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Pharm II Exam III practice quiz

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Exam III practice quiz
Diana Flores
Quiz by Diana Flores, updated more than 1 year ago
Diana Flores
Created by Diana Flores almost 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
Answer
  • Rubor
  • Tumor
  • Functio Laesa
  • Crepitus

Question 2

Question
Inflammation ends with permanent destruction of tissue or with complete healing after removal of injurious stimulus
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 3

Question
Chronic inflammation is beneficial
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 4

Question
Cell damage results in the release of
Answer
  • Prostaglandins
  • Prostacyclines
  • Eiocosanoids
  • All of the above

Question 5

Question
A fundamental feature of inflammation is
Answer
  • Increase permeability of the microvasculature
  • Suppression of leukocytes
  • Relief of symptoms
  • Impaired quality of life

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is NOT a goal of treatment of inflammation?
Answer
  • Relief of symptoms
  • Maintenance of function
  • Slowing tissue damage
  • Short term control

Question 7

Question
Which of the following is NOT considered a drug treatment of arthritis?
Answer
  • NSAIDS
  • Corticosteroids
  • DMARDS
  • Naltrexone

Question 8

Question
Which of the following is true about NSAIDS?
Answer
  • Increases the inflammatory pain response
  • COX-2 inhibitors can decrease the chance of cardiovascular effects
  • COX-2 inhibitors are found to cause Upper GI complications as well as lower GI complications
  • COX-2 selective drugs inhibit PG synthesis through selective inhibition of COX-2 isoenzyme

Question 9

Question
Which of the following is best against release of arachidonic acid?
Answer
  • ASA
  • Indomethacin
  • Corticosteroids
  • Acetominophen

Question 10

Question
Which of the following is NOT a physiologic effect of COX-1?
Answer
  • Production of TXA2
  • Regulate renal blood flow
  • Maintain mucosal integrity
  • Induce inflammation and pain

Question 11

Question
Choose ALL of the following that can be seen in OA
Answer
  • Bone loss
  • Thickened synovial membrane
  • Eroded cartilage
  • Bone spurs
  • Synovial changes
  • Degenerated cartilage

Question 12

Question
Which best describes Osteoarthritis?
Answer
  • Causes systemic symptoms
  • Radiographic findings of narrowed joint space and lipping of marginal bone
  • The least common form of joint disease
  • Can be diagnosed with laboratory findings

Question 13

Question
Prevalence of OA increased due to aging population and obesity
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding of OA?
Answer
  • Heberden nodes
  • Bouchard nodes
  • Thinning subchondral bone
  • Hypertrophy of bone at articular margins

Question 15

Question
OA is overtreated
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 16

Question
Which of the following would NOT be effective to treat nociceptive and inflammatory pain syndromes?
Answer
  • NSAIDS
  • COX-2 selective inhibitors
  • Acetominophen
  • SNRIs

Question 17

Question
Which of the following would NOT be effective in treating neuropathic and functional pain syndromes?
Answer
  • Gabapentin
  • Amytriptyline
  • Venlafaxine (SNRI)
  • Opioids

Question 18

Question
Nociceptive and inflammatory pain are both adaptive (protective)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 19

Question
OA pain mechanisms are unknown
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
Which of the following is NOT a method of pain management in OA?
Answer
  • Intraarticular injections
  • Topical agents
  • Patient education
  • DMARDS

Question 21

Question
Which of the following is TRUE regarding acetominophen?
Answer
  • It has potenet anti-inflammatory activity
  • It acts as a prodrug, activating CB1 receptors in the CNS
  • The recommended daily max dose for alcoholics is 4g
  • It decreases risk of bleeding

Question 22

Question
95% of Acetaminophen is conjugated into NAPQ1, a toxic metabolite
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
Why does chronic ingestion of ethanol increase risk of hepatotoxicity?
Answer
  • Because ethanol induces the CYP2E1 enzymes
  • Because ethanol decreases the amount of glutathione, therefore there isn't enough to convert NAPQ1 into an inactive mtabolite
  • Because ethanol inhibits the CYP2E1enzyme
  • Because it inhibits conjugation of acetominophen

Question 24

Question
Why is acetylcysteine used as an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
Answer
  • It acts as a precursor for glutathione
  • It is an expectorant, thus it expectorates acetominophen from the body
  • It inhibits the CYP2E1 enzymes
  • It induces the CYP2E1 enzyme

Question 25

Question
How do NSAIDs block the COX protein?
Answer
  • They block the hydrophobic channel of the COX protein where arachidonic acid binds
  • They block the production of arachidonic acid
  • They bind to Phospholipid A2
  • They bind to the COX protein, which causes inactivation of the enzyme

Question 26

Question
Which of the following is NOT possible from the use of NSAIDs?
Answer
  • Dyspepsia
  • Gastropathology
  • Decrease renal blood flow resulting in renal ischemia
  • Thrombosis

Question 27

Question
Which of the following is true regarding -oxicam like drugs
Answer
  • It is a selective COX inhibitor
  • They inhibit collagenase and proteoglycanase
  • It has a short half-life and therefore requires multiple doses daily
  • Low percentage of patients report adverse effects

Question 28

Question
Which of the following is a possible side effect of -oxicam like drugs when taken for a long period of time?
Answer
  • Tinnitus
  • Thrombosis
  • CNS effects
  • Blurred vision

Question 29

Question
Fenamate derivatves are used for severe dysmenorrhea
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 30

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Indomethicin?
Answer
  • Used for spondylitis
  • It is an acetic acid derivative
  • Promotes closure of PDA
  • Used when ibuprofen is ineffective or not tolerated

Question 31

Question
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of Indomethacin?
Answer
  • Promotes the incorporation of arachidonic acid into triglycerides, thus reducing its availability for COX
  • Inhibits collagenase and proteoglycanase
  • Block the COX-2 enzyme ONLY
  • It is a folic acid analogue

Question 32

Question
Which of the following is true regarding ASA?
Answer
  • Decreases the duration of pregnancy
  • Used in treat fetal PDA
  • Reversibly binds to platelets so prolongs bleeding for one day
  • Can cause bronchoconstriction in ASA-sensitive asthmatics

Question 33

Question
Reye's syndrome develops in children who suffer a bacterial infection
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
Mr. Smith is a 70 year old male with history of inflammatory GI and gastric ulcers. You would like to prescribe NSAIDs to treat his OA. Which of the following drugs could you also co-prescribe to avoid worsening his other pre-existing conditions?
Answer
  • Cytotec
  • ASA
  • Sulindac
  • Naproxen

Question 35

Question
What advantage does Sulindac have over any other NSAID?
Answer
  • It causes less renal toxicity
  • It is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue
  • It has no significant effect on bleeding time because it is a Cox-2 inhibitor
  • It decreases gastric irritation

Question 36

Question
Long-term NSAID analgesic medication is perfectly acceptable in patients with history of CV disease
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 37

Question
Which of the following drugs is MOST appropriate for a nursing mother?
Answer
  • ASA
  • Ibuprofen
  • Celecoxib
  • Ketorolac

Question 38

Question
Why does ASA interact with antihypertensives?
Answer
  • Because antihypertensives depend on renal PG to work
  • Because it can cause prolonged bleeding
  • Because ASA prevents excretion of antihypertensives
  • Because antihypertensives increase plasma levels of ASA

Question 39

Question
Why should you not use SSRIs in combination with NSAIDs?
Answer
  • Because they can increase the risk of upper GI bleed
  • Because they cause more CNS effects
  • Because together can cause increase in hypersensitivity reactions
  • Because together they can worsen bronchoconstrition

Question 40

Question
The use of anticoagulants and ________ has caused reported fatal hemorrhages
Answer
  • ASA
  • NSAIDS
  • Acetominophen
  • Both A and B

Question 41

Question
Choose ALL of the following drugs whose renal clearance is reduced due to use of ASAs and NSAIDS
Answer
  • Digoxin
  • Methotrexate
  • Anticoagulants
  • Ethanol

Question 42

Question
High ASA dose can inhibit the metabolism of which drug?
Answer
  • Valproic acid
  • Methotrexate
  • Digoxin
  • Cyclosporine

Question 43

Question
Which of the following drugs should be avoided in patients with sulfa allergy (according to Foong, not Chand)?
Answer
  • Celecoxib
  • Sulfasalazine
  • Sulfinpyrazone
  • Cyclosporine

Question 44

Question
Celecoxib is metabolized by CYP 2D6
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 45

Question
Which of the following drugs does NOT interact with COX-2 inhibitors?
Answer
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Fluconazole
  • Rifampin
  • Valproic acid

Question 46

Question
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of COX-2 inhibitors?
Answer
  • Bleeding time
  • Gastric disorder
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Cardiovascular toxicity

Question 47

Question
Celecoxib and Ibuprofen are overall similar, except for cost, GI effects, and bleeding time effects
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
High carb diet can decrease absorption of acetominophen
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs as adjuvant analgesics
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
How can you delay absorption of ASA?
Answer
  • Increase pH
  • Food
  • Decrease pH
  • A and B

Question 51

Question
Under normal conditions, which of the following prevents platelet aggregation?
Answer
  • PG12
  • PGE2
  • TXA2
  • Both A and B

Question 52

Question
Phospholipase A2 is activated by which of the following?
Answer
  • Cytokines
  • Growth factors
  • LPS
  • All of the above

Question 53

Question
Which of the following medications can lower the seizure threshold?
Answer
  • Tramadol
  • Morphine
  • Codeine
  • Vicodin

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is NOT a substrate of CYP2D6?
Answer
  • Codeine
  • Tramadol
  • Oxycodone
  • Celecoxib

Question 55

Question
Which of the following is NOT a clinical use of Naltrexone?
Answer
  • Opioid overdose
  • Treatment of alcohol dependence
  • Prevent opioid addiction
  • Analgesia during the induction and maintenance of general anesthesia

Question 56

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding tramadol?
Answer
  • Its active metabolite has a greater affinity for mu receptors than codeine
  • Inhibits reuptake of NE and 5HT
  • Suppresses cough reflex
  • Has a quick onset of action

Question 57

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding opioids with mixed mechanisms?
Answer
  • Large doses can cause anxiety and dysphoria
  • They may antagonize action of opioids
  • Respiratory depression has a ceiling effect
  • Has full agonist effect at mu receptors, thus increasing addiction liability

Question 58

Question
Which of the following is NOT an indication for use of opioids with mixed mechanisms?
Answer
  • Obstetric analgesia during labor and delivery
  • Pre and post operative analgesia
  • Orally for mild pain
  • These are all indications

Question 59

Question
OA primarily attacks the joints but also skn, lungs, vessels and muscles
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
Rheumatoid arthritis, along with bacterial endocarditis and SLE, is found to have elevated levels of autoantibodies against
Answer
  • Rheumatoid factor
  • IgG
  • IgA
  • None of the above

Question 61

Question
Rheumatoid can occur at any age
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 62

Question
Which of the following is NOT a goal of treating RA
Answer
  • Active patient and family participation
  • Preservation of function
  • Prevent deformity
  • These are all objectives

Question 63

Question
Successful treatment of RA is seen with when ________ are started immediately
Answer
  • Biological DMARDs
  • Non-biological DMARDs
  • Acetominophen
  • NSAIDs

Question 64

Question
What is the role of glucocorticoids in RA
Answer
  • Slow bone erosion and prevent new bone erosion
  • Reverse bone erosion
  • Prevent secondary fungal infection
  • Increase blood sugar

Question 65

Question
Newer biologic DMARDs are known to
Answer
  • Mask serious infections (bacterial or fungal)
  • Cause leukopenia
  • Cause thrombocytopenia
  • All of the above

Question 66

Question
Which of the following DMARDs is a folic acid analogue that may also increase adenosine levels?
Answer
  • Methotrexate
  • Leflunomide
  • Hydroxychloroquine
  • Penicillamine

Question 67

Question
Which of the following drugs requires monthly monitoring of CBC, liver, and renal function
Answer
  • Methotrexate
  • Leflunomide
  • Gold
  • Minocycline

Question 68

Question
Use of methotrexate increases risk of hepatotoxicity with fibrosis and cirrhosis
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 69

Question
Which of the following DMARDs blocks synthesis of UMP, thus reducing B and T cell populations?
Answer
  • Methotrexate
  • Leflunomide
  • Minocycline
  • Hydroxychloroquine

Question 70

Question
Leflunomide is currently used for
Answer
  • RA
  • SLE
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • All of the above

Question 71

Question
Cholestyramine can be given to clear hydroxychloroquine from the system quickly
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 72

Question
How does Hydroxychloroquine work against RA?
Answer
  • Inhibits chemotaxis of eosinophils and neutrophils
  • It is a pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor
  • It inhibits macrophages responsible for inflammation
  • It inhibits matrix metalloproteinase

Question 73

Question
Which drug causes the least toxicity?
Answer
  • Hydroxychloroquine
  • Methotrexate
  • Leflunomide
  • TNF inhibitors

Question 74

Question
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine?
Answer
  • Pigmentary retinitis
  • Irreversible myopathies
  • Photophobia
  • Visual loss

Question 75

Question
Which of the following is a mechanism of Minocycline
Answer
  • Matrixmetalloproteinase inhibitor
  • Inhibits inflammatory cell migration and transformation of lymphocytes
  • Both A and B
  • None of the above

Question 76

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Chrysotherapy?
Answer
  • It is erratically absorbed orally
  • It acts by inhibition of macrophages responsible for inflammation
  • It is excreted through the kidneys
  • The intravenous route is preferred

Question 77

Question
Which of the following is true regarding the use of cyclophosphamide in the use of RA?
Answer
  • Increases bone erosion
  • It is used to reverse the progression of RA
  • It s used in patients where other anti-inflammatory drugs have been successful
  • Causes hematuria

Question 78

Question
Each of the following is a mechanism of penicillamine except
Answer
  • Reduces numbers of T-lymphocytes
  • Decreases IL-1 and rheumatoid factor
  • Prevents collagen from cross-linking
  • Inhibits inflammatory cell migration

Question 79

Question
Monitoring the CBC and liver enzymes is necessary when taking which drug?
Answer
  • Leflunomide
  • Gold
  • Penicillamine
  • None of the above

Question 80

Question
Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of penicillamine?
Answer
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Dysgeusia
  • Anorexia
  • Dizziness

Question 81

Question
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage when using biological DMARDs?
Answer
  • They are very expensive
  • They increase risk of bcterial infections
  • Demyelination can occur
  • These are all disadvantages of biological DMARDs

Question 82

Question
Biological DMARDs are not recommended until at least one non-biological DMARD has been administered without sufficient success
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 83

Question
Which of the following is FALSE regarding TNF inhibitors such as Entanercept?
Answer
  • They inhibit cytokines, thus preventing PG production and up-regulation of COX-2
  • They decrease joint destruction
  • They are also used for Crohn's disease
  • They prevent latent infections such as fungal or tuberculoid

Question 84

Question
Which of the following is true regarding rituximab?
Answer
  • Not used with methotrexate
  • Rash occurs in 30% of patients
  • No cardiovascular effects
  • It is a T-cell activation inhibitor

Question 85

Question
Rituximab depletes B lymphocytes by apoptosis
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 86

Question
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of abatacept?
Answer
  • Prevents T-cell activation by complexing with 'co-stimulatory' molecules
  • Inhibits cytokines such as TNF alpha/IL-1 thus preventing PG production
  • Targets CD20 and depletes T lymphocytes
  • All of the above

Question 87

Question
Abatacept cannot be used as monotherapy but can be used combination with other DMARDS
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 88

Question
Which of the following is best described as "unique" and caused by deposition of urate crystals in joints
Answer
  • Gout
  • Rheumatoid
  • Osteoartritis
  • Kidney stones

Question 89

Question
Which of the following is NOT one of the four stages of gout?
Answer
  • Tophi
  • Asymptomatic hyperuricemic
  • Intercritical
  • These are all stages of gout

Question 90

Question
Which of the following would not be used for gout
Answer
  • NSAIDs
  • Colchine
  • Allopurinol
  • Rituximab

Question 91

Question
Colchicine can be used in low doses as prophylaxis for acute attacks of gout
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 92

Question
Colchicine can be taken continuously at high doses
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 93

Question
Colchicine limits the inflammatory response by which of the following mechanisms?
Answer
  • Decreasing motility of neutrophils
  • Deactivating URAT 1 transporter
  • Inhibit cytokines such as TNF alpha/IL-1 thus preventing PG production and up-regulation of COX-2
  • All of the above

Question 94

Question
Which drug shares the same mechanism as Allopurinol?
Answer
  • Febuxostate
  • Cochicine
  • Methotrexate
  • Probenecid

Question 95

Question
Why can't allopurinol be used for monotherapy?
Answer
  • Because it does not have any anti-inflammatory effects
  • Because it has no uric acid prevention mechanism
  • Because allopurinol only works in the presence of colchicine
  • Because it only works in the presence of NSAIDs

Question 96

Question
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Allopurinol?
Answer
  • Steven Johnson rash
  • Hepatic necrosis
  • Vomiting
  • Renal stones

Question 97

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Probenecid
Answer
  • It deactivates the URAT 1 transporter, thus preveting reabsorption of urate
  • Can cause renal stones
  • Used for treatment of chronic hyperuricemia
  • Makes uric acid levels fall which causes more crystal deposition in the synovium

Question 98

Question
Febuxostat requires dose adjustment during renal insufficiency
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 99

Question
Which of the following gout medications could also be useful in a patient with hypertension
Answer
  • Losartan
  • Sulfinpyrazone
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Febuxostate

Question 100

Question
Which of the following has a similar mechanism to Probenecid but should be used with caution in patients taking anticoagulants?
Answer
  • Losartan
  • Sulfinpyrazone
  • Glucocorticoids
  • None of the above

Question 101

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding SLE?
Answer
  • Can be cause by environmental factors
  • Increased IgA production
  • Failure to remove immune complexes from circulation can lead to vasculitis and disease
  • There is impaired T cell regulation

Question 102

Question
There is a prevalence of SLE in women. One possible reason for this is because
Answer
  • Calcium is a B-cell stimulator
  • IL-10 is a B-cell stimulator
  • Estrogen is a B-cell stimulator
  • Prolactin is a B-cell stimulator

Question 103

Question
Increased levels of erythrocyte sedimentation rate is specific to SLE
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 104

Question
For treatment of SLE, we should NOT use drugs with
Answer
  • the least side effects
  • the lowerst dose to control disease
  • long term damage prevention
  • steroids in mild disease

Question 105

Question
Corticosteroids can cause muscle wasting
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 106

Question
What is a concern with abruptly withdrawing corticosteroids?
Answer
  • Possible adrenal insufficiency
  • Infection
  • Retinitis
  • Immunosuppresion

Question 107

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of hydroxychloroquine?
Answer
  • Exact mechanism is unknown
  • May lead to regression of skin lesions
  • May improve psoriasis
  • Ophthalmologic examinations should be performed prior to administration and periodically after

Question 108

Question
What leads to the formation of PGE2 and PGI2?
Answer
  • B1
  • B2
  • Protons
  • ATP

Question 109

Question
Which of the following does NOT use a voltage-gated calcium channel?
Answer
  • Ziconitide
  • Omega-conotoxin
  • Gabapentin
  • Glutamate

Question 110

Question
Which of the following is NOT a common mediator in peripheral sensitization?
Answer
  • Glutamate
  • Bradykinins
  • Protons
  • NGF

Question 111

Question
For peripheral sensitization, which of the following is NOT used to target analgesia?
Answer
  • ASA
  • COX-2 inhibitors
  • Indomethicin
  • Acetominophen

Question 112

Question
Which of the following does NOT contribute to central sensitization?
Answer
  • Nitric oxide synthase
  • Glutamate
  • Substance P
  • Bradykinins

Question 113

Question
L-NAME can be used to inhibit NOS which prevents further retrograde stimulation of glutamate release
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 114

Question
Which ion is usually associated with NMDA in its inactive state ?
Answer
  • Magnesium
  • Sodium
  • Calcium
  • Potassium

Question 115

Question
Which of the following inhibits the dissociation of Mg from the NMDA receptor, thus preventing activation?
Answer
  • Ketamine
  • DM
  • GABA
  • Both A and B
  • Both A and C

Question 116

Question
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of opioids?
Answer
  • They activate descending PAG neurons
  • They directly activate opioid receptors
  • They activate descending NMR and LC neurons
  • They activate presynaptic potassium channels which decreases conductance

Question 117

Question
Which of the following opioid receptors does NOT mediate the main pharmacological effects of opiates?
Answer
  • Mu
  • Kappa
  • Delta
  • Epsilon

Question 118

Question
Which opioid receptor subunit is responsible for most of the analgesic effects along with some unwanted effects?
Answer
  • Mu
  • Kappa
  • Delta
  • Sigma

Question 119

Question
Opioid receptor activation is G-coupled
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 120

Question
Select ALL of the strong opiods
Answer
  • Morphine
  • Meperidine
  • Methadone
  • Fentanyl
  • Codeine
  • Oxycodone
  • Pentazocine
  • Hydrocodone

Question 121

Question
Select ALL of the pure opioid agonists
Answer
  • Morphine
  • Hydromorphone
  • Codeine
  • Oxycodone
  • Meperidine
  • Fentanyl
  • Pentazocine
  • Naloxone
  • Naltrexone
  • Buprenorphine

Question 122

Question
Opiod pure agonists have a higher affinity for_________ receptors.
Answer
  • Mu
  • Kappa
  • Delta
  • B and C

Question 123

Question
Pentazocine is an antagonist at the ___________ receptor, but a partial agonist at the _____________ receptor.
Answer
  • Mu; Kappa and delta
  • Kappa; Mu and delta
  • Delta; kappa and mu
  • Mu; Kappa and sigma

Question 124

Question
Most mixed mechanism opioids cause
Answer
  • Dysphoria
  • Euphoria
  • Respiratory depression
  • Physical dependence

Question 125

Question
Which peripherally acting opioid antagonist can be used to reduce post-op ileus and opioid-induced constipation?
Answer
  • Alvimopan
  • Morphine
  • Naltrexone
  • Pentazocine

Question 126

Question
Opioids have a ceiling effect
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 127

Question
Which of the following does NOT have a 90% first pass effect?
Answer
  • Morphine
  • Codeine
  • Hydromorphone
  • Meperidine

Question 128

Question
Which of the following receptors does codeine activate?
Answer
  • Kappa
  • Delta
  • Mu
  • Both B and C

Question 129

Question
How is morphine excreted?
Answer
  • Renally
  • Through the bile
  • Both and A and B
  • None of the above

Question 130

Question
How is codeine excreted?
Answer
  • Renally
  • Through breast milk
  • Hepatic
  • Both A and B
  • Both A and C

Question 131

Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
  • Codeine is a more effective analgesia than morphine
  • Codeine provides little euphoria
  • Physical dependence is common in users of low daily dose
  • No risk of opiate withdrawal symptoms with sudden stop

Question 132

Question
Codeine does not cause tolerance over prolonged use
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 133

Question
Which of the following is an alternative to codeine when a weak opiod is required?
Answer
  • Meperidine
  • Fentanyl
  • Propoxyphene
  • Oxycodone

Question 134

Question
Which of the following is an alternative to codeine when a strong opiod is required?
Answer
  • Morphine
  • Meperidine
  • Propoxyphene
  • Fentanyl

Question 135

Question
Which of the following is equipotent to morphine but has greater oral efficacy?
Answer
  • Methadone
  • Meperidine
  • Codeine
  • Fentanyl

Question 136

Question
Which of the following is used to treat opioid addiction?
Answer
  • Methadone
  • Meperidine
  • Morphine
  • Codeine

Question 137

Question
Which of the following opioids can prolong QT interval
Answer
  • Methadone
  • Meperidine
  • Morphine
  • Fentanyl

Question 138

Question
Methadone has a long duration and therefore can be given has a single dose daily
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 139

Question
It is better to give meperidine orally rather than IV because it decreases risk of anxiety and other CNS side effects
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 140

Question
Which of the following is correct, starting with the least potent to the most potent
Answer
  • Fentanyl<morphine<codeine
  • Fentanyl<codeine<morphine
  • Morphine<codeine<fentanyl
  • Codeine<morphine<fentanyl

Question 141

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding fentanyl?
Answer
  • It may induce skeletal rigidity at high doses
  • Does NOT cause histamine release
  • Smaller safety margin than morphine
  • Minimal respiration depression

Question 142

Question
There is no ceiling effect of respiratory depression with use of opioids with mixed mechanisms
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 143

Question
Which of the following is an advantage of fentanyl patches?
Answer
  • Good if concerned about drug abuse
  • Quick onset
  • Residual activity after patch is removed
  • It's cheap

Question 144

Question
Which of the following is true regarding opioids with mixed mechanisms
Answer
  • May antagonize action of opioid agonists
  • Increases addiction liability
  • Small doses can cause hallucinations
  • Large doses can cause euphoria
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