provided

Question 195

Question
Twelve year old Carmen is determined to beat her personal best time for 50metres freestyle in the swimming. This is an example of:
Answer
  • achievement motivation.
  • sporting prowess
  • the benefits of sport
  • healthy competitiveness

Question 196

Question
We would expect a child to walk unassisted at approximately
Answer
  • 6 months old
  • 12 months old
  • 18 months old
  • 24 months old.

Question 197

Question
The meaning of words and utterances is termed
Answer
  • Semantics
  • Morphemes
  • Pragmatics
  • Syntax

Question 198

Question
The smallest unit of meaning in a language is a ________.
Answer
  • Morpheme
  • Inflection
  • Letter
  • Phoneme

Question 199

Question
Which theorist proposed the 'language acquisition device' (LAD)?
Answer
  • Lenneberg
  • Noam Chomsky
  • B.F Skinner
  • None of the answers provided

Question 200

Question
Infants first use gestures as a form of communication at what age?
Answer
  • 8 to 10 months
  • 12 months
  • 12 to 18 months
  • 6 months
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