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Volume 2 URE
Breck Waggoner
Quiz by Breck Waggoner, updated more than 1 year ago
Breck Waggoner
Created by Breck Waggoner over 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What structural areas allow maintenance to inspect or service aircraft components?
Answer
  • Nacelles
  • Windows
  • Doors
  • Plates and Skins

Question 2

Question
Which major structural area provides support for the engines?
Answer
  • Nacelles
  • Wings
  • Stabilizers
  • Fuselage

Question 3

Question
Which is not a major aircraft structural area?
Answer
  • Windows
  • Stabilizers
  • Wing Carry-Through
  • Fuselage

Question 4

Question
Which component guards against accidental firing of ejection seats?
Answer
  • Safety Pins
  • Stabilizers
  • Red Streamers
  • initiators

Question 5

Question
How do independent positioning determine subsystem function?
Answer
  • By recording radar data
  • By calculating aircraft velocity
  • Independent of inertial navigation
  • Independent of ground epuipment

Question 6

Question
which is not an avionics system?
Answer
  • built in test system
  • control and displays
  • central computing complex
  • navigation and weapon delivery

Question 7

Question
which is not part of an engine indicating system
Answer
  • oil quanity
  • water temperature
  • engine vibration
  • fuel flow

Question 8

Question
what is normally considered a minimum safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?
Answer
  • 25 feet to the front and sides
  • 50 feet to the front and sides
  • 50 feet to the front and 25 feet to the sides
  • 25 feet to the front and 10 feet to the sides

Question 9

Question
When approaching overheated aircraft wheels, always approach the wheel
Answer
  • from the side of the wheel
  • only after the blowout screen is installed
  • from the front of or behind the wheel
  • at a 45 degree angle to the wheel

Question 10

Question
initially what happens when RF energy is absorbed in the tissue of your body
Answer
  • heat is produced
  • nothing
  • your internal organs start to deteriorate
  • your heart beats irregulary

Question 11

Question
what is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
Answer
  • 1 foot
  • 3 feet
  • 5 feet
  • 10 feet

Question 12

Question
the minimum safe distance from an HF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power is
Answer
  • 1 foot
  • 3 feet
  • 5 feet
  • 10 feet

Question 13

Question
which condition is usually not caused by an over exposure to noise?
Answer
  • hearing problems
  • fatigue
  • excessive energy
  • speech problems

Question 14

Question
the greatest noise levels around an operating jet aircraft engine is to rear of the engine through an angle of
Answer
  • 45 degrees on either side
  • 90 degrees on either side
  • 60 degrees on either side
  • 45 degrees on either side

Question 15

Question
which physical symptom is least likely to indicate a person is suffering from over exposure to noise?
Answer
  • unconsciousness
  • dizziness
  • vomiting
  • nausea

Question 16

Question
which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise
Answer
  • frequent nausea
  • permanent hearing loss
  • temporary weight gain
  • small overdoses have little to no effect

Question 17

Question
which is not an Air Force inspection concept
Answer
  • preflight
  • phased
  • isochronical
  • periodic

Question 18

Question
which units fall under the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept
Answer
  • All units regardless of majcom
  • ACC unit
  • AMC units
  • AFSOC units

Question 19

Question
which inspection is designed to detect defects that might have developed during ground operations of the aircraft
Answer
  • preflight
  • phase
  • end of runway
  • basic post flight

Question 20

Question
when is the thruflight inspection perfromed
Answer
  • after the last flight of each day
  • before the aircraft goes on alert
  • prior to takeoffs at intermediate stops
  • after a specific number of flying hours has elapsed

Question 21

Question
which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspections
Answer
  • minor
  • major
  • phase
  • periodic

Question 22

Question
when the HSC inspection becomes due during a long-range mission, it is completed at the base
Answer
  • to which the aircraft belongs
  • where the first intermediate stop is made
  • from which the mission is being performed
  • nearest the aircraft when the inspection becomes due

Question 23

Question
which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing
Answer
  • special inspection
  • acceptance inspection
  • operator inspection
  • periodic inspection and scheduled lubrication

Question 24

Question
malfunctions documented on an AFTO form 244 are the responsibility of
Answer
  • aerospace ground equipment mechanics
  • avionics backshop personnel
  • flight line technicions
  • propulsion mechanics

Question 25

Question
Part V of the AFTO form 244 is used to document
Answer
  • maintenance/delayed discrepancies
  • non-scheduled inspections
  • item identifications
  • scheduled inspections

Question 26

Question
the AFTO form 781 series would not be used to document aircraft
Answer
  • flight records
  • configurations
  • component repair
  • inspections

Question 27

Question
except for battle damage, each discrepancy discovered is documented on AFTO form 781
Answer
  • B
  • K
  • L
  • A

Question 28

Question
at what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO form 781A
Answer
  • when you enter them in error
  • when you find them to be incorrect
  • when you must correct a discrepancy
  • never, even if you entered them in error

Question 29

Question
who ensures the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO form 781 A
Answer
  • technicion
  • supervisor
  • crewchief
  • aircraft crew member

Question 30

Question
which information is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO form 781 A
Answer
  • description of the corrective action
  • TO reference
  • technicians signiture
  • supervisors signiture

Question 31

Question
who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all comsec required entries
Answer
  • crewchief
  • pro super
  • Comm/nav technician
  • aircrew

Question 32

Question
which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information
Answer
  • 781A
  • 781B
  • 781H
  • 781J

Question 33

Question
which AFTO form is used to document aerospace vehicle time and engine data including operating time
Answer
  • 781A
  • 781J
  • 781K
  • 781L

Question 34

Question
Which AFTO form allows you to record essential inspection and delayed maintenance data
Answer
  • 781A
  • 781B
  • 781K
  • 781L

Question 35

Question
Block C of the AFTO form 781K is used to document
Answer
  • inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period
  • all immediate and urgent action TCTOs upon compliance
  • the status of depot maintenance
  • higher authority inspection

Question 36

Question
to "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury of ignored, use
Answer
  • AFTO form 244
  • AFTO form 781K
  • AF form 1492
  • AF form 979

Question 37

Question
What portion of the tag is used to provide a "cross-check" with the aircraft forms and is inserted through the aircraft forms binder
Answer
  • the bottom portion
  • the top portion
  • neither
  • both

Question 38

Question
what helps to dissipate and lessen the effects of electronic discharge
Answer
  • Humid air
  • use of non conductive packaging material
  • use of proper insulating materials
  • dehumidified air

Question 39

Question
an example of an ESDS devise is a
Answer
  • diode
  • PROM
  • Transistor
  • MOSROM

Question 40

Question
what type of failure associated with ESD is the most difficult to detect
Answer
  • intermittent
  • erroneous signal
  • latent or delayed
  • total component

Question 41

Question
which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?
Answer
  • touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
  • touching the LRU case with your hand proir to removal from the aircraft
  • covering LRU connector plugs
  • using protective tote boxes

Question 42

Question
when working on ESDS devices in the shop area, you must use
Answer
  • ungrounded floor mats
  • a grounded work bench
  • nonconductive antistatic mats
  • a grounded LRU

Question 43

Question
what type of ground do you need to provide for soldering irons in an ESD protected area
Answer
  • hard
  • shielded
  • floating
  • common

Question 44

Question
which action could pose a safety hazard to personnel in an ESD protected area
Answer
  • improper use of conductive bags
  • wearing of personal clothing
  • use of ionozers
  • improper use of conductive tote boxes

Question 45

Question
which type of cable carries RF power from one point to another with a known rate of loss
Answer
  • emp
  • coaxial
  • shielded
  • insulated

Question 46

Question
which is not a type of connector coupling
Answer
  • friction
  • bayonet
  • insertion
  • threaded

Question 47

Question
all of the following are rf connectors precautions except
Answer
  • never step on the cable
  • ensure a good grip when using pliers
  • ensure you solder double shielded cables together
  • ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable

Question 48

Question
twisting of the fiber optic cable during installation or maintenance results in
Answer
  • stretching of the glass fibers
  • greater elasticity of the glass fibers
  • reduced optical power transmission
  • good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing

Question 49

Question
what is not an advantage of fiber optic cables over wire cables?
Answer
  • cost
  • light weight
  • low attenuation
  • immunity to electromagnetic interference

Question 50

Question
optoelectric transducer detectors perform what functions in a fiber optic transmission
Answer
  • amplifies output circuit signals
  • converts electrical signal to light signals
  • converts optical energy to electrical energy
  • emit light when current is passed through them

Question 51

Question
utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
Answer
  • connectors will mate properly
  • solder will adhere properly
  • RF will not be impeded
  • proper connections

Question 52

Question
flux is designed to
Answer
  • keep connections clean
  • bond electrical connection
  • ensure electrical conductivity
  • proper connections

Question 53

Question
proper care of an electric soldiering iron involves
Answer
  • cooling the iron by dipping it in water
  • jerking the iron to remove excess solder
  • tapping an iron on a table to remove excess solder
  • keeping iron in a proper holder when you are not using it

Question 54

Question
which is not a type of solderless connector
Answer
  • splice
  • terminal lugs
  • connector splice
  • connector plug pins

Question 55

Question
what type of solderless connector permits easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment
Answer
  • splice
  • terminal lugs
  • connector splice
  • connector plug pins

Question 56

Question
one purpose of crimper positioner is to
Answer
  • align crimper handles to pin contact
  • put pin contacts in the proper position
  • put the turret head in line with pin contact
  • adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins

Question 57

Question
the colored end of an insertion and extraction is used for contact
Answer
  • insertion into a rear release connector plug
  • extraction from a rear release connector plug
  • insertion into a front release connector plug
  • extraction from a front release connector plug

Question 58

Question
one way of pressure and moisture sealing the back of a connector is to use
Answer
  • silicone tape
  • silicone caulking
  • heat shrinkable tape
  • electrical wrapping tape

Question 59

Question
the MIL-STD that governs heat tool operation in a potentially explosive environment is
Answer
  • 810
  • 811
  • 812
  • 813

Question 60

Question
the heat and air pressure required for proper installation of heat shrink products is controlled by the
Answer
  • tool operater
  • air/nitrogen regualtor
  • temperature controller
  • tubular heating elements

Question 61

Question
as a flight line technician, you can repair up to
Answer
  • 20% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
  • 20% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
  • 25% of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
  • 25% of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

Question 62

Question
Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO
Answer
  • 1-1A-14
  • 1-1A-15
  • 1-1A-16
  • 1-1A-18

Question 63

Question
what precaution must you adhere to prior to heat shrink to a wire repair job
Answer
  • ensure proper lighting
  • inventory required tools
  • read all procedures in TO 1-!A -14
  • warnings concerning use of heat tools on aircraft

Question 64

Question
what is the purpose of prewaxing cotton or linen tape when used for wire bundling
Answer
  • prevents sliping
  • lessens tendencies to cut wire insulation
  • promotes moisture and fungus resistance
  • fulfills temperature requirements for tying materials

Question 65

Question
which of the following is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles
Answer
  • lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping
  • tie all wire groups or bundles 12in or less apart
  • do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundles that is located inside a conduit
  • when tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to avoid playing (spreading) of contacts

Question 66

Question
the circuit used in an AM trasmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designated frequency required for carrier wave operation is
Answer
  • a buffer amplifier
  • an audio amplifier
  • a power amplifier
  • a frequency multiplier

Question 67

Question
to achieve AM, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signals
Answer
  • linear amplifier
  • power amplifier
  • balanced amplifier
  • non-liner amplifier

Question 68

Question
the frequencies created by the heterodyning process in an AM transmitter modulator are the
Answer
  • different and original
  • sum and difference
  • sum and original
  • two originals

Question 69

Question
which is not a basic characteristic that can vary in a modulating wave or signal?
Answer
  • frequency
  • amplitude
  • phase
  • rate

Question 70

Question
in an FM signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's
Answer
  • frequency
  • amplitude
  • phase
  • rate

Question 71

Question
in an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the
Answer
  • reactance modulator
  • power amplifier circuit
  • frequency multiplier circuit
  • frequency discriminator

Question 72

Question
in an FM transmitter, which circuit detects the output frequency changes and produce an automatic frequency control correction voltage?
Answer
  • filter
  • converter
  • modulator
  • discriminator

Question 73

Question
the low pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a FM transmitter prevents
Answer
  • the lower sideband from being transmitted
  • correction voltage changes caused by the modulation signals
  • carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator
  • the audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the reactance modulator

Question 74

Question
which is not an advantage of single sideband over double sideband
Answer
  • power frequency
  • frequency stability
  • signal to noise ratio
  • spectrum conservation

Question 75

Question
in a single sideband transmitter, frequency stability is controlled by
Answer
  • the original carrier frequency
  • reinserted carrier frequencies
  • precision frequency standards
  • carefully controlled oscillators

Question 76

Question
in a single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator's output consists of
Answer
  • the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband
  • the upper and lower sidebands
  • the lower sideband only
  • upper sideband only

Question 77

Question
the single sideband transmitter circuit that increases the power output without introducing distortion is the
Answer
  • balanced amplifier
  • power synthesizer
  • balanced modulator
  • liner power amplifier

Question 78

Question
the ability of a radio receiver to select a particular station frequency from all other station frequencies that appear at the receiver antenna is called
Answer
  • sensitivity
  • reception
  • detection
  • selection

Question 79

Question
In a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control is called
Answer
  • slug tuning
  • ganged parallel
  • parallel tuning
  • staggered tuning

Question 80

Question
in a typical AM superheterodyne receiver, the heterodyning process produces four frequencies; they are the two basic input frequencies, there sum, and their difference frequency is known as the
Answer
  • sum frequency
  • original frequency
  • sideband frequency
  • intermediate frequency

Question 81

Question
the purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to
Answer
  • add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal
  • remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal
  • remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal
  • rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section

Question 82

Question
FM modulation signals provide much more realistic sound reproduction than AM signals because
Answer
  • FM uses a lower frequency range
  • amplitude modulation of the carrier increases
  • of an increase in the number of sidebands
  • of a decrease in the number of sidebands

Question 83

Question
the two advantages of using a single-sideband receiver over an AM receiver are the ability to place
Answer
  • more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver band pass
  • more signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver band pass
  • fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a narrower receiver bandpass
  • fewer signals in a small portion of the frequency spectrum and a wider receiver bandpass

Question 84

Question
the basic difference between the single sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is that the single-sideband receiver uses a
Answer
  • carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuits
  • special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator
  • discriminator and local oscillator circuit
  • limiter and special mixer circuit

Question 85

Question
a major drawback in using a single sideband recierver over an amplitude modulated receiver is the
Answer
  • need for critical frequency stability
  • single-sideband receiver has a narrow bandpass
  • amplitude modulated receiver requires only one oscillator circuit
  • weak signals are easy to detect in the amplitude modulated receiver

Question 86

Question
a receiver radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by
Answer
  • accepting and amplifying the minute current
  • removing the radion frequency carrier wave
  • converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force
  • electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

Question 87

Question
the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity of a given directional radio antenna to the radiation intensity of a non directional radio antenna using the same power input is known as antenna
Answer
  • gain
  • arrays
  • efficiency
  • reciprocity

Question 88

Question
the radio frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the
Answer
  • shielded pair
  • air coaxail line
  • parallel two wire
  • flexible coaxial line

Question 89

Question
when the impedance of a radio frequency transmission line and load do not match, the reflected wave and the applied wave are on the line at the same time are creating a
Answer
  • traveling wave
  • standing wave
  • reflected wave
  • resultant wave

Question 90

Question
what type of radio frequency transmission line losses result from the skin effect?
Answer
  • copper losses
  • dielectric losses
  • radiation losses
  • induction losses
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