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Clinical Pathology (301-400) MCQs- Year 4 PMU

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Masters Pathoanatomy Quiz on Clinical Pathology (301-400) MCQs- Year 4 PMU, created by Med Student on 15/01/2019.
Med Student
Quiz by Med Student , updated more than 1 year ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Parenchymal jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings
Answer
  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine
  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stocks, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine
  • none of the above

Question 2

Question
What is the common between fibrosis, sclerosis and cirrhosis?
Answer
  • the common is the increased development of connective tissue in the organ
  • the common is the lipid accumulation in the interstitium of the organ
  • the common is the fibrinoid degeneration of the organ
  • they are different processes and don’t have anything common between them

Question 3

Question
What is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the pancreatic arteroles?
Answer
  • it can cause diabetes mellitus
  • it can cause pancreatic cancer
  • it can cause acute pancreatitis
  • hyalinosis in the pancreas is a physiological process related with ageing

Question 4

Question
Which stain is used to prove rheumatism in acute stage in a heart valve?
Answer
  • Prussian Blue
  • Toluidin-Blue
  • Congo-Red
  • Perls

Question 5

Question
Mucoid swelling can be seen in
Answer
  • Heart valves in rheumatism
  • Basedow’s dermopathy
  • Myxedema
  • All of the listed above

Question 6

Question
The necrosis which develops at the base of an acute or chronic active ulcer in the stomach or duodenum is
Answer
  • coagulative
  • caseous
  • fibrinoid
  • liquefactive

Question 7

Question
Indicate the correct statement(s) for nephrosclerosis arteriolosclerotica
Answer
  • it affects microscopically the afferent and efferent arterioles
  • it is a result of prolonged benign hypertention
  • it is a reversible process
  • the process is hyalinosis

Question 8

Question
What are the microscopic changes seen in the brain in benign long-term hypertension?
Answer
  • hyalinosis of the vessels’ walls
  • edema around vessels
  • accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the soft brain membranes
  • developments of specific granulomas in the brain tissue

Question 9

Question
The gross description: thick, hard, glassy whitish depositions, non-digestable by enzymes, is indicative for
Answer
  • steatonecrosis
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • hyalinosis
  • fibrinoid deposition

Question 10

Question
The following diseases are examples of amyloid depositions. Find the mistake!
Answer
  • Rheumatoid arthritis - AA amyloid
  • Multiple myeloma - AL amyloid
  • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland - AA amyloid
  • Alzheimer’s disease - A4 amyloid

Question 11

Question
‘Sago spleen and lardaceous spleen’ are
Answer
  • gross appearance of the localized (sago-spleen)and generalized (lardaceous spleen) amyloidosis of the spleen
  • sago spleen is amyloidosis of the spleen, while lardaceous spleen is hyalinosis of the spleen
  • gross appearance of the spleen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma depending on the severity of the process
  • in lardaceous spleen the amyloid is deposited in the white pulp only, while in sago spleen both white and red pulp have amyloid deposition

Question 12

Question
Systemic amyloidosis is proven by a biopsy from?
Answer
  • gingiva
  • heart
  • fat tissue from abdominal wall
  • ileum

Question 13

Question
What type of calcification develops in the complicated atherosclerotic plaques?
Answer
  • metastatic
  • dystrophic
  • metabolic
  • physiological

Question 14

Question
Which are the causes for hypocalcaemia?
Answer
  • hypoparathyroidism
  • hyperparathyroidism
  • intoxication with vit. D
  • senile osteoporosis

Question 15

Question
What kind of gout can develop in a patient with leucemia?
Answer
  • gout caused by excessive consumption of meat and meat products
  • genetic gout caused by error in the metabolism of uric acid
  • renal injury because kidneys cannot excrete the excessive amount of uric acid
  • patients with leucosis never develop gout

Question 16

Question
Which of the following microscopic descriptions most likely suggest kidney amyloidosis? The stain is H-E in all the described specimens
Answer
  • highly enlarged glomeruli, the capillary tufts filled almost all of the capsular space, capillary lumens are obliterated; pink homogeous substance is deposited also in the mesangium, in the basement membranes of the tubules and in the walls of the blood vessels
  • afferent and efferent arterioles have homogenously thick walls stained in pink, some of the glomeruli look smaller, with totally effaced structure and homogenously pink in color, while others may look normal in size, or even with compensatory hypertrophy
  • the interstitium shows chronic inflammatory reaction, the main change is seen in the kidney tubules which look dilated and filled with pinkish substance (these tubules look like thyroid follicles)
  • many glomeruli show crescent proliferations, encompassing 2/3 f the Bowman's space; the process ends with global sclerosis of the gomerulus

Question 17

Question
Which of the following stain(s) is used to prove amyloidosis?
Answer
  • Perls
  • Congo-Red
  • Van Gieson
  • Methyl violet

Question 18

Question
Mark the correct statement(s) for kidney alymoidosis
Answer
  • small, shrunken kidneys with granular surface and difficult decapsulation
  • enlarged pale kidneys with waxy texture
  • amyloidosis affects only one of the kidneys and doesn’t lead to chronic renal failure
  • kidney amyloidosis is reversible after the treatment of the primary disease and has very good prognosis

Question 19

Question
Granulomatous structures, consisting of uric acid crystals, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts and giant multinucleated cells type “foreign body” are characteristic for which disease?
Answer
  • tuberculosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • gout
  • brucellosis

Question 20

Question
Calcification of the aorta characterizes with
Answer
  • hard, rigid wall of the aorta
  • soft, elastic wall of the aorta
  • can be complicated with mural thrombosis and aneurysm
  • is a result of metabolic calcification

Question 21

Question
Renal complications of gout include
Answer
  • Uric crystals nephrolithiasis
  • Uric-acid infarction
  • Urate nephropathy
  • All of the listed above

Question 22

Question
What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?
Answer
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • caseous necrosis
  • steatonecrosis

Question 23

Question
Which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain?
Answer
  • ramolicio cerebri
  • encephalomalacia
  • infarctus anemicus cerebri
  • hydrocephalus

Question 24

Question
What type of necrosis develops in the pancreas?
Answer
  • steatonecrosis/fat necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • caseous necrosis

Question 25

Question
What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?
Answer
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • caseous necrosis
  • steatonecrosis

Question 26

Question
Indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia
Answer
  • it is a process of disordered cellular development
  • it can develop in soft tissues
  • it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin
  • it is an adaptive process

Question 27

Question
Corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in?
Answer
  • the glands of uterine mucosa
  • the glands of prostate
  • the kidney’s convoluted tubules
  • the follicles of thyroid gland

Question 28

Question
How does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly?
Answer
  • enlarged in size
  • smaller in size
  • papillary muscles are hypertrophic
  • increased heart weight

Question 29

Question
Hyperplasia of the endometrium can be
Answer
  • direct and indirect
  • typical and atypical
  • with formation of cysts or with formation of pseudo-cysts
  • diffuse and localized

Question 30

Question
What are the complications of prostate hyperplasia?
Answer
  • urinary retention, frequent urinary tract infections
  • sexual dysfunction
  • transitional cell carcinoma
  • hydronephrosis

Question 31

Question
Which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelium?
Answer
  • squamous carcinoma of the bronchus
  • chronic bronchitis
  • small-cell carcinoma
  • adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

Question 32

Question
Epistaxis and melena are examples for
Answer
  • edema
  • exudate
  • haemorrhages
  • venous congestion

Question 33

Question
What is hemascos?
Answer
  • blood in the urine
  • blood in the peritoneal cavity
  • blood in the excrement
  • blood vomiting

Question 34

Question
What is hematemesis?
Answer
  • blood vomiting
  • blood in the excrements
  • nose bleeding
  • bleeding from the lungs

Question 35

Question
What is hemoptoe
Answer
  • bleeding from the nose
  • bleeding from the lungs
  • blood vomiting
  • blood in the pleural cavity

Question 36

Question
Which of the following liver changes is reversible?
Answer
  • liver cirrhosis
  • liver cyanosis
  • nutmeg liver
  • liver amyloidosis

Question 37

Question
Pin-point hemorrhages in the brain have usually the following pathogenesis
Answer
  • per diapedesin
  • per rhexin
  • per diabrosin
  • all of the above

Question 38

Question
Can thrombosis develop after death?
Answer
  • yes, this is why we can see blood clots in the vessels after death
  • no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime
  • it can develop both during life and after death
  • it develops in the agony preceding death

Question 39

Question
What is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot?
Answer
  • dry, crumbly, layered structure
  • moist, homogenous structure
  • attached to the vessel’s wall
  • unattached to the vessel’s wall

Question 40

Question
Indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus
Answer
  • gas, air, amniotic
  • thromboembolism, fat embolism
  • arterial, venous
  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxal

Question 41

Question
Indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow
Answer
  • gas, air, thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, parasite
  • orthograde, retrograde
  • arterial, venous
  • paradoxical

Question 42

Question
Indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel
Answer
  • thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, gas, air embolism
  • arterial
  • venous
  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical

Question 43

Question
Is it possible to prevent embolism?
Answer
  • no, it is something we cannot control or prevent
  • yes, by using anticoagulants
  • yes, by exercise in bed ridden patient and early getting up from bed after operation
  • yes, by staying in bed without moving after operation

Question 44

Question
In which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop?
Answer
  • in organs with nutritive and functional blood circulation
  • in organs with nutritive circulation only
  • in organs with many anastomoses
  • hemorrhagic infarction can develop in any organ

Question 45

Question
Indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible
Answer
  • liver
  • heart
  • lung
  • intestine

Question 46

Question
How can we prove amniotic embolism?
Answer
  • microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the left heart ventricle
  • grossly, by finding amniotic fluid in the right heart ventricle
  • microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs
  • grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs

Question 47

Question
Why does gas embolism develop?
Answer
  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially azotic oxide, caused by fast decompression
  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially type caused by fast compression
  • because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry
  • because the positive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

Question 48

Question
What is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction the lung?
Answer
  • double circulation of the lung
  • thrombosis of a branch of a. broncialis
  • thrombosis of a branch of a. pulmonalis
  • chronic venous stagnation

Question 49

Question
What is the most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain?
Answer
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri posterior
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris

Question 50

Question
What is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain?
Answer
  • fresh liquefactive necrosis
  • brain cyst
  • brain pseudocyst
  • irregular red-coloured area

Question 51

Question
Indicate the correct statements
Answer
  • gangrene of the appendix and gangrenous appendicitis are synonyms of one same disease
  • severe inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis leads to necrosis, while in gangrene of the appendix the necrosis is ischemic
  • gangrene of the appendix means necrosis of the appendix while gangrenous appendicitis means severe purulent inflammation of the appendix without necrosis
  • inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis is a primary process, while in gangrene the inflammation is secondary after the necrosis

Question 52

Question
The gross appearance “Ribbon-like fibrin deposits on the pericardium” describes
Answer
  • chronic pericarditis
  • fibrinous myocarditis
  • fibrinous pericarditis
  • acute pericarditis

Question 53

Question
Which are the cells that infiltrate the whole thickness of the appendix in phlegmonous appendicitis?
Answer
  • lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • basophils
  • neutrophils
  • giant multinucleated cells

Question 54

Question
What is typical for purulent lepto-meningitis?
Answer
  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by lymphocytes
  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by neutrophils
  • yellow-green exudate seen usually on the convex side of the brain
  • clear cerebro-spinal fluid

Question 55

Question
Hydatid cysts affect most commonly
Answer
  • the brain
  • the heart
  • the spleen
  • the liver

Question 56

Question
Which is the second most commonly affected organ by hydatid cysts?
Answer
  • brain
  • liver
  • lung
  • kidney

Question 57

Question
The following description indicates: Focal aggregates in the form of nodules of cells with phagocytic ability. The diameter of these nodules is no more than 1-2mm, in many cases they are seen only microscopically
Answer
  • granulomas
  • metastases
  • polyps
  • granulation tissue

Question 58

Question
What type of necrosis develops in the tuberculous granuloma?
Answer
  • caseous necrosis
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • fibrinoid necrosis

Question 59

Question
Which of the following cells are seen in tuberculomas?
Answer
  • Giant cells type Langhans
  • Epitheloid cells
  • Tuton giant cells
  • Lymphocytes

Question 60

Question
The giant cells type Langhans are derived from
Answer
  • macrophages
  • epitheloid cells
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes

Question 61

Question
Which giant cells have specific peripheral arrangement of the nuclei like horse-shoe?
Answer
  • Tuton giant cells
  • Foreign body giant cells
  • Langhans giant cells
  • None of the above

Question 62

Question
In which stage of syphilis do the specific luetic granulomas develop?
Answer
  • first
  • second
  • third
  • they develop in all stages

Question 63

Question
What type of necrosis develops in luetic granulomas?
Answer
  • clay-like
  • caseus
  • liquefactive
  • coagulative

Question 64

Question
What type of necrosis develops in the cat-scratch disease?
Answer
  • caseous
  • coagulative
  • liquefactive
  • gummous

Question 65

Question
Mark the correct answer(s) about actinomycosis
Answer
  • has three stages of development
  • has cervical, abdominal and thoracic forms
  • grossly, granular substance might be seen in the pus
  • grossly, rubbery lesions with central necrosis are seen in the affected organs

Question 66

Question
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Lack of necrosis, abundance of epitheloid cell, Langhans cells, collagen fibres, Shaumann bodies
Answer
  • tuberculosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • rheumatism
  • syphilis

Question 67

Question
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a grauloma: Gummous necrosis, surrounded by epitheloid cells, single Langhans cells, abundance of plasma cells, less lymphocytes, fibroblasts
Answer
  • tuberculosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • rheumatism
  • syphilis

Question 68

Question
The sulfur granule is characteristic for
Answer
  • tuberculosis
  • felinosis
  • actinomycosis
  • leprosy

Question 69

Question
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Fibrinoid necrosis, surrouned by abundant lymphocytes, plasma cells, many cells of Anichkov and pathognomonic cells of Aschoff
Answer
  • tuberculosis
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • syphilis
  • rheumatism

Question 70

Question
What histological changes could be seen in thyroid in Hashimoto thyroiditis
Answer
  • unchanged
  • infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • fibrosis
  • formation of lymph follicles

Question 71

Question
The histological changes in Hashimoto thyroiditis affect
Answer
  • entire thyroid gland
  • markedly focal

Question 72

Question
The thyroid follicles in Hashimoto thyroiditis are
Answer
  • unchanged
  • dilated
  • polymorphous
  • smaller

Question 73

Question
What is hyper-granulation?
Answer
  • mature connective tissue
  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix/scar
  • greater amount of granulation tissue
  • none of the above

Question 74

Question
What Is a scar?
Answer
  • hypertrophic granulation tissue
  • mature connective tissue
  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix
  • none of the above

Question 75

Question
What is a keloid?
Answer
  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix
  • mature connective tissue
  • greater amount of granulation tissue
  • none of the above

Question 76

Question
Which stain can be used to prove of scarring (cicatrix) of the heart?
Answer
  • Van Gieson
  • Perls
  • Congo Red
  • PAS

Question 77

Question
Which of the following could not be seen in rheumatoid nodules?
Answer
  • Fibrinoid necrosis
  • Epitheloid cells
  • Langhans cells
  • Lymphocytes

Question 78

Question
Indicate the correct statement(s) for the polyarteriitis nodosa
Answer
  • it is an autoimmune disease
  • it affects mostly the elastic arteries
  • there is accumulation of glucosaminoglycans in the vessel walls which can be demonstrated with metachromasia with Toluidin Bleu
  • the branches of the pulmonary arteries are affected

Question 79

Question
Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Bronchial asthma

Question 80

Question
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Nodosal poyarteriitis

Question 81

Question
Immune complexes mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
  • polyartheriitis nodosa
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • hemolytic anemia
  • tuberculosis

Question 82

Question
Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
  • Tuberculosis
  • Polyarteriitis nodosa
  • Bronchial asthma
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

Question 83

Question
Which is the most common way of metastasizing of epithelial tumors?
Answer
  • by lymphatics (lymphogenic metastases)
  • with blood (hematogenic metastases)
  • by cerebrospinal fluid
  • none of the above

Question 84

Question
What is papilloma?
Answer
  • malignant tumor of the covering epithelium
  • benign tumor of glandular epithelium
  • benign tumor of cover type epithelium
  • benign soft tissue tumor

Question 85

Question
Indicate the correct characteristic(s) for papilloma
Answer
  • it has tree-like stroma covered by differentiated stratified squamous epithelium
  • it has tree-like stroma covered by undifferentiated squamous epithelium with signs of cell atypia
  • stroma and parenchyma are difficult to distinguish
  • it doesn’t have a capsule

Question 86

Question
What is the term used for malignant tumors of cover type epithelium?
Answer
  • adenocarcinoma
  • papilloma
  • carcinoma
  • sarcoma

Question 87

Question
What is the term used for malignant tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?
Answer
  • adenocarcinoma
  • adenoma
  • carcinoma
  • carcino-adenoma

Question 88

Question
What is the term used for benign tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?
Answer
  • papilloma
  • adenoma
  • teratoma
  • adenocarcinoma

Question 89

Question
Point the correct statement(s) about basal cell carcinoma
Answer
  • it develops only on the skin
  • it can develop at any place with squamous epithelium
  • it characterizes with early lymphogenic and hematogenic metastases
  • very often it recurs at the same place after surgery

Question 90

Question
Keratinized squamous cell carcinoma
Answer
  • develops only on the skin
  • can develop at any place with squamous epithelium
  • is highly undifferenciated malignant tumor
  • is a tumor composed of more differenciated cells with keratin production

Question 91

Question
What kind of structures are the cancer perls?
Answer
  • accumulation of keratin produced by more differentiated malignant cells originating from squamous epithelium
  • pink-coloured homogenous substance located in the centre of the tumor nests
  • accumulation of mucus produced by highly undifferentiated malignant cells located in the centre of the tumor nests
  • pink homogenous substance that accumulates in the stroma of the tumor

Question 92

Question
The gross appearance of which tumor is called “ulcus rodens”?
Answer
  • squamous cell carcinoma
  • melanoma
  • basal cell carcinoma
  • adenocarcinoma

Question 93

Question
Squamous cell carcinoma develops in the lung after
Answer
  • acute bronchitis
  • chronic bronchitis accompanied by metaplasia
  • bronchial asthma
  • inhalaton of a foreign body

Question 94

Question
Papillary carcinoma of the urinary bladder arises from
Answer
  • squamous epithelium
  • transitional epithelium
  • glandular epithelium
  • smooth musculature

Question 95

Question
What is carcinoma in situ?
Answer
  • malignant tumor limited to the epithelium above the basal membrane
  • malignant tumor destroying the basal membrane but spreading no more than 5mm below it
  • benign tumor limited to the basal membrane
  • benign tumor of a great size compressing the surrounding tissues

Question 96

Question
Which staining is used for proving mucus production from gelatinous adenocarcinoma?
Answer
  • Congo red
  • Toluidin bleu, metachromasia is demonstrated
  • PAS reaction with amylase control
  • Van Gieson

Question 97

Question
Pericanalicular and intracanalicular are types of
Answer
  • Ductal carcinoma of the breast
  • Paget’s disease
  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • Fibroadenoma

Question 98

Question
Kruckenberg tumors are
Answer
  • metastases from colon adenocarcinoma in the ovaries
  • metastases from pancreatic adenocarcinoma in the ovaries
  • metastases from gastric carcinoma in the ovaries
  • metastases from hepatocellular carcinoma in the ovaries

Question 99

Question
Pleomorphic adenoma could be seen mainly
Answer
  • in the parotid gland
  • in the minor salivary glands
  • in the stomach
  • in the thyroid gland

Question 100

Question
Indicate the correct statements about fibroadenoma of the breast
Answer
  • capsulated and lobulated tumor
  • non-capsulated malignant tumor with invasive growth
  • microscopically it has two types - intracanalicular and pericanalicular
  • seen in older women
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