Circulatory System II

Description

Quiz on Circulatory System II, created by mano li on 04/01/2022.
mano li
Quiz by mano li, updated more than 1 year ago
mano li
Created by mano li almost 3 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
101. The ten-year survival after heart transplantation is:
Answer
  • f. 10%
  • g. 30%
  • h. 50%
  • i. 70%
  • j. 90%

Question 2

Question
102. What is not a contraindication for heart transplantation:
Answer
  • a. age over 70 years
  • b. diabetes
  • c. pulmonary systolic pulmonary artery pressure> 60 mmHg, which is not reduced by products
  • d. active infection
  • e. active malignancy within the last 5 years

Question 3

Question
103. What applies for heart transplant patients:
Answer
  • a. in contrast to transplantation of other bodies have immunosuppressive therapy is not necessary
  • b. in the early period after transplantation antibiotic prevention is not necessary precaution given only virostatike
  • c. because after heart transplantation is not innervated, it is a frequent sinus tachycardia
  • d. due to early detection of transplant rejection perform routine biopsy of the heart muscle
  • e. coronary artery disease in the transplanted heart is proceeding more slowly

Question 4

Question
104. In the late period after heart transplantation is an important factor of morbidity ::
Answer
  • a. hepatitis B virus
  • b. influenza A virus (H1N1)
  • c. cytomegalovirus
  • d. JC virus
  • e. adenovirus

Question 5

Question
105. What is the 1-year survival of patients with heart failure in NYHA functional class IV:
Answer
  • a. 5%
  • b. 20%
  • c. <50%
  • d. > 70%
  • e. 95%

Question 6

Question
106. The most common reason for chronic heart failure are:
Answer
  • a. Congenital heart disease
  • b. valvular defect
  • c. Ischaemic heart disease
  • d. myocarditis
  • e. arterial hypertension

Question 7

Question
107. What kind of drugs shown to prolong life in chronic heart failure?
Answer
  • a. loop diuretics
  • b. ACE inhibitors
  • c. beta adrenergic blockers
  • d. digitalis
  • e. spironolactone

Question 8

Question
108. The characteristics of atrial fibrillation (AF) are the following:
Answer
  • a. more common on Mondays and Holidays
  • b. frequency sections is always above 100 / min
  • c. a slowdown in ventricular rate is achieved by digitalis
  • d. a slowdown in ventricular rate is obtained by beta-blockers
  • e. in chronic AF is required anticoagulation

Question 9

Question
109. If a characteristic ventricular tachycardias are:
Answer
  • a. in persistent ventricular tachycardia is still needed defibrillation
  • b. in cardioversion persistent ventricular tachycardias requires synchronized cardioversion with a low energy (50J)
  • c. in stable patients attack can be stopped by amiodarone
  • d. hemodynamic impairment of the patient is not dependent on the frequency of tachycardia
  • e. increased risk of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia patients with short QT interval in the electrocardiogram

Question 10

Question
110. Circle the correct argument that applies to (AV) block:
Answer
  • a. in AV block of first instance every other P wave triggered by a QRS complex
  • b. AV block Mobitz II rarely progresses to complete AV block
  • c. When complete AV block (III) are always wide QRS complexes
  • d. the most common reason for the occurrence of AV block are infectious diseases
  • e. AV block within inferior heart attacks are normally corrected within anterior, infarction is generally permanent

Question 11

Question
111. For preexcitation Wolf-Parkinson-White (WPW) applies (circle the correct combination):
Answer
  • a. whereas translating arousal follows the ancillary way, the PQ period extended
  • b. in ortodromic tachycardia the QRS complexes of normal width
  • c. in antidromic tachycardia the QRS complexes Extended
  • d. atrial fibrillation within WPW can be treated with digoxin
  • e. atrial fibrillation within WPW can be treated with verapamil

Question 12

Question
112. The shape of the R electrocardiogram was in sinus tachycardia:
Answer
  • a. normal
  • b. Sprockets p negative
  • c. p tine having a lower amplitude
  • d. the amplitude of the finger p is changing
  • e. the present wave delta

Question 13

Question
113. In the case of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and conduction disorders (bundle branch block, ventricular pre-excitation), the QRS complexes:
Answer
  • a. narrow
  • b. wide
  • c. unequal
  • d. It comes to failures of individual QRS complexes
  • e. same as no conduction disturbance

Question 14

Question
114. In atrial flutter, the limit frequency of atrial:
Answer
  • a. below 220 / min
  • b. above 350 / min
  • c. from 220 to 350 / min
  • d. from 120 to 250 / min
  • e. from 280 to 390 / min

Question 15

Question
115. sinus tachycardia does not cause: (a consequence of the appreciation of catecholamines)
Answer
  • a. pulmonary embolism
  • b. heart failure
  • c. pain
  • d. hypothyroidism
  • e. anemia

Question 16

Question
116. In the case of atrial fibrillation in more than 70% of the arrhythmogenic focus on:
Answer
  • a. pulmonary veins
  • b. right atrial
  • c. right ventricle
  • d. pulmonary artery
  • e. atrial septum

Question 17

Question
117. The use of digitalis and verapamil is absolutely contraindicated in:
Answer
  • a. atrial fibrillation
  • b. atrial flutter
  • c. atrial tachycardia
  • d. atrial extrasystoles
  • e. atrial fibrillation in a patient with pre-excitation type WPW

Question 18

Question
118. With drugs such as digitalis, verapamil, diltiazem, beta-blockers achieved in atrial fibrillation:
Answer
  • a. acceleration of ventricular response
  • b. conversion to sinus rhythm
  • c. slowing of ventricular response
  • d. No significant changes
  • e. less thromboembolic complications

Question 19

Question
119. The electrocardiogram see ventricular tachycardia, QRS complexes which have varying electrical axis and in the form of a helix twisting around the isoelectric line. Arrhythmia occurs in the form of short, short time intervals repeated attacks. It occurs in people who have a long QT interval on the electrocardiogram and bradycardia. Tachycardia, which describes the composition?
Answer
  • a. monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
  • b. ventricular fibrillation
  • c. torsade de pointes
  • d. ventricular flutter
  • e. polymorphic ventricular extrasystoles

Question 20

Question
120. ventricular tachycardia form a certain number of consecutive ventricular beats. About Ventricular tachycardia can speak, when successive ventricular beats
Answer
  • a. at least 2
  • b. at least 3
  • c. at least 4
  • d. at least 5
  • e. at least 6

Question 21

Question
121. Mark concept, which is not in connection with sinus node disease:
Answer
  • a. sinus bradycardia
  • b. sinoatrial block
  • c. sinus arrest
  • d. bradikardno-tachycardic syndrome
  • e. atrioventricular block

Question 22

Question
122. sinus arrest is permanent or temporary cessation of the production of stimuli in the sinus node. ECG results is most similar to:
Answer
  • a. sinoatrial block III. Instance
  • b. sinoatrial block II. Instance
  • c. sinoatrial block level I
  • d. sinus bradycardia
  • e. atrioventricular block

Question 23

Question
123. About atrioventricular block level I , when PQ interval is :
Answer
  • a. at least 0.10 with
  • b. at least 0.20 with
  • c. at least 0.30 with
  • d. at least 0.40 with
  • e. at least 0.35 with

Question 24

Question
124. If cardioversion blow flow coincides with the peak of T wave of the previous beat (vulnerable area) can cause:
Answer
  • a. sinus bradycardia
  • b. ventricular fibrillation
  • c. nothing special
  • d. atrial fibrillation
  • e. atrioventricular block

Question 25

Question
125. What happens if we stimulate the beta receptors?
Answer
  • a. heart rate increases
  • b. heart rate is reduced
  • c. accelerate the oxygenation
  • d. hypotension occurs
  • e. to avoid any change in

Question 26

Question
126. The most successful method of termination of ventricular fibrillation is:
Answer
  • a. cardioversion
  • b. Defibrillation
  • c. medicines
  • d. external heart massage
  • e. artificial respiration

Question 27

Question
127. AV node can generate heart rate range:
Answer
  • a. 40-60
  • b. 60-100
  • c. 20-40
  • d. 40-80
  • e. AV node does not have this capability

Question 28

Question
128. Adenosine:
Answer
  • a. accelerate the translation through the AV node
  • b. inhibits translation through the AV node
  • c. It has a very long half-life
  • d. inhibits conduction in the SA node
  • e. reduces the volume of liquid in the lung

Question 29

Question
129. Irregular heart rhythm without claire waves on ECG record is likely to:
Answer
  • a. ventricular tachycardia
  • b. ventricular fibrillation
  • c. sinus rhythm
  • d. atrial fibrillation
  • e. sinus arrhythmia

Question 30

Question
130. What happens if you block beta receptors in the heart?
Answer
  • a. heart rate increases
  • b. heart rate is reduced
  • c. accelerate the oxygenation
  • d. hypotension occurs
  • e. to avoid any change in

Question 31

Question
131. electrocardiographic criteria that determine ventricular tachycardia are
Answer
  • A width of the QRS complexes with over 0.14
  • B. Web and spliced beats
  • C. atrioventricular dissociation
  • F. the absence of the finger P
  • D. The width of the QRS complexes under 0.14 with

Question 32

Question
132. Clinical signs and ECG changes in atrial fibrillation are:
Answer
  • A. irregular and differently charged arterial pulse
  • B. regular and evenly filled arterial pulse
  • C. struck tones
  • F. differently loud first heart tone
  • D. missing tines P are present fibrillation the teeth of different amplitudes

Question 33

Question
133. Manifestations of Appeal atrioventricular block are:
Answer
  • A. Wenckebach periodicity
  • B. complete termination of atrioventricular conduction
  • C. Mobitz III
  • F. Mobitz II
  • D. advanced atrioventricular block

Question 34

Question
134. A complete atrioventricular block:
Answer
  • A. threatening condition that requires urgent treatment
  • B. has preserved atrial activity (P tines or f) visible on the ECG
  • C. has a complete atrioventricular dissociation were seen on the ECG
  • F. is harmless, treatment is required
  • D. QRS complexes are often narrow

Question 35

Question
135. implantation of cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) operates in three different ways:
Answer
  • A. The machine uses high-energy (200-300J) Defibrillation
  • B. from ventricular tachycardia using antitachycardia stimulation, or cardioversion
  • C. in the case of bradycardia heart encourages
  • F. The use of ventricular fibrilation defibrilation
  • D. The apparatus is capable of a total of 10 to 20 shocks

Question 36

Question
136. The definition of electrocardiographic syndrome Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) is as follows:
Answer
  • A short period of PQ (0.12 or lower)
  • B. extended interval Q-T
  • C. The presence of wave U
  • F. widened QRS complex (over 0.10 s)
  • D. delta wave

Question 37

Question
137. For some it is a heart rhythm disorder (see precordial drains, where most of Change)?
Answer
  • a. ventricular tachycardia
  • b. atrial fibrillation
  • c. SVT with functional bundle branch block
  • d. sinus tachycardia
  • e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Question 38

Question
138. What kind of heart rhythm disorder about?
Answer
  • A VT (polymorphic)
  • b. atrial fibrillation
  • c. atrial flutter
  • d. sinus tachycardia
  • e. atrial tachycardia (sembra più una a.t.parossistica perché ondulata)

Question 39

Question
139. In the picture above we see the sinus rate, then the first transition in the salvo of ventricular premature beats and the second time in ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation (Figure 2 and 3). What is undoubtedly trigger ventricular tachycardia?
Answer
  • a. premature sine pulse
  • b. atrial ekstrasitola
  • c. ventricular extrasystoles on the T wave
  • d. irritation of the Vagus
  • e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Question 40

Question
140. The 70-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease. What kind of heart rhythm disorder about?
Answer
  • a. atrial flutter
  • b. atrial fibrillation
  • c. no arrhythmias, an artifact due to tremor
  • d. sinus tachycardia
  • e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Question 41

Question
141. What kind of heart rhythm disorder about? For a detailed analysis has shown outlet V1 in magnified form.
Answer
  • a. atrial flutter
  • b. atrial fibrillation
  • c. atrial tachycardia with a block of 2: 1
  • d. sinus tachycardia
  • e. atrial ectopic activity

Question 42

Question
142. What kind of rhythm in motion?
Answer
  • a. First-degree AV block
  • b. AV block II. levels of type I
  • c. AV block II. degree with a translation of 2: 1
  • d. AV block III. Instance
  • e. normal sinus rhythm

Question 43

Question
143. What kind of heart rhythm disorder about?
Answer
  • a. First-degree AV block
  • b. Mobitz I
  • c. Mobitz II
  • d. AV block III. Instance
  • e. normal sinus rhythm

Question 44

Question
144. What kind of heart rhythm disorder about?
Answer
  • a. complete AV dissociation
  • b. AV block II. levels of type I
  • c. advanced AV block II. Grade 3: 1
  • d. AV block III. Instance
  • e. normal sinus rhythm

Question 45

Question
145. Figures show promoting cardiac resynchronization in a way that it is used in patients with advanced heart failure. Where normally lie electrode?
Answer
  • a. in both the atria and the coronary sinus
  • b. in both the atria and right ventricle
  • c. in the right atrium, right ventricle and coronary sinus
  • d. in the left atrium (2x) and the right ventricle
  • e. in the right ventricle (2x) and the coronary sinus

Question 46

Question
146. A patient with implanted cardioverter/defibrillator (ICD) is under the control of quoted occasional palpitations. The ECG notebook ICD was registered a record 14 consecutive beats with wide QRS complexes. How would you define arrhythmia?
Answer
  • a. unstable VT
  • b. persistent VT
  • c. paroxysm of atrial fibrillation
  • d. sinus tachycardia
  • e. polymorphic ventricular extrasystoles

Question 47

Question
147. What kind of heart rhythm disorder about?
Answer
  • a. VT
  • B. atrial fibrillation
  • c. bradicardic-tachycardic syndrome
  • d. sinus tachycardia
  • e. intermittent ventricular ekstrasistolija

Question 48

Question
148. In the picture you can see a form of electro cardiac permanent pacemakers. How are housed electrodes?
Answer
  • a. transvensko
  • b. transseptalno
  • c. diaphragmatic
  • d. transcutaneous
  • e. epicardio

Question 49

Question
149. What shows ECG (the monitor outlet)?
Answer
  • a. SVT, who after a pause repeated in the same form
  • b. spontaneous leap from ventricular tachycardia to sinus rhythm
  • c. Leap of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
  • d. leap from supraventricular tachycardia to sinus rhythm with an electrical shock (cardioversion)
  • e. leap from ventricular tachycardia to sinus rhythm with an electrical shock (cardioversion)

Question 50

Question
150. Following the administration of adenosine in a patient whose ECG is in the picture above, established a rhythm, which is shown in the figure below. Explain the formation mechanism.
Answer
  • a. accelerate the translation through the AV node
  • b. brake translation through the AV node
  • c. stimulation of the conductivity in the SA node
  • d. inhibition of conductivity in the SA node
  • e. stimulation of the Vagus

Question 51

Question
151. Which of the following is the most common cause of sinus tachycardia:
Answer
  • a. hyperthyroidism
  • b. arteriovenous fistula
  • c. sepsis
  • d. medicines
  • e. Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

Question 52

Question
152. What applies to extraordinary rate - Extrasystoles:
Answer
  • a. the ventricular rate is stronger
  • b. ventricular extrasystoles is hemodynamically more effective than atrial
  • c. the earlier the extrasystoles, the more effective hemodynamic
  • d. extrasystoles, arising from the basal parts were hemodynamically effective as compared with those arising from the tip of the
  • e. extrasystole patients generally do not feel

Question 53

Question
153. What applies to atrial flutter:
Answer
  • a. in the majority of cases occur in structurally normal hearts
  • b. Place Cruise depolarization is always in the right atrium
  • c. atrial frequency is between 110 and 240 / min
  • d. atrial frequency is between 220 and 350 / min
  • e. frequency atrial chambers at plapolanju always regular

Question 54

Question
154. Repeat attacks are most effective in atrial flutter is prevented by:
Answer
  • a. beta-blockers
  • b. verapamil
  • c. digitalis
  • d. implantation of an automatic defibrillator
  • e. catheter ablation

Question 55

Question
155. What applies to atrial fibrillation:
Answer
  • a. The incidence increases with age
  • b. prevalence in the age group above 60 years is about 5%
  • c. Patients with atrial fibrillation have a 2x higher mortality
  • d. increasing the number of independent rotations depolarization, the greater the chance of spontaneous termination of arrhythmias
  • e. in untreated ventricular arrhythmia frequency it is usually between 70 and 90 / min

Question 56

Question
156. What is characteristic of atrial fibrillation
Answer
  • a. flutter with paroxysmal arrhythmia episode is interrupted herself frequently in the first 24 hours, but no later than 7 days
  • b. After a successful elektrokonverziji patients with increased risk of thromboembolism without need of anticoagulant therapy
  • c. If the duration of atrial flicker between 24 and 48 hours, before attempting the conversion necessary to introduce an anticoagulant protection
  • d. in haemodynamic impairment of the patient cardioversion is contraindicated
  • e. arrhythmogenic foci were generally at around vtočišča hollow out the right preddvot

Question 57

Question
157. What applies to the treatment of atrial flutter:
Answer
  • a. in permanent form usually opt for cardioversion
  • b. effectiveness of catheter ablation for paroxysmal form 50%
  • c. for catheter ablation of arrhythmogenic foci commonly eliminated by electrically isolating the pulmonary output
  • d. in the form of permanent heart rate most often mitigated by a combination of beta blockers and verapamil
  • e. in patients with WPW syndrome ventricular rate slowed down by digitalis

Question 58

Question
158. What is characteristic of atrioventricular reentry tachycardia:
Answer
  • a. It is a rare form of supraventricular tachycardia
  • b. depolarization reaches the atrium earlier than ventricle, so the ECG visible P waves just before the QRS complexes
  • c. vagal maneuvers are often interrupted rhythm disorder
  • d. beta blockers are contraindicated
  • e. with frequent attacks, treatment selection catheter ablation of slow pathways

Question 59

Question
159. A feature atrioventricular reentry tachycardia with the participation of accessory route:
Answer
  • a. in ortodromni tachycardia the QRS complexes wide
  • b. in ortodromni tachycardia often we see negative p waves just for QRS
  • c. antidromno tachycardia treated with verapamil
  • d. ortodormno tachycardia treated with digitalis
  • e. treatment with catheter ablation is successful

Question 60

Question
160. A characteristic of ventricular tachycardia:
Answer
  • a. Occasionally they can narrow QRS complexes
  • b. ECG can be found in the so-called compounded and caught pulses
  • c. rule is hemodynamically significant
  • d. unstable ventricular tachycardia lasting more than 3 minutes
  • e. unstable ventricular tachycardia has a worse prognosis than persistent

Question 61

Question
161. What kind of rhythm in the video:
Answer
  • a. changes artifacts
  • b. atrial fibrillation
  • c. probably atrioventricular nodal tachycardia
  • d. polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
  • e. ventricular fibrillation

Question 62

Question
162 polymorphic ventricular tachycardia:
Answer
  • a. often it occurs in patients with short QT interval
  • b. It occurs more often in people with sinus tachycardia
  • c. It may occur during treatment with antiarrhythmic drugs and drugs that prolong the QT interval
  • d. It occurs more often in hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia
  • e. some patients indication for insertion cardioverter-defibrillator

Question 63

Question
163. How can we try to terminate ventricular tachycardias attack in hemodynamically stable patients:
Answer
  • a. with vagal maneuvers
  • b. digitalis
  • c. lidocaine
  • d. amiodarone
  • e. electrical cardioversion

Question 64

Question
164. How can we try to terminate ventricular tachycardias attack in hemodynamically unstable patients:
Answer
  • a. with vagal maneuvers
  • b. digitalis
  • c. lidocaine
  • d. amiodarone
  • e. electrical cardioversion

Question 65

Question
165. For ventricular fibrillation is characterized by:
Answer
  • a. successfully stopped by amiodarone
  • b. if it occurred before our eyes, to try to break up with synchronous conversion with 50J
  • c. need immediate CPR and defibrillation as soon as possible
  • d. occurs when acute myocardial infarction, the patient requires insertion of a cardioverter-defibrillator
  • e. if not found an obvious cause of VF in patients treated pharmacologically

Question 66

Question
166. The sinus node disease is characterized by:
Answer
  • a. common is sinus tachycardia
  • b. mostly the result of degenerative changes in the sinus node and atrium
  • c. due to sinus bradycardia occur fugitive tachycardic arrhythmias
  • d. reversible disease
  • e. There are several levels of sino-atrial block

Question 67

Question
167. What is characteristic of atrioventricular block:
Answer
  • a. the incidence increasing with age
  • b. frequently it occurs in patients with arterial hypertension
  • c. cause of acute atrioventricular block may be some infectious diseases
  • d. chronic block successfully treated with sympathomimetic
  • e. beta-blockers do not affect the atrioventricular translation

Question 68

Question
168. The first stage AV block is characterized by:
Answer
  • a. QT interval PQ over 0.1sec
  • b. QT interval PQ over 0.2S
  • c. QT prolongation above 440 ms
  • d. prolongation of QRS duration greater than 120 ms
  • e. occasional interruption of conduction through the AV node and the failure of the QRS complex

Question 69

Question
62. Which arrhythmia see on ECG:
Answer
  • a. sinoatrial block level I
  • b. complete sinoatrial block
  • c. first-degree atrioventricular block
  • d. atrioventricular block II.
  • e. atrioventricular dissociation Mobitz I

Question 70

Question
169. What heart rhythm disturbance seen in ECG:
Answer
  • a. atrial flutter (atrial flutter)
  • b. first-degree atrioventricular block
  • c. atrioventricular block II. degree with a translation of 2: 1
  • d. atrioventricular block II. degree Mobitz II
  • e. atrioventricular block III. Instance

Question 71

Question
170. For the left anterior hemiblok is characterized by:
Answer
  • a. Wide QRS complex is less than 120 ms
  • b. QRS complex is wide more than 120 ms
  • c. electrical axis is displaced to the left
  • d. electrical axis normal
  • e. it is necessary as soon as possible the insertion of a pacemaker

Question 72

Question
171. Indications for permanent pacemaker insertion are:
Answer
  • a. GMAS attack the AV block II. degree Mobitz I
  • b. asymptomatic AV block II. degree Mobitz II
  • c. asymptomatic AV block III. Instance
  • d. ECG in asymptomatic pause longer than 2 seconds
  • e. Tachycardia-bradycardia syndrome, which requires different antiarrhythmic therapy

Question 73

Question
172. What is the way to electro?
Answer
  • a. OR
  • b. VV
  • c. VDD
  • d. DDD
  • e. VAR

Question 74

Question
173. What is the way to electro?
Answer
  • a. AAI
  • b. VVI
  • c. VDD
  • d. DDD
  • e. VXR

Question 75

Question
174. What is the next ECG?
Answer
  • a. ventricular tachycardia
  • b. AV block II. degree Mobitz II
  • c. with normal ECG artifacts
  • d. electrostimulation of the DDD mode
  • e. impairment in the functioning pacemaker

Question 76

Question
175. What additional phenomenon is visible in the ECG:
Answer
  • a. raising the point J
  • b. raising ST
  • c. wave U
  • d. delta wave (WPW)
  • e. Osborne wave

Question 77

Question
176. A feature of arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia is:
Answer
  • a. This is X-chromosome linked hereditary disease
  • b. characterized by the marked right ventricular hypertrophy
  • c. Patients often die from sudden cardiac death
  • d. the investigation of choice to demonstrate the coronary
  • e. the most common arrhythmia is atrial fibrillation (fibrillation)

Question 78

Question
177. What is Brugada syndrome?
Answer
  • a. a genetic disease that is more common in men at high risk for sudden cardiac death
  • b. a genetic disease which affects the calcium channels and results in a lower contraction of the heart muscle
  • c. the occurrence of atrial fibrillation in structurally normal hearts
  • d. changed conduction of electrical impulses between the cardiomyocytes, as demonstrated by the widespread QRS complex
  • e. None of the above

Question 79

Question
178. What do we most often find in a patient, which we have taken such an ECG?
Answer
  • a) dispassionately talks, he tells us that his heart "jumping"
  • b) is unconscious, agonal breathing
  • c) it has a pain in the lower abdomen
  • d) the auscultation figure irregular and varying loud first heart tone
  • e) The heart tones are absent, there is a cardiac arrest

Question 80

Question
179. How do we approach the treatment of patients with atrial fibrillation at the Department of Internal first aid?
Answer
  • a) immediately defibrillation and perform external cardiac massage to recovery of spontaneous circulation
  • b) obtain accurate history of the duration and frequency of attacks
  • c) in a patient with the first attack, which lasts less than 48 hours, do a conversion of heart rhythm
  • d) after successful cardioversion attack, which lasted less than 48 hours, introduce a beta blocker
  • e) if the patient is hemodynamically compromised, do not need treatment

Question 81

Question
180. How does the patient immediately after his capture such an ECG?
Answer
  • a) dispassionately talks, he tells us that his heart "jumping"
  • b) is unconscious, agonal breathing (ventricular fibrillation)
  • c) it has a pain in the lower abdomen
  • d) the auscultation figure irregular and varying loud first heart tone
  • e) The heart tones are absent, there is a cardiac arrest

Question 82

Question
181. How to proceed in a patient with ventricular fibrillation?
Answer
  • a) immediately defibrillation and perform external cardiac massage to recovery of spontaneous circulation
  • b) terminate ventricular fibrillation with amiodarone injection with external cardiac massage
  • c) after successful defibrillation record the ECG, in which we are looking for signs of acute coronary syndrome
  • d) if the patient is hemodynamically compromised, do not need treatment
  • e) in a patient who survived ventricular fibrillation, which was not due to acute coronary syndrome, it has to be implantable defibrillator cardioverter

Question 83

Question
182. Is such a patient ECG life threatened?
Answer
  • a) never
  • b) it has, however, only if it has at the same time a structural heart disease
  • c) when the otherwise normal blood pressure is not
  • d) if taking no chest pain, no
  • e) in the majority of cases

Question 84

Question
183. What is the typical history of a patient with AV-block III. Instance:
Answer
  • a) sue just because of intermittent attacks of rapid, irregular heart beat
  • b) the stun
  • c) the occasional loss of consciousness
  • d) the unusually tired
  • e) have dyspnea on exertion

Question 85

Question
184. What are the possible measures of treating a patient with AV-block III. rates in the infirmary again before you lose consciousness?
Answer
  • a) an infusion of norepinephrine
  • b) transcutaneous stimulation of the heart
  • c) the stimulation of the heart transvenously
  • d) amiodarone
  • e) with beta-blockers

Question 86

Question
185. What congenital heart defects are among cyanotic defects with normal or decreased pulmonary flow?
Answer
  • A. Ebstein anomaly with right-to-left shunt through an open foramen ovale
  • B. tetralogy of Fallot
  • C. sinus venosus type ASD with left-right shunt
  • F. Open ductus line with left-right shunt
  • D. coarctation of the aorta

Question 87

Question
186. After surgery, coarctation of the aorta in childhood, adults then:
Answer
  • A. Completely healthy
  • B. often have residual hypertension
  • C. They are cyanotic
  • F. For them it is more common congenital aortic valve Double blade
  • D. dying from heart failure

Question 88

Question
187. The atrial septum defect type II:
Answer
  • A. Extremely rarely detected in adulthood
  • B. It is most commonly found congenital heart defect in adulthood
  • C. Do you often entangled with Eisenmenger’s syndrome
  • F. There is no need to be treated if it is detected only in adulthood, because it shows its clinical irrelevance
  • D. in adulthood often reveal only the concurrent systemic arterial hypertension

Question 89

Question
188. For tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by:
Answer
  • A. Pulmonary arterial hypertension
  • B. The defect interventricular septum
  • C. Cyanosis
  • F. pulmonary stenosis
  • D. Hypertrophy of left ventricle and overriding aorta

Question 90

Question
189 patients with congenital heart defect, compared with healthy more often:
Answer
  • a. anemia
  • b. blood clotting disorders
  • c. proteinuria
  • d. Heart rhythm disorders
  • e. Thrombocytosis

Question 91

Question
190. What applies to atrial septal defect type II:
Answer
  • a. the defect in the area fose ovalis interatrial septum
  • b. Santa's rule, right-left
  • c. Eisenmenger syndrome is a rare
  • d. ECG is often left bundle branch block
  • e. treatment is required

Question 92

Question
191. What is true for patients with ventricular septal defect:
Answer
  • a. A small leak may be asymptomatic
  • b. wherein the noise holodiastoličen left parasternalno
  • c. to demonstrate the urgent transesophageal echocardiography
  • d. treatment is indicated, in the case of Eisenmenger's symptoms
  • e. and operated in the leak was in the non-sterile procedures indicated antibiotic protection

Question 93

Question
192. coarctation of the aorta is the most common in:
Answer
  • a. bulbusu aorta
  • b. the ascending part of the aorta, just before the turnoff brahiocefalične art.
  • c. aortic arch
  • d. discendent part of the aorta, just at output of left. subclavian
  • e. the junction of the renal arteries

Question 94

Question
193. What fault is not part Fallot tetralogy:
Answer
  • a. pulmonary stenosis
  • b. right ventricular hypertrophy
  • c. defect in the atrial septum
  • d. defect in the ventricular septum
  • e. cavalier aorta

Question 95

Question
194. The clinic has heard 46-year-old patient WHO had sued the eyesight at moderate exertion, mild swelling of the lower leg and occasional irregular heart flashing and the last 6 months. For several years a moderate Increase and blood pressure. Work in factory dyes. And the physical condition we ugovili CVT about 15 cm of water, RR 165/95, saturation Hb 0,92 without stagnation of shots of the lungs, basal expiratory few Bleeps, rhythmic heart action, 90 / min, a fixed and a sliced 2 tone, quiet sitolični ejection murmur at the top left of the sternum by expanding Under the left collarbone. The liver was not Enlarged, pretibialni mild edema. Accompanied by a recording of the patient's ECG and chest radiography Authorities A. The patient is probably a:
Answer
  • B. hypertonic heart with paroxysms of atrial Fibrillation
  • C. Cor pulmonale
  • D. pulmonary valve stenosis
  • E. atrial septum defect

Question 96

Question
195. Circle the correct combination of answers that apply to aortic stenosis:
Answer
  • a. the most common cause of aortic stenosis is rheumatic fever over it in the past
  • b. patients with severe aortic stenosis occurs with exertion of angina pectoris
  • c. Electrocardiogram are often symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy
  • d. systolic volume noise in perfect correlation with the degree of stenosis
  • e. Patients with aortic stenosis may have syncope

Question 97

Question
196. What applies to artificial heart valves:
Answer
  • a. mechanical valves have better hemodynamic characteristics of biological
  • b. patients with artificial mechanical heart valve must be one year after surgery to receive anticoagulation protection
  • c. the biologic valve is essential for life antiplatelet therapy
  • d. for Biological valves are deciding in young patients
  • e. artificial aortic valve can be inserted percutaneously, without surgery

Question 98

Question
197. Typical signs and symptoms of degenerative aortic valve stenosis are:
Answer
  • A. Heavy breath with exertion
  • B. Syncope with exertion
  • C. In particular, a right-sided heart failure
  • F. Exertional angina
  • D. Sistolodiastolični noise over Erbovo point

Question 99

Question
198. The degree of aortic valve stenosis most reliable estimate with respect to:
Answer
  • A. The volume of noise
  • B. Changes in ECG
  • C. Hitrst blood flow through the aortic valve
  • D. The surface area of the aortic orifice
  • E. Size cardiac shadow on chest X-ray

Question 100

Question
199. prognostic worst symptom in symptomatic aortic valve stenosis is:
Answer
  • A. Angina pectoris in the Effort
  • B. Syncope with exertion
  • C. Heavy breath with exertion (heart failure)
  • D. Palpitations
  • E. Headaches

Question 101

Question
200. In asymptomatic patients with severe aortic stenosis decide to change the valve in the following cases:
Answer
  • A. If at the same time decide to bypass
  • B. If it falls left ventricular ejection fraction less than 50%
  • C. Always, with no concomitant diseases
  • D. If symptoms occur when stress test
  • E. If the patient is younger than 50 years
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