Anti-epileptics Flashcard Supplement

Question 1 of 63

1

Which of the following are First Generation anti-epileptics?

Select one or more of the following:

Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Ethosuximide
Pregabalin
Phenobarbital
Levetiracetam
Valproic acid
Felbamate
Clonazepam

Explanation

Question 2 of 63

1

Which of the following are Second Generation anti-epileptics?

Select one or more of the following:

Topiramate
Oxcarbazepine
Phenytoin
Pregabalin
Ethosuximide
Valproic acid
Felbamate
Lamotrigine
Gabapentin
Levetiracetam

Explanation

Question 3 of 63

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

is chronic disorder characterized by recurring seizures.

Explanation

Question 4 of 63

1

Pharmacological treatment can control but not cure epilepsy.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 5 of 63

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Status epilepticus is a medical .

Explanation

Question 6 of 63

1

❌ – no evidence of localized onset
 ❌ – sudden onset, abrupt cessation; 10-45 sec duration; may occur >100 times per day; characterized by a spike and wave pattern on EEG; patient may simply stare (daydream) or show postural changes, autonomic phenomena, automatisms
 ❌ – tonic rigidity of all extremities, followed by relaxation, then by massive jerking of the body; patient is groggy/disoriented afterwards, urinary incontinence is common, 1-2 min duration
 ❌ – increased tone of all muscles
 ❌ – sudden loss of postural tone
 ❌ – muscles spasm and limbs jerk; contractions and relaxations repeat rapidly

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Generalized

Absence

Tonic-clonic

Tonic

Atonic

Myoclonic

Simple

Complex

Secondarily generalized

Focal

Explanation

Question 7 of 63

1

❌ – seizure initiates in a specific site
 ❌ – focal seizure precedes a generalized
tonic-clonic seizure
 ❌ – minimal spread within brain; often clonic jerking, no
diminished awareness, 20-60 sec duration
 ❌ – localized onset but discharge spreads; alteration of
consciousness (but not unconscious), automatisms (integrated
motor behavior, e.g. lip smacking, button picking)

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Focal (partial)

Secondarily generalized

Simple

Complex

Tonic-clonic

Absence

Tonic

Atonic

Clonic and myoclonic

Explanation

Question 8 of 63

1

Classify the following seizures:

 ❌:
“When it starts, she suddenly shrieks with this unnatural cry, then she falls, and every muscle in her body seems to be
activated. Her teeth clench. Shortly after she falls, her arms and upper body start to jerk while her legs are more or less still stiff. This is the longest part of the seizure. Then it finally stops and she passes into a deep sleep.”

 ❌
"He is a 7 year old boy. He often “blanks out” for a few seconds. His teacher calls his name, but he doesn’t seem to
hear her. He usually blinks a few times, and his eyes may roll up a bit. Then he is right back where he left off. Some days he has more than 50 of these spells.”

 ❌
"They start with a tingling in the right thumb. Then the thumb starts jerking. In a few seconds, the whole right hand is jerking. The jerking spreads up my arm. When it reaches the shoulder, I pass out and people tell me that my whole body starts to jerk.”

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Secondary Generalization Focal Seizure

Generalized Absence Seizure

Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure

Generalized Tonic Seizure

Generalized Atonic Seizure

Complex Focal Seizure

Simple Focal Seizure

Explanation

Question 9 of 63

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

What are the goals of therapy with anti-epileptics?
Improve by:
 Controlling
 Rarely are seizures eliminated; even occasional seizures are still a concern for patients
 Minimizing
 Usually lifelong treatment

Explanation

Question 10 of 63

1

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Inhibit voltage dependent Na+ channels

Select one or more of the following:

oxcarbazepine
phenytoin
valproate
topiramate
felbamate
gabapentin
carbamazepine
clonazepam
lamotrigine
ethosuximide

Explanation

Question 11 of 63

1

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Inhibit glutamate receptors

Select one or more of the following:

valproate
felbamate
phenobarbital
oxcarbazepine
pregabalin
topiramate

Explanation

Question 12 of 63

1

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Modulate glutamate release (putative)

Select one or more of the following:

levetiracetam
pregabalin
topiramate
ethosuximide
felbamate
gabapentin

Explanation

Question 13 of 63

1

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Increase inhibitory neurotransmission
 Enhance GABA-A activity (positive allosteric modulation)

Select one or more of the following:

ethosuximide
clonazepam
lamotrigine
phenobarbital
valproate
topiramate

Explanation

Question 14 of 63

1

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Inhibit T-type Ca2+ channels
 Depolarization of thalamic neurons activates cortical neurons

Select one or more of the following:

topiramate
carbamazepine
clonazepam
valproate
ethosuximide
phenytoin

Explanation

Question 15 of 63

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

In a normal neuron (A), excitation
and inhibition are ( balanced, unbalanced )

Neurons susceptible to seizure
activity show ( increased, decreased ) inhibition (B)
or ( increased, decreased ) excitation (C)

(D) ( Increasing, Decreasing ) GABA activity can
( increase, decrease ) seizure activity in both
situations

(D) Similarly, ( increasing, decreasing ) Glutamate activity
can also ( increase, decrease ) seizure activity

Explanation

Question 16 of 63

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Block voltage-activated calcium channels
− Neurons in thalamus are dependent on calcium channel
currents for depolarization
− Blocking these channels slows the
− Depolarization of neurons activates neurons

Explanation

Question 17 of 63

1

Which four of the following are drugs of choice for Focal Epileptic Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Valproate
Gabapentin
Oxcarbazepine
Pregabalin
Carbamazepine
Ethosuximide
Topiramate
Phenytoin
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam

Explanation

Question 18 of 63

1

Which five of the following are alternative drugs for Focal Epileptic Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Valproate
Topiramate
Gabapentin
Oxcarbazepine
Phenytoin
Clonazepam
Carbamazepine
Levetiracetam
Pregabalin
Lamotrigine

Explanation

Question 19 of 63

1

Which three of the following are drugs of choice for Primary GTC Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Topiramate
Valproate
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam
Phenytoin
Pregabalin

Explanation

Question 20 of 63

1

Which two of the following are alternative drugs for Primary GTC Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Topiramate
Phenytoin
Levetiracetam
Gabapentin
Valproate
Lamotrigine

Explanation

Question 21 of 63

1

Which two of the following are drugs of choice for Absence Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Topiramate
Clonazepam
Ethosuximide
Lamotrigine
Valproate
Levetiracetam

Explanation

Question 22 of 63

1

Which two of the following are alternative drugs for Absence Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Topiramate
Ethosuximide
Lamotrigine
Clonazepam
Valproate
Levetiracetam

Explanation

Question 23 of 63

1

Which five of the following are some of the adverse effects of Phenytoin?

Select one or more of the following:

Hiccups
Hepatic failure
Nystagmus
Depression
Diplopia
Gingival hyperplasia
Mild parasthesias
Acne / Hirsuitism / Coarsening of facial features
Anorexia
Concern with HLA-B*1502 allele and skin reactions

Explanation

Question 24 of 63

1

Which six of the following are some of the adverse effects of Phenytoin?

Select one or more of the following:

May interfere with learning
Sedation
Ataxia
Rare serious blood dyscrasias
Fulminant hepatitis
Folate and Vitamin D deficiencies (megaloblastic anemia, osteomalacia)
Transient diplopia
Dizziness
Involuntary movements
Mild parasthesias

Explanation

Question 25 of 63

1

Which five of the following are some of the adverse effects of Carbamazepine and Oxcarbazepine?

Select one or more of the following:

Ataxia
Hyperammonemia
Hyponatremia
Hallucinations
Alopecia
Transient diplopia
Dizziness
Rare serious blood dyscrasias
Weight gain
Menstrual abnormalities

Explanation

Question 26 of 63

1

Which five of the following are some of the adverse effects of Carbamazepine and Oxcarbazepine?

Select one or more of the following:

Anorexia
Nausea
Mild parasthesias
Dependence
Drowsiness
Acute pancreatitis
Difficulty with speech
Insomnia
Skin rash
Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Explanation

Question 27 of 63

1

Which six of the following are some of the adverse effects of Valproate?

Select one or more of the following:

Menstrual abnormalities
Hyperammonemia
Aggression
Ataxia
Fulminant hepatitis
Dizziness
Alopecia
Rare serious blood dyscrasias
Hyponatremia
Acute pancreatitis

Explanation

Question 28 of 63

1

Which six of the following are some of the adverse effects of Valproate?

Select one or more of the following:

Nervousness
GI discomfort (tolerance)
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Tremor
Diplopia
Somnolence
Weight gain
Thrombocytopenia
Polycystic ovaries
Folate and Vitamin D deficiencies (Megaloblastic anemia, Osteomalacia)

Explanation

Question 29 of 63

1

Which four of the following are the adverse effects of Ethosuximide?

Select one or more of the following:

Fulminant hepatitis
Hiccups
Vomiting
Difficulty with speech
Behavioral changes
Weight gain
Tolerance
Dependance
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Nausea

Explanation

Question 30 of 63

1

Which four of the following are the adverse effects of Phenobarbital?

Select one or more of the following:

Hepatic failure
Sedation
Respiratory depression
Impaired concentration and memory
Difficulty with speech
Lower extremity edema
Tolerance
Dependance
Hyperammonemia
Hyponatremia

Explanation

Question 31 of 63

1

Which three of the following are the adverse effects of Clonazepam?

Select one or more of the following:

Diplopia
Dependance
Anorexia
Sedation
Respiratory depression
Gingival hyperplasia
Weight gain
Tolerance
Involuntary movements
Polycystic ovaries

Explanation

Question 32 of 63

1

Which six of the following are the adverse effects of Lamotrigine?

Select one or more of the following:

Dizziness
Skin rash
Hallucinations
Confusion
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Insomnia
Aggression
Headache
Hiccups
Nausea

Explanation

Question 33 of 63

1

Which six of the following are the adverse effects of Topiramate?

Select one or more of the following:

Mild parasthesias
Difficulty with speech
Confusion
Depression
Nervousness
Insomnia
Impaired concentration and memory
Hallucinations
Aggression
Somnolence

Explanation

Question 34 of 63

1

Which three of the following are the adverse effects of Gabapentin and Pregabalin?

Select one or more of the following:

Lower extremity edema
Hyperammonemia
Acne, Hirsuitism, Coarsening of facial features
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Mild parasthesias
Drowsiness
Insomnia
Weight Gain
Tolerance
Dependence

Explanation

Question 35 of 63

1

Which four of the following are the adverse effects of Levetiracetam?

Select one or more of the following:

Irritability
Vomiting
Transient diplopia
Ataxia
Headache
Depression
Nausea
Hallucinations
Acute pancreatitis
Aggression

Explanation

Question 36 of 63

1

Which two of the following are the adverse effects of Felbamate?

Select one or more of the following:

Respiratory depression
Hyponatremia
Confusion
Tremor
Aplastic anemia
Tolerance
Rare serious blood dyscrasias
Dependance
Lower extremity edema
Hepatic failure

Explanation

Question 37 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Phenytoin?

Select one or more of the following:

Can reduce blood levels of contraceptive hormones
Enzyme inducers can increase clearance
Metabolism inhibited by valproate
Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
Warfarin: can decrease anticoagulant effect
No significant drug interactions
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
Interactions due to plasma protein binding

Explanation

Question 38 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Valproate?

Select one or more of the following:

Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
Interactions due to plasma protein binding
Can reduce blood levels of contraceptive hormones
Enzyme inducers can increase clearance
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
No significant drug interactions
Can increase plasma levels of carbamazepine metabolite, phenytoin, phenobarbital, ethosuximide, lamotrigine and tricyclic antidepressants

Explanation

Question 39 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Ethosuximide?

Select one or more of the following:

Affected by CYP3A4 inducers
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
Enzyme inducers can increase clearance
Metabolism inhibited by valproate
Can reduce blood levels of contraceptive hormones
Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
No significant drug interactions

Explanation

Question 40 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Phenobarbital?

Select one or more of the following:

Reduces blood levels of contraceptive hormones
Warfarin: can decrease anticoagulant effect
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
Metabolism inhibited by valproate
Can increase plasma levels of carbamazepine metabolite, phenytoin, phenobarbital, ethosuximide, lamotrigine and tricyclic antidepressants
Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
Enzyme inducers can increase clearance

Explanation

Question 41 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Clonazepam?

Select one or more of the following:

Interactions due to plasma protein binding
Metabolized by CYP3A4
Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
Can reduce blood levels of contraceptive hormones
Metabolism inhibited by valproate
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
No significant drug interactions

Explanation

Question 42 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Lamotrigine?

Select one or more of the following:

Enzyme inducers can increase clearance
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
Metabolism induced by carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin
Metabolism inhibited by valproate
Oral contraceptives can reduce levels
Interactions due to plasma protein binding
No significant drug interactions

Explanation

Question 43 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Lamotrigine?

Select one or more of the following:

Can reduce blood levels of contraceptive hormones
Affected by CYP3A4 inducers
Warfarin: can decrease anticoagulant effect
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
Interactions due to plasma protein binding
No significant drug interactions

Explanation

Question 44 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Gabapentin, Levetiracetam, and Pregabalin?

Select one or more of the following:

Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
Significant enzyme induction: CYP1A2, CYP2A6, CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4
Warfarin: can decrease anticoagulant effect
Enzyme inducers can increase clearance
Can increase plasma levels of carbamazepine metabolite, phenytoin, phenobarbital, ethosuximide, lamotrigine and tricyclic antidepressants
Reduces blood levels of contraceptive hormones
No significant drug interactions

Explanation

Question 45 of 63

1

Which of the following are the drug-drug interactions of Carbamazepine?

Select one or more of the following:

Induces metabolism of phenytoin, ethosuximide, valproate, clonazepam
Enzyme inducers can increase clearance
Reduces blood levels of contraceptive hormones
Drug level affected by CYP3A4 inducers (phenytoin, phenobarbital), inhibitors
Can increase plasma levels of carbamazepine metabolite, phenytoin, phenobarbital, ethosuximide, lamotrigine and tricyclic antidepressants
Significant enzyme induction: CYP2B6, CYP2C19, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP3A4, P-glycoprotein
No significant drug interactions

Explanation

Question 46 of 63

1

Which of the following statements are true for Phenytoin?

Select one or more of the following:

Many PO formulations available – IR / ER formulations
10-20 mg/L is common therapeutic range
Metabolism: dose-dependent capacity-limited pharmacokinetics (zero order metabolism)
Oldest non-sedating, anti-seizure drug
MUST MONITOR SERUM LEVELS
Used in bipolar disorder
90% in vascular space is bound to albumin
At steady-state, 10% in vascular space, 90% tissue
Weight loss common (80% patients; 3-4% bodyweight loss)
Takes up to 6 weeks to achieve steady state, depending on dose

Explanation

Question 47 of 63

1

Which of the following statements are true for Carbamazepine?

Select one or more of the following:

Oldest non-sedating, anti-seizure drug
Also used for migraine prophylaxis and bipolar disorder
Used in children more than adults
Adjunctive therapy in children with focal seizures and generalized tonic clonic seizures
Induces its own metabolism; t1/2 ~36 hr ~20 hr
Used for migraine prophylaxis
Used for neuropathic pain
Is often Drug of Choice for focal seizures
100% renal elimination
Monotherapy in >16 yr old for focal seizures

Explanation

Question 48 of 63

1

Which of the following statements are true for Valproate?

Select one or more of the following:

Used in children more than adults
Effective and well tolerated so used for many seizure types
No longer a drug of 1st choice for women of childbearing potential
Many PO formulations available – IR / ER formulations
90% protein bound – can be significant
Many enzymes responsible for its metabolism (2A6, 2B6, 2C9, UGT, etc.)
Weight loss common (80% patients; 3-4% bodyweight loss)
Used for migraine prophylaxis
Used for neuropathic pain
Used for bipolar disorder

Explanation

Question 49 of 63

1

Which of the following statements are true for Phenobarbital?

Select one or more of the following:

Used for febrile seizures
100% renal elimination
Used for weight management
Used in children more than adults
Weight loss common (80% patients; 3-4% bodyweight loss)
Infrequently used for seizures due to adverse effects and risks
Off label use for bipolar disorder
Induces its own metabolism; t1/2 ~36 hr ~20 hr
Oldest non-sedating, anti-seizure drug
Commonly used in monotherapy

Explanation

Question 50 of 63

1

Which of the following statements are true for Lamotrigine?

Select one or more of the following:

Monotherapy in >16 yr old for focal seizures
90% in vascular space is bound to albumin
Used for migraine prophylaxis
Adjunctive therapy in children with focal seizures and generalized tonic clonic seizures
Used for weight management
Used in children more than adults
Used in absence (better tolerated than ethosuximide, valproate)
Used in bipolar disorder
Used for neuropathic pain
Does not induce or inhibit CYP enzymes

Explanation

Question 51 of 63

1

Which of the following statements are true for Topiramate?

Select one or more of the following:

At steady-state, 10% in vascular space, 90% tissue
Weight loss common (80% patients; 3-4% bodyweight loss)
Used for bipolar disorder
Oldest non-sedating, anti-seizure drug
Used for migraine prophylaxis
Used for weight management
Induces its own metabolism; t1/2 ~36 hr ~20 hr
Used for neuropathic pain
100% renal elimination
Adjunctive therapy in children with focal seizures and generalized tonic clonic seizures

Explanation

Question 52 of 63

1

Which of the following statements are true for Levetiracetam?

Select one or more of the following:

90% in vascular space is bound to albumin
Used in bipolar disorder
Oldest non-sedating, anti-seizure drug
Adjunct for Focal and generalized tonic-clonic seizures
Not an inhibitor or inducer of CYP enzymes
Commonly used for monotherapy
Used for migraine prophylaxis
Renal elimination (>70%)
Used for weight management
Used in children more than adults

Explanation

Question 53 of 63

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Principles of AED Therapy
 Choose monotherapy agent on basis of seizure (or epilepsy syndrome if known) & patient-specific considerations (usually profile)
 Increase to effective dose or to a serum level within the therapeutic range
 If seizures not controlled - increase gradually to tolerated dose (MTD) = highest dose a patient can tolerate without bothersome adverse effects
 If monotherapy fails, choose alternate monotherapy agent and repeat process
 If monotherapy fails with several drugs, try
 Concern is management of of two drugs

Explanation

Question 54 of 63

1

Which of the following drugs reduce blood levels of contraceptive hormone?

Select one or more of the following:

Carbamazepine
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Felbamate
Lamotrigine
Oxcarbazepine
Topiramate

Explanation

Question 55 of 63

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Antiepileptics are increased to therapeutic concentrations to minimize and are withdrawn to reduce the risk of inducing .

Explanation

Question 56 of 63

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

 Enhanced vitamin metabolism can cause osteomalacia (phenytoin, phenobarbital)
 Enhanced vitamin metabolism can cause bleeding disorders (phenytoin, phenobarbital)
 Many anti-epileptics enhance of other anti-epileptics (phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital)
 inhibits metabolism of some anti-epileptics

Explanation

Question 57 of 63

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Pregnancy
 Teratogenicity: Valproate, phenobarbital, phenytoin, carbamazepine
 Prefer (or levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine)
 Can increase drug metabolism, which can seizure control
 Need to switch drugs or increase dose?

Explanation

Question 58 of 63

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Hepatic disease
 Avoid antiepileptic drugs (e.g., valproate) when possible
 Monitor free (unbound) levels of phenytoin, valproate when low

Explanation

Question 59 of 63

1

Which of the following are contraindications / precautions for Phenytoin?

Select one or more of the following:

IV use for patients with sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, second- and third-degree heart block
Risk of dependence is high
Black box warning on rate of IV administration (<50mg/min)
Teratogenic risk

Explanation

Question 60 of 63

1

Which of the following are contraindications / precautions for Carbamazepine?

Select one or more of the following:

HLA-B*1502, common in Asians, linked to 10X increased incidence of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Teratogenic risk
Black box warning on rate of IV administration (<50mg/min)
Caution in patients with history of sedative dependence

Explanation

Question 61 of 63

1

Which of the following are contraindications / precautions for Valproate?

Select one or more of the following:

Not used in children <3 yrs because of risk of liver failure
IV use for patients with sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, second- and third-degree heart block
Do not use in patients with history of sedative addiction
Teratogenic risk

Explanation

Question 62 of 63

1

Which of the following are contraindications / precautions for Phenobarbital?

Select one or more of the following:

Risk of dependence is high
Do not use in patients with history of sedative addiction
Teratogenic risk
Black box warning on rate of IV administration (<50mg/min)

Explanation

Question 63 of 63

1

Which of the following are contraindications / precautions for Clonazepam?

Select one or more of the following:

Caution in patients with history of sedative dependence
Teratogenic risk
IV use for patients with sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, second- and third-degree heart block
HLA-B*1502, common in Asians, linked to 10X increased incidence of Stevens-Johnson syndrome

	Created by Victoria Wright about 7 years ago

WEEK 10 Quiz on Anti-epileptics Flashcard Supplement, created by Victoria Wright on 22/03/2017.

Anti-epileptics Flashcard Supplement

Question 1 of 63

Which of the following are First Generation anti-epileptics?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 63

Which of the following are Second Generation anti-epileptics?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 63

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

is chronic disorder characterized by recurring seizures.

Explanation

Question 4 of 63

Pharmacological treatment can control but not cure epilepsy.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 63

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Status epilepticus is a medical .

Explanation

Question 6 of 63

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 7 of 63

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 8 of 63

Drag and drop to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 9 of 63

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

What are the goals of therapy with anti-epileptics? Improve by:  Controlling  Rarely are seizures eliminated; even occasional seizures are still a concern for patients  Minimizing  Usually lifelong treatment

Explanation

Question 10 of 63

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action? Inhibit voltage dependent Na+ channels

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 63

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action? Inhibit glutamate receptors

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 63

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action? Modulate glutamate release (putative)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 63

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action? Increase inhibitory neurotransmission  Enhance GABA-A activity (positive allosteric modulation)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 63

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action? Inhibit T-type Ca2+ channels  Depolarization of thalamic neurons activates cortical neurons

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 63

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Explanation

Question 16 of 63

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Block voltage-activated calcium channels − Neurons in thalamus are dependent on calcium channel currents for depolarization − Blocking these channels slows the − Depolarization of neurons activates neurons

Explanation

Question 17 of 63

Which four of the following are drugs of choice for Focal Epileptic Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 63

Which five of the following are alternative drugs for Focal Epileptic Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 63

Which three of the following are drugs of choice for Primary GTC Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 63

Which two of the following are alternative drugs for Primary GTC Seizures?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 21 of 63

Which two of the following are drugs of choice for Absence Seizures?

What are the goals of therapy with anti-epileptics?
Improve by:
 Controlling
 Rarely are seizures eliminated; even occasional seizures are still a concern for patients
 Minimizing
 Usually lifelong treatment

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Inhibit voltage dependent Na+ channels

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Inhibit glutamate receptors

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Modulate glutamate release (putative)

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Increase inhibitory neurotransmission
 Enhance GABA-A activity (positive allosteric modulation)

Which anti-epileptic drugs have the following mechanism of action?
Inhibit T-type Ca2+ channels
 Depolarization of thalamic neurons activates cortical neurons

Block voltage-activated calcium channels
− Neurons in thalamus are dependent on calcium channel
currents for depolarization
− Blocking these channels slows the
− Depolarization of neurons activates neurons