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Infection control/care plans/health and safety - Veterinary Nursing Exam

Description

Covers all units from this exam, including infection control, care plans, health and safety etc.
Hattie ,,
Quiz by Hattie ,,, updated 10 months ago
Hattie ,,
Created by Hattie ,, almost 5 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
According to the Orem model of nursing, needs that vary as a result of the patients age/life stage are:
Answer
  • Developmental self-care requisites
  • Universal self-care requisites
  • Health deviation requisites
  • Self-care deficits

Question 2

Question
Which of the following best describes a politico-economic factor affecting the activities of living?
Answer
  • Injury or disease
  • The patient being insured
  • Patient separation anxiety
  • Owner views on preventative health care

Question 3

Question
Which of the following is not a universal care requisite according to Orem?
Answer
  • Air
  • Water
  • Dying
  • Activity and rest

Question 4

Question
Pain which has gone beyond the normal response of tissues to that which involves the central nervous system is known as:
Answer
  • Acute
  • Adaptive
  • Chronic
  • Maladaptive

Question 5

Question
Which of the following best describes diastolic blood pressure?
Answer
  • Pressure when the heart is contracting
  • Pressure when the heart is relaxed
  • Maximum pressure in the arteries
  • Maximum pressure in the veins

Question 6

Question
Which of the following may benefit from the placement of a wound drain as part of the postoperative management?
Answer
  • Removal of a large subcutaneous mass
  • Aural haemotoma repair
  • Removal of a closed pyometra
  • Repair of an incised wound

Question 7

Question
Which of the following would represent an ideal body condition score characteristic?
Answer
  • Ribs, spine and pelvic bone visible
  • No palpable fat on chest
  • Obvious waist
  • No abdominal fat
  • Spine not palpable

Question 8

Question
Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of hydrotherapy?
Answer
  • Obesity
  • Pulmonary disease
  • Neurological dysfunction
  • Improvement of physical well-being

Question 9

Question
Which of the following feeding tubes would be indicated for use in a patient with a megaoesophagus?
Answer
  • Naso-oesophageal
  • Oesophagostomy
  • Gastrostomy
  • Jejunostomy

Question 10

Question
Which of the following is an enteral route of drug administration?
Answer
  • Intraperitoneal
  • Intraosseous
  • Intravenous
  • Intraoral

Question 11

Question
Which of the following should be avoided when administering an intramuscular injection?
Answer
  • Lumbar
  • Bicep femoris
  • Quadriceps
  • Triceps
  • Cervical dorsal

Question 12

Question
Which type of bandage can be stretched, released, and will revert back to its original condition?
Answer
  • Cohesive
  • Adhesive
  • Non-conforming
  • Conforming

Question 13

Question
Which type of bandage is: Vet wrap = [blank_start]Cohesive[blank_end] WOW bandage = [blank_start]Non-conforming[blank_end] Bandesive = [blank_start]Adhesive[blank_end] Orthoband = [blank_start]Padding[blank_end] Knit-fix = [blank_start]Conforming[blank_end]
Answer
  • Cohesive
  • Non-conforming
  • Adhesive
  • Padding
  • Conforming

Question 14

Question
Which of the following dressings would be the best for a malodorous wound?
Answer
  • Charcoal
  • Hydrocolloid
  • Paraffin gauze
  • Calcium-alginate

Question 15

Question
What would be an ideal temperature for an adult dog hospitalised in isolation?
Answer
  • 9-15 °C
  • 21-26 °C
  • 18-21 °C
  • 10-15 °C
  • 15-18 °C

Question 16

Question
What is the definition of reverse barrier nursing?
Answer
  • The isolation of immunocompromised patients for their own protection
  • The protocol followed when a patient can be re-introduced to the normal hospital environment following isolation
  • The discharge of a patient following hospitalisation in isolation
  • Routine nursing of a non-infectious patient

Question 17

Question
Which of the following species may exhibit crib biting when hospitalised?
Answer
  • Cat
  • Dog
  • Horse
  • Ferret

Question 18

Question
Which of the following represents the correct order of the stages within the nursing process?
Answer
  • APIE
  • PIEA
  • IPAE
  • EAPI
  • APEI

Question 19

Question
How many air volume changes per hour should there be in an isolation facility?
Answer
  • 4
  • 6
  • 10
  • 12
  • 21

Question 20

Question
What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to dog kennels?
Answer
  • 1:10
  • 1:30
  • 1:50
  • 1:70

Question 21

Question
What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to cat kennels?
Answer
  • 1:10
  • 1:30
  • 1:50
  • 1:70

Question 22

Question
What colour would the mucous membranes be in a patient with hypoxaemia?
Answer
  • Red
  • Yellow
  • Blue
  • White

Question 23

Question
Which of the following would be a common early clinical sign of dehydration?
Answer
  • Prolonged CRT
  • Sunken eyes
  • Skin changes
  • Dry mucous membranes

Question 24

Question
Which of the following is a method of respiratory physiotherapy?
Answer
  • Tapotement
  • Coupage
  • Effleurage
  • Petrissage

Question 25

Question
Which of these types of bandage would be used to reduce oedema in an equine patient?
Answer
  • Conforming
  • Pressage
  • Ehmer
  • Velpeau

Question 26

Question
Which of the following would be at the highest risk of myopathy?
Answer
  • Cat
  • Great dane
  • Shih tzu
  • Horse
  • Bearded dragon

Question 27

Question
Which of the following categories of debridement would the use of a wet to dry dressing come under?
Answer
  • Autolytic
  • Chemical
  • Mechanical
  • Surgical

Question 28

Question
Which of the following would benefit from a sand bath whilst hospitalised?
Answer
  • Chinchilla
  • Horse
  • Rabbit
  • Mouse

Question 29

Question
Which of the following patients would you place in a kennel measuring 91cm high x 152cm wide x 72cm deep?
Answer
  • Labrador
  • Miniature schnauzer
  • Basset hound
  • Spinone

Question 30

Question
Which of the following would be secured using a Chinese finger trap suture?
Answer
  • Oesophagostomy tube
  • Foley catheter
  • Over the needle cannula
  • Stomach tube

Question 31

Question
Which of the following is the minimum recommended clearance above a horse's ears in a stable?
Answer
  • 30cm
  • 60cm
  • 100cm
  • 120cm

Question 32

Question
What would be the minimum expected urinary output for a patient over a 6 hour period?
Answer
  • 1ml
  • 6ml
  • 12ml
  • 30ml

Question 33

Question
Which of the following is a direct method of monitoring blood pressure?
Answer
  • Doppler
  • Oscillometric
  • Sphygmomanometry
  • Central venous pressure

Question 34

Question
A fluctuating temperature with two differing levels is known as:
Answer
  • Pyrexia
  • Diphasic
  • Hyperthermia
  • Temperature deficit

Question 35

Question
Which of the following pulse points would NOT be appropriate for use in a conscious patient?
Answer
  • Digital
  • Femoral
  • Coccygeal
  • Sub-lingual

Question 36

Question
Orthopnea describes breathing which:
Answer
  • Is with an open mouth
  • Is deep for a short time, then slight
  • Is eased by the patient standing or upright
  • Causes the chest to move in an opposite motion

Question 37

Question
Flail chest is breathing which:
Answer
  • Is with an open mouth
  • Is eased by the patient standing or upright
  • Is deep for a short time, then slight
  • Causes the chest to move in an opposite motion

Question 38

Question
Pulse which naturally alters by increasing on inspiration and decreasing on expiration is known as:
Answer
  • Sinus arrhythmia
  • Water hammer
  • Pulse deficit
  • Hypokinetic

Question 39

Question
A delay from heart rate to pulse is known as:
Answer
  • Sinus arrhythmia
  • Pulse deficit
  • Water hammer
  • Hypokinetic

Question 40

Question
A patient suffering from congestion would have which of the following mucous membrane colours?
Answer
  • Brick red
  • Yellow
  • White
  • Blue

Question 41

Question
The expected minimum urinary output for a 20kg patient over an 8 hour period would be:
Answer
  • 50ml
  • 160ml
  • 320ml
  • 420ml

Question 42

Question
Paralysis occurring on only one side of the body is known as:
Answer
  • Quadriplegia
  • Tetraplegia
  • Paraplegia
  • Hemiplegia

Question 43

Question
The term for decreased respiratory rate is:
Answer
  • Orthopnea
  • Tachypnoea
  • Bradypnoea
  • Dyspnoea

Question 44

Question
Which of the following patients would be a cause for concern when monitoring their vital signs?
Answer
  • A cat with a pulse rate of 140bpm
  • A rabbit with a temperature of 40°C
  • A dog with a respiratory rate of 25bpm
  • A guinea pig with a CRT of 2 seconds

Question 45

Question
Who must veterinary practices be registered with before they can supply veterinary medicines?
Answer
  • RCVS
  • VMD
  • DEFRA
  • AMTRA

Question 46

Question
What common group of drugs are known for causing reactions such as anaphylaxis?
Answer
  • NSAIDS
  • Antibiotics
  • Opioids
  • Steroids

Question 47

Question
Which drugs cannot be ordered electronically?
Answer
  • Schedule 2
  • Schedule 2 + 3
  • Schedule 5
  • POM-V

Question 48

Question
Pharmacy records should be retained for how long?
Answer
  • 3 years
  • 5 years
  • 2 years
  • Indefinitely

Question 49

Question
Which items should be unpacked first from an order?
Answer
  • Fridge items + controlled drugs
  • Fridge items + liquids
  • Controlled drugs + special order items
  • Liquids + vials

Question 50

Question
How long should a controlled drugs register be retained for following the last dated entry (minimum)?
Answer
  • 2 years
  • 3 years
  • 5 years
  • 6 years

Question 51

Question
The misuse of drugs act 1971 controls all dangerous drugs
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 52

Question
The misuse of drugs regulations 1985 is NOT concerned with controlled drugs.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
Which legislation classifies the controlled drugs into 5 schedules?
Answer
  • The misuse of drugs regulations 1985
  • The misuse of drugs act 1971
  • The veterinary medicine regulations 2002
  • The cascade prescribing system

Question 54

Question
Which drugs must have their destruction witnessed by a police officer?
Answer
  • Schedule 1
  • Schedule 2
  • Schedule 3
  • Schedule 2 + 3

Question 55

Question
What is the minimum/maximum temperature range for the pharmacy?
Answer
  • 5-8°C
  • 8-25°C
  • 11-30°C
  • 5-28°C

Question 56

Question
[blank_start]An ampoule[blank_end] is single use, snap to open [blank_start]A vial[blank_end] can be single or multi use
Answer
  • An ampoule
  • A vial

Question 57

Question
Which type of bin would a denaturing kit go into after it has been used?
Answer
  • General waste
  • Pharmaceutical waste
  • Hazardous waste
  • Infectious waste

Question 58

Question
If not otherwise specified by the manufacturer, how long should open vials be kept for before disposal?
Answer
  • 14 days
  • 7 days
  • 28 days
  • 3 months

Question 59

Question
How long are written prescriptions for controlled drugs valid for?
Answer
  • 14 days
  • 28 days
  • 3 months
  • 6 months

Question 60

Question
How long are written prescriptions for POM-V drugs valid for?
Answer
  • 14 days
  • 28 days
  • Up to 3 months
  • Up to 6 months

Question 61

Question
POM-V medications can be prescribed by all veterinary staff
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 62

Question
POM-VPS drugs can be prescribed by SQPs
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 63

Question
Which organisation is responsible for training and CPD for SQPs?
Answer
  • AMTRA
  • RCVS
  • VMD
  • VMR

Question 64

Question
Within what time scale should controlled drugs be entered into the register?
Answer
  • Before leaving the practice that day
  • Within 24 hours
  • Within 48 hours
  • Within a week

Question 65

Question
What is the acceptable temperature range for a fridge?
Answer
  • 2-8°C
  • 0-5°C
  • 2-10°C
  • 4-10°C

Question 66

Question
What is the minimum time that invoices for controlled drugs should be retained?
Answer
  • 1 year
  • 2 years
  • 3 years
  • 5 years

Question 67

Question
Which regulations require practices to assess risk to health and safety from veterinary medicines?
Answer
  • COSHH
  • RIDDOR
  • HSAWA
  • VMR

Question 68

Question
What is the SARSS scheme for?
Answer
  • Adverse reactions
  • Training SQPs
  • Controlled drugs
  • Categorising medications

Question 69

Question
Which of the following is an act of veterinary surgery and should only be carried out by a veterinary surgeon?
Answer
  • First aid on wildlife
  • Euthanasia of a rabbit
  • Extraction of teeth from a cat
  • Urinary catheterisation of a dog

Question 70

Question
The safe use and control of x-ray chemicals within practice is primarily governed by which of the following regulations?
Answer
  • The health and safety at work act
  • The control of pollutants act
  • The ionising radiation regulations
  • Control of substances hazardous to health

Question 71

Question
Which piece of equipment involves the process of cavitation?
Answer
  • Ultrasound scanner
  • Ultrasonic bath
  • Ethylene oxide
  • Autoclave

Question 72

Question
Which of the following is the recommended screen break time?
Answer
  • 5-10 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time
  • 15 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time
  • 15-20 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time
  • 30 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time

Question 73

Question
How much mandatory CPD does a RVN have to do?
Answer
  • 35 hours per year
  • 15 hours over 3 years
  • 45 hours over 3 years
  • 45 hours per year

Question 74

Question
Monitoring general anaesthesia during a procedure is ultimately the responsibility of:
Answer
  • The anaesthetic nurse present during the procedure
  • The veterinary surgeon performing the procedure
  • The senior RVN present at the time
  • The senior partner of the practice

Question 75

Question
Who should an adverse suspected drug reaction be reported to via the SARSS scheme?
Answer
  • Animal medicines training regulatory authority
  • Royal college of veterinary surgeons
  • Veterinary medicines directorate
  • Royal pharmaceutical society
  • DEFRA

Question 76

Question
Which of the following cannot be performed by lay staff?
Answer
  • Giving an intramuscular injection
  • Monitoring anaesthesia
  • Clipping a dog's nails in a nurse clinic
  • Dispensing an AVM-GSL medication

Question 77

Question
Which of the following would permit a nurse to induce anaesthesia?
Answer
  • The anaesthesia is given to effect by an RVN
  • The anaesthesia is given incrementally by an RVN
  • The anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under direction
  • The anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under supervision

Question 78

Question
Which of the following cannot be performed by an RVN?
Answer
  • Minor surgery
  • Medical treatment
  • Nursing diagnosis
  • Medical diagnosis

Question 79

Question
Which of the following is the second stage of a risk assessment?
Answer
  • Identify the hazards
  • Record the findings
  • Decide who might be harmed and how
  • Evaluate the risks and decide on the precautions to be taken

Question 80

Question
Accidents and near misses at work should be reported under the RIDDOR scheme if it results in the person having more than:
Answer
  • 3 days off work
  • 7 days off work including a weekend
  • 7 days off work excluding a weekend
  • 10 days off work

Question 81

Question
The daily consecutive rest period for each adult worker in each 24 hour period should be:
Answer
  • 8 hours
  • 9 hours
  • 10 hours
  • 11 hours

Question 82

Question
A 17 year old SVN employed at the practice should have a break of 30 minutes after they have worked for:
Answer
  • 4.5 hours
  • 6 hours
  • 6.5 hours
  • 8 hours

Question 83

Question
What thickness of lead equivalent should be contained in gloves used as small animal radiographic protective equipment?
Answer
  • 0.25mm
  • 0.35mm
  • 0.5mm
  • 1mm

Question 84

Question
Adult workers have a maximum permissible dose of 100 msV over a 5 year period. What is the maximum dose in any single year within the 5 year period, which they can receive?
Answer
  • 20 msV
  • 25 msV
  • 50 msV
  • 100 msV

Question 85

Question
The Ionising Radiation Regulations 1999 (Medical Use) govern the use of radiography in practice. Who issues these regulations?
Answer
  • HSE
  • VDS
  • RCVS
  • NRPB

Question 86

Question
The most suitable way to move a 42kg anaesthetised Italian Spinone from the prep room to the operating theatre would be with a:
Answer
  • Slide
  • Stretcher
  • Hoist
  • 2 people manually supporting the patient

Question 87

Question
Controlled drugs should be disposed of by:
Answer
  • Direct disposal into a blue bin
  • Direct disposal into a yellow bin
  • Denaturing and disposal into a blue container
  • Denaturing and disposal into an orange container

Question 88

Question
Which piece of equipment needs pressurised leak testing?
Answer
  • Autoclave
  • Endoscope
  • Suction equipment
  • Anaesthetic vaporiser

Question 89

Question
Place the following in the correct sequence representing the order in which they should be carried out, when using clippers. 1=site the blades 2=snap down the blades 3=switch on the clippers 4=switch on at plug
Answer
  • 4 3 2 1
  • 1 2 3 4
  • 4 1 3 2
  • 1 4 2 3

Question 90

Question
What piece of equipment would you be dealing with, if the routine maintenance involved cleaning the specula, checking the bulb, and ensuring the batteries are fully charged?
Answer
  • Otoscope
  • Endoscope
  • Laparoscope
  • Ophthalmoscope

Question 91

Question
Prior to use, a refractometer should be calibrated using:
Answer
  • Tap water
  • Saline
  • Chlorhexidine
  • Distilled water

Question 92

Question
Which of the following is not true regarding PAT testing?
Answer
  • Testing is not required by law
  • It should be done on a yearly basis
  • A qualified electrician is not required to perform the test
  • Frequency of testing is based on the type of equipment and place of use

Question 93

Question
On a prescription for controlled drugs, which of the following must be written in both text and numerical form?
Answer
  • Client's address
  • The strength of the medication
  • The total quantity to be dispensed
  • The length of time the prescription is valid for

Question 94

Question
Practices who have less than 5 employees do not require a
Answer
  • Radiation protection supervisor
  • Written health and safety policy
  • Radiation protection advisor
  • Appointed first aider

Question 95

Question
Which of the following pieces of legislation is RIDDOR part of?
Answer
  • The health and safety at work act
  • The health and safety first aid regulations
  • Control of substances hazardous to health
  • Workplace (health, safety and welfare) regulations 2002

Question 96

Question
A licence from the Veterinary Medicines Directorate would be required under the cascade system for which of the following circumstances? A drug was used which
Answer
  • treats the same condition in a different species
  • treats the same species but for a different condition
  • needs to be imported from overseas
  • is primarily intended for human use

Question 97

Question
The active ingredient which poses a health and safety risk in x-ray developer is
Answer
  • Phenidone Hydroquinone
  • Barium fluorohalide
  • Ammonium Thiosulphate
  • Lithium fluoride

Question 98

Question
Which of the following would be the correct disposal of a needle contaminated with medication?
Answer
  • Re-sheath, remove by hand and place into a yellow sharps container
  • Re-sheath, remove by hand and place into an orange sharps container
  • Remove needle using the facility in the top of a yellow sharps container without re-sheathing
  • Remove needle using the facility in the top of an orange sharps container without re-sheathing

Question 99

Question
Accident book records must be retained r=for
Answer
  • 2 years
  • 3 years
  • 5 years
  • 7 years

Question 100

Question
Which of the following defines a micro-organism which can synthesise its own food?
Answer
  • Heterotroph
  • Autotroph
  • Paratenic
  • Obligate

Question 101

Question
Most bacteria are defined as:
Answer
  • Heterotrophs
  • Autotrophs
  • Paratenic
  • Eukaryotic

Question 102

Question
Commensal microorganisms normally live on the body without causing harm or disease.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 103

Question
Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for the majority of dermatophyte cases in cats?
Answer
  • Trichophyton Equinum
  • Linognathus setosus
  • Microsporum canis
  • Escherichia coli

Question 104

Question
Which of the following is the common process of asexual bacterial replication?
Answer
  • Mitosis
  • Budding
  • Conjugation
  • Binary fission

Question 105

Question
Donor cells will result from
Answer
  • Mitosis
  • Meiosis
  • Binary fission
  • Conjugation

Question 106

Question
Which bacteria is composed of a single circle? [blank_start]Cocci[blank_end]
Answer
  • Cocci

Question 107

Question
Which bacteria is composed of two circles? [blank_start]Diplococci[blank_end]
Answer
  • Diplococci

Question 108

Question
Which bacteria is rod-shaped? [blank_start]Bacilli[blank_end]
Answer
  • Bacilli

Question 109

Question
Which bacteria is shaped like a chain of cocci? [blank_start]Streptococci[blank_end]
Answer
  • Streptococci

Question 110

Question
Which bacteria is shaped like a bunch of grapes? [blank_start]Staphylococci[blank_end]
Answer
  • Staphylococci

Question 111

Question
Which bacteria is spiral shaped? [blank_start]Spirochete[blank_end]
Answer
  • Spirochete

Question 112

Question
What type of bacteria causes strangles? [blank_start]Streptococci[blank_end]
Answer
  • Streptococci

Question 113

Question
What type of bacteria causes leptospirosis and lyme disease? [blank_start]Spirochete[blank_end]
Answer
  • Spirochete

Question 114

Question
Which of the following terms is associated with an Endotoxin?
Answer
  • The toxin is secreted from a live bacterial cell
  • Responsible for causing laminitis in horses
  • Produced by gram positive bacteria
  • Favour dry conditions

Question 115

Question
Which of the following is not a bacterial disease in horses?
Answer
  • Rhodococcus equi
  • Streptococcus equi equi
  • Taylorella equigenitalis
  • Trichophyton mentagrophyte

Question 116

Question
Which of the following neuro-toxic bacterial infections is a potential health risk for veterinary staff, for which vaccination is offered?
Answer
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Escherichia coli
  • Rabies

Question 117

Question
Within how many days must a report be received by the HSE following a dangerous occurrence?
Answer
  • 7
  • 8
  • 10
  • 14

Question 118

Question
How many stages does a risk assessment contain?
Answer
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6

Question 119

Question
What is the maximum time frame advised between PAT testing equipment in a veterinary practice?
Answer
  • 6 months
  • 1 year
  • 3 years
  • 2 years

Question 120

Question
Sharps which have been contaminated with medications need to be disposed of in which of the following containers?
Answer
  • Yellow with an orange lid
  • Plain yellow
  • Yellow with a purple lid
  • Yellow with a blue lid

Question 121

Question
Mask and gloves used as PPE during a dental procedure should be disposed of in:
Answer
  • A yellow bag with a black vertical stripe
  • A yellow bag with a purple stripe
  • A plain yellow bag
  • An orange bag

Question 122

Question
What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation which a 17 year old SVN in practice can receive per annum?
Answer
  • 1 msV
  • 6msV
  • 20 msV
  • 50 msV

Question 123

Question
The active ingredient which poses an H+S risk in x-ray fixer is
Answer
  • Phenidone hydroquinone
  • Barium fluorohalide
  • Ammonium thiosulphate
  • Lithium fluoride

Question 124

Question
During a diastolic blood pressure reading, pressure would be:
Answer
  • Higher in the veins
  • Higher in the arteries
  • Lower in the veins
  • Equal in both arteries and veins

Question 125

Question
The radiographic controlled area should be a minimum of what distance away from the tube head?
Answer
  • 1m
  • 2m
  • 5m
  • 7m

Question 126

Question
What is the expected rest period for an adult worker in a 7 day period according to the Working Time Regulations?
Answer
  • 6 hours
  • 8 hours
  • 11 hours
  • 24 hours

Question 127

Question
Which of the following types of fire extinguisher would be used on an electrical fire?
Answer
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Dry powder
  • Water
  • Foam

Question 128

Question
Which of the following would not under any circumstances be reportable under RIDDOR?
Answer
  • Autoclave explosion
  • Exposure to soda lime
  • Outbreak of parvovirus
  • Excessive radiation from the x-ray machine

Question 129

Question
Which of the following statements is true regarding anaesthesia equipment safety?
Answer
  • Refill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
  • Refill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the oxygen first, then the nitrous
  • Refill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it bi-annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen
  • Refill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen

Question 130

Question
Which of the following is true regarding the controlled drugs register?
Answer
  • A computerised back up must be kept of the written records
  • Entries must be made within 48 hours
  • All entries must be made in red indelible ink
  • It must be a bound book

Question 131

Question
How much CPD must a vet complete over a 3 year period?
Answer
  • 105 hrs
  • 100 hrs
  • 50 hrs
  • 45 hrs

Question 132

Question
Which of the following types of surgical equipment would you store unsterilised?
Answer
  • Orthopaedic implants
  • Artery forceps
  • Retractors
  • Scissors

Question 133

Question
Which of the following disinfectants would emit a dangerous gas if in contact with urine?
Answer
  • Phenols
  • Alcohol
  • Biguanides
  • Hypochlorites

Question 134

Question
Which of the following disinfectant categories is toxic to cats?
Answer
  • Aldehydes
  • Iodophors
  • Biguanides
  • Phenols

Question 135

Question
If an autoclave is required to sterilise an item in under 5 minutes and the pressure is set at 30psi what temperature setting should be selected?
Answer
  • 121°C
  • 126°C
  • 134°C
  • 137°C

Question 136

Question
Which of the following describes ethylene oxide indicator tape?
Answer
  • Green background, yellow to red colour change of stripes
  • Cream background, self-colour to brown change of stripes
  • Yellow background, green to purple change of stripes
  • White background, yellow to blue colour change of stripes

Question 137

Question
Which of the following diseases is caused by bacilli bacteria?
Answer
  • Escherichia coli
  • Leptospirosis
  • Strangles
  • MRSA

Question 138

Question
Which of the following would be a vector for the spread of bartonella henselae?
Answer
  • Ticks
  • Urine
  • Cat faeces
  • Cat scratch

Question 139

Question
Which of the following describes a disease that can be passed from humans to animals?
Answer
  • Anthroponosis
  • Notifiable
  • Zoonosis
  • Virulent

Question 140

Question
Differential diagnosis of disease forms part of which process within the SOAP patient assessment method
Answer
  • Subjective
  • Objective
  • Assessment
  • Planning

Question 141

Question
Which of the following describes the RLT model of nursing vs the Orem model?
Answer
  • Animal's abilities vs activities of living
  • Activities of living vs self care
  • Disease focus vs animal's abilities
  • Universal care requisites vs self-care

Question 142

Question
Clinical signs associated with dehydration emerge when the patient is experiencing what level of dehydration?
Answer
  • Less than 5%
  • 5-6%
  • 6-8%
  • 12-15%

Question 143

Question
Which of the following ventilation methods would be best for use in isolation facilities?
Answer
  • Passive
  • Air conditioning
  • Positive pressure
  • Negative pressure

Question 144

Question
Which of the following should be placed in a hospital stable which measures 4.25m x 4.25m?
Answer
  • Ponies up to 14.2hh
  • Horses up to 16.2 hh
  • Horses over 16.2 hh
  • A foaling mare

Question 145

Question
Which of the following categories does chlorhexidine fall under?
Answer
  • Iodophors
  • Phenolics
  • Biguanides
  • Halogenated tertiary amines
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