Ulaysha Govender
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Engineering Quiz on Business Exam, created by Ulaysha Govender on 04/10/2016.

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Ulaysha Govender
Created by Ulaysha Govender almost 8 years ago
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Business Exam

Question 1 of 55

1

The 'principal-agent problem' refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • The power held by suppliers over prices

  • The power held by buyers over prices

  • The trust of employees

  • The separation of ownership from control in firms

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

1

Those who advocate the stakeholder view of organizations have the view that:

Select one of the following:

  • An organization's sole purpose is to create shareholder value

  • An organization's sole purpose is to make profits for the owners

  • An organization has more than one purpose - it also needs to consider the society within which it
    operates

  • An organization's sole purpose is to increase the quality of life of its employees

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

1

Stakeholders can be defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • Individuals or groups that are affected by the organization

  • Individuals or groups that affect the organizations

  • Individuals or groups that affect and are affected by the organization

  • Individuals or groups that have invested money in the organization

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

1

Organizational performance is a measure of how efficiently and effectively managers use available
resources to satisfy customers and achieve organizational goals.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

1

A measure of the appropriateness of goals selected by managers for the organization and the degree to
which the organization achieves these goals is known as the effectiveness of the organization.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

1

Which one of the following is NOT a good indicator of how well a company's present strategy is
working?

Select one of the following:

  • The company's market share ranking and whether its share is trending up, down, or staying more or
    less the same

  • Whether the company is regarded as a leader in some significant area (technology, product quality,
    customer service, product innovation and so on) and the firm's image and reputation with customers

  • Whether the company's profit margins are increasing or decreasing and how large they are relative
    to other firms in the industry

  • Whether the company's resource strengths and competitive capabilities outnumber its resource
    weaknesses and competitive vulnerabilities

  • Whether the company is achieving its stated financial and strategic objectives and whether the
    company is an above-average or below-average industry performer

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

1

SWOT analysis:

Select one of the following:

  • consists of three steps: identifying a company's resource strengths and weaknesses and its
    opportunities and threats, drawing conclusions about the company's overall situation, and
    translating the conclusions into strategic action to improve the company's strategy.

  • provides a quick overview of where on the scale from "alarmingly weak" to "exceptionally strong"
    the attractiveness of the company's overall business situation ranks.

  • helps provide a basis for matching the company's strategy to its internal resource capabilities and its
    external opportunities and threats.

  • helps identify actions for improving the company's strategy.

  • All of these.

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

1

A core competence:

Select one of the following:

  • holds the potential for being a cornerstone of a company's strategy because it gives a company
    competitive capability and qualifies as a genuine company strength and resource.

  • nearly always resides in the calibre of the company's assets on its balance sheet rather than in its
    people and in its intellectual capital; furthermore, balance sheet-related core competencies tend to
    be competitively more valuable than core competencies grounded in intellectual capital.

  • is better suited to helping a company defend against external threats than in pursuing external
    market opportunities.

  • is usually tied closely to the calibre of a company's manufacturing capability and/or its proprietary
    technology and know-how.

  • is a more valuable company resource than either a "competence" or a "distinctive competence" but
    it is not as good a resource strength as a "competitive capability."

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

1

A distinctive competence:

Select one of the following:

  • is a more important competitive asset than a core competence.

  • represents competitive superiority in performing an activity and thus is a basis for building a
    competitive advantage over rivals.

  • is a competitively important value chain activity that a company performs better than its rivals.

  • is a strong candidate for being used as a cornerstone of a company's strategy.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT a measure of the competitive power of a company's resource strengths
and competitive capabilities?

Select one of the following:

  • How hard it is for competitors to copy a particular resource strength or competitive capability of a
    company

  • Whether the company has more resources/capabilities than any other key rival

  • Whether the resource or capability is really competitively superior to what rivals have or can do

  • How easily the resource or capability can be trumped by the different resources/capabilities of rivals

  • Whether the resource or capability is durable and has staying power (in the sense of not losing its
    value quickly because of new developments)

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

1

The industry or market opportunities that are most relevant to a company and those which its strategy
should aim at capturing include

Select one of the following:

  • opportunities that are well-suited to the company's competitive capabilities and resource strengths.

  • opportunities which the company has the financial resources to pursue.

  • opportunities that offer important avenues for growth.

  • opportunities where the company has the greatest potential for competitive advantage.

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

1

A company's value chain consists of:

Select one of the following:

  • the activities a company performs in converting its resource weaknesses into resource strengths.

  • the collection of activities it performs in the course of designing, producing, marketing, delivering,
    and supporting its product or service and delivering value to customers-these activities can be
    grouped into (a) the primary activities that are foremost in creating value for customers and (b) the
    related support activities that facilitate and enhance the performance of the primary activities.

  • the activities a company performs to build a competence and turn it into a strong competitive
    capability.

  • identifying the primary activities and related support activities that a company performs in
    developing a distinctive competence.

  • identifying each and every activity that results in a cost to the company and that, therefore, has to
    be covered by its price.

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

1

A company's cost competitiveness is largely a function of:

Select one of the following:

  • whether it does a good enough job of benchmarking its value chain activities against the value chains
    of competitors so that it knows exactly how low to drive its costs to be cost-competitive.

  • how efficiently it manages its overall value chain activities relative to how efficiently competitors
    manage theirs.

  • whether it does a better job of building its resource strengths more cost effectively than rivals.

  • whether it possesses more core competences and competitive capabilities than rivals.

  • how closely its internally-performed activities are linked to the activities performed by suppliers and
    to the activities performed by forward channel allies.

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

1

One of the most dependable ways for a company to build competitive advantage:

Select one of the following:

  • is developing the skills, competencies, and capabilities to perform competitively crucial value chain
    activities better than competitors.

  • is using its resource strengths to insulate itself from the impact of the five competitive forces.

  • is improving the calibre of its product or service (because superior products or services are almost
    impossible to clone or improve upon).

  • is moving into the strategic group where profit margins are highest.

  • is neutralizing the external threats to a company's well-being and then focusing company resources
    on the company's single best market opportunity.

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

1

Identifying the strategic issues that company managers need to address:

Select one of the following:

  • involves using the results of both industry and competitive analysis and what has been learned from
    evaluating the company's present strategy, SWOT analysis, and the evaluations of the company's
    own competitiveness

  • entails developing a "worry list" of "how to...", "whether to....", and "what to do about....."

  • is an important component of company situation analysis because a good strategy must include
    actions to deal with all the strategic issues that need to be addressed.

  • entails locking in on what challenges the company has to overcome in order to be financially and
    competitively successful in the years ahead.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

1

"Shareholder wealth" in a firm is represented by:

Select one of the following:

  • the number of people employed in the firm.

  • the book value of the firm's assets less the book value of its liabilities.

  • the amount of salary paid to its employees

  • the market price per share of the firm's shares.

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

1

The long-run objective of financial management is to:

Select one of the following:

  • maximize earnings per share.

  • maximize the value of the firm's shares.

  • maximize return on investment.

  • maximize market share.

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

1

A(n) _______________ would be an example of a principal, while a(n) ________________
would be an example of an agent.

Select one of the following:

  • shareholder; manager

  • manager; owner

  • accountant; bondholder

  • shareholder; bondholder

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

1

The decision function of financial management can be broken down into the ____________
decisions.

Select one of the following:

  • financing and investment

  • investment, financing, and asset management

  • financing and dividend

  • capital budgeting, cash management, and credit management

Explanation

Question 20 of 55

1

A company's ____________________ is (are) potentially the most effective instrument of good
corporate governance.

Select one of the following:

  • shareholders

  • board of directors

  • top executive officers

Explanation

Question 21 of 55

1

Growth means:

Select one of the following:

  • change

  • stability

  • effectiveness

  • efficiency

Explanation

Question 22 of 55

1

Entrenched companies may have cost advantages not available to potential rivals. This is an
example of:

Select one of the following:

  • capital requirements

  • cost disadvantage independent of size

  • economies of scale

  • government policy

  • profitability gap

Explanation

Question 23 of 55

1

Which of the following financial objectives best relates to a firm's ability to meet its short-term
financial obligations?

Select one of the following:

  • Liquidity

  • Profitability

  • Efficiency

  • Stability

Explanation

Question 24 of 55

1

Which of the following financial objectives best relates to how productively a firm uses its assets
relative to its revenues and its profits?

Select one of the following:

  • Liquidity

  • Profitability

  • Efficiency

  • Stability

Explanation

Question 25 of 55

1

_____ is a written report that quantitatively describes a firm's financial health.

Select one of the following:

  • A forecast

  • A budget

  • A business plan

  • A financial statement

Explanation

Question 26 of 55

1

Friedman (1962) is a famous exponent of the view that:

Select one of the following:

  • Business is business

  • Business is society

  • Business is politics

  • Business is power

Explanation

Question 27 of 55

1

Benchmarking is a popular tool to measure performance. Benchmarking involves the continual process
of comparing organizational performance against:

Select one of the following:

  • Industry standards

  • High achieving organizations

  • Rivals

  • Organizations within the same industry

Explanation

Question 28 of 55

1

Which of the following statements regarding flaws suffered by financial measures is not correct?

Select one of the following:

  • They are hard to quantify.

  • They do little to motivate employees to improve accounting profits.

  • They are not effective in getting managers' attention.

  • They are useful in identifying operational problems.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 29 of 55

1

The description of an organization's values, definition of its responsibilities to stakeholders, and
identification of its major strategies is known as a:

Select one of the following:

  • business-level strategy.

  • business model.

  • mission statement.

  • balanced scorecard.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 30 of 55

1

The description of how different levels and employees in the organization must perform for the
organization to achieve its goals is a:

Select one of the following:

  • business-level strategy.

  • business model.

  • mission statement.

  • balanced scorecard.

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 31 of 55

1

What term is used to describe the continuous process of measuring a company's own products,
services, and activities against competitors' performance?

Select one of the following:

  • Balanced scorecard

  • Business-level strategy

  • Benchmarking

  • Internal calibration

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 32 of 55

1

Which of the following statements regarding multiple measures or a single measure of performance is
not correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The advantage of using branch profits to evaluate branch managers is that profit is relatively simple
    to compute and reflects the organization's ultimate goal.

  • The use of multiple measures can influence branch managers' decisions by changing the components
    of the performance measurement system to reflect changes in the firm's strategy.

  • If the branch managers are more knowledgeable than the corporate staff about local conditions and
    what local clients value, a single measure could be preferable.

  • If the corporate office has better knowledge of what it requires to operate a profitable branch, using
    multiple measures provides a way to communicate this knowledge and achieve common branch
    operations

  • All of the above are correct statements.

Explanation

Question 33 of 55

1

Which of the following is not a reason that worker involvement is important in an effective performance
measurement system?

Select one of the following:

  • Many managers believe that when workers take on real decision-making authority, their commitment to the organization and its objectives increases.

  • When decision-making responsibility lies with workers closer to the customer, workers are more responsive to customer concerns and can make informed decisions.

  • Giving decision-making responsibility to workers uses their skills and knowledge and motivates them
    to further develop those skills and knowledge in an effort to improve the organization's performance.

  • Workers are more likely to understand financial measures than nonfinancial measures.

Explanation

Question 34 of 55

1

Taking a bribe is:

Select one of the following:

  • A violation of human rights

  • A violation of an individual's right to privacy

  • A violation of distributive justice

  • A violation of common decency

Explanation

Question 35 of 55

1

Ethical behavior is not in the long-term interest of businesses.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 36 of 55

1

Extortion is an attempt to buy:

Select one of the following:

  • Goods and services quickly

  • Influence

  • At a discount

  • Goodwil

Explanation

Question 37 of 55

1

Distributive justice refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • Rewards allocated to those who shout loudest

  • Rewards allocated by level of contribution

  • Rewards allocated to those who cannot help themselves

  • Rewards allocated regardless of contribution

Explanation

Question 38 of 55

1

Ethical business practice requires, above all else, an active awareness and consideration of the likely
long-term consequence of any action.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 39 of 55

1

By professing ethical behavior, organisations in the ____________ hope to avoid threats of litigation,
boycotts, strikes and shareholder alienation.

Select one of the following:

  • Reactive

  • Compliant

  • Immoral

  • None of the above.

Explanation

Question 40 of 55

1

Amoral management conforms to high standards of ethical behavior.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 41 of 55

1

Amoral managers practice a style of management devoid of ethical principles and active opposition to
what is ethical.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 42 of 55

1

It is important for businesses to practice ethical behaviour to________________.

Select one of the following:

  • Avoid conflict and promote distributive justice.

  • Promote conservation of resources and preserve corporate reputation.

  • Promote long term profitability and avoid societal conflict.

  • All of the above.

Explanation

Question 43 of 55

1

Which one of the following managers does not factor ethical considerations into own actions since
business activity lies outside sphere of moral judgment?

Select one of the following:

  • Immoral managers

  • Intentionally amoral managers

  • Both a) and b).

Explanation

Question 44 of 55

1

The income statement reflects a firm's results over a period of time.

Select one of the following:

  • True

  • False

Explanation

Question 45 of 55

1

The three major criteria managers should look for when selecting employees are physical, mental and
________________capability?

Select one of the following:

  • Intellectual

  • Emotional

  • Psychological

  • Physiological

Explanation

Question 46 of 55

1

A system for providing employees with regular feedback on their performance is known as
___________________?

Select one of the following:

  • Empowerment

  • Enrichment

  • Appraisal

  • Enhancement

Explanation

Question 47 of 55

1

Which of the following is not usually associated with a highly motivated workforce?

Select one of the following:

  • High quality work output

  • High staff turnover

  • High work satisfaction

  • High staff involvement

Explanation

Question 48 of 55

1

The purpose of the Basic Conditions of Employment Act is to give effect to and regulate the right to fair
labour practices conferred by section 23(1) of the Constitution by:

Select one of the following:

  • establishing and enforcing basic conditions of employment

  • regulating the variation of basic conditions of employment

  • to give effect to obligations incurred as a member state of the International Labour Organisation

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 49 of 55

1

The purpose of the Employment Equity Act, 55 of 1998 is to achieve equity in the workplace by :

Select one of the following:

  • a) promoting equal opportunity and fair treatment in employment through the elimination of unfair
    discrimination

  • implementing affirmative action measures to redress the disadvantages in employment experienced
    b) by designated groups, to ensure their equitable representation in all occupational categories and
    levels in the workforce

  • c) to advance the interests of historically disadvantaged individuals

  • a) and b)

  • a) and c)

Explanation

Question 50 of 55

1

The principal purpose of the Labour Relations Act is to advance economic development, social
justice, labour peace and the democratisation of the workplace by fulfilling the primary objects of
this Act, which are:

Select one of the following:

  • To give effect and regulate the fundamental rights conferred by section 27 of the Constitution

  • To give effect to obligations incurred by the Republic as a member state of the International Labour

  • Organisation To provide a framework within which employees and their trade unions, employers and
    employers’ organisations can collectively bargain to determine matters of mutual interest and
    formulate industrial policy

  • To promote orderly collective bargaining, employee participation in decision-making in the
    workplace and effective resolution of labour disputes

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 51 of 55

1

The Labour Market Review has sought to review the following legislations:

Select one of the following:

  • Basic Conditions Employment Act, Labour Relations Act, Employment Equity Act, Compensation for
    Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act, Unemployment Insurance Act, Skills Development Act

  • Basic Conditions Employment Act, and Labour Relations Act, Employment Equity Act

  • Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act, Unemployment Insurance Act, Skills
    Development Act

  • Basic Conditions Employment Act, and Labour Relations Act, Unemployment Insurance Act, Skills
    Development Act

Explanation

Question 52 of 55

1

Amendments have been effected to the following Acts to fulfil South Africa’s obligations as a
member state of the International Labour Organisation

Select one of the following:

  • Compensation for Occupational Injuries and Diseases Act, Unemployment Insurance Act, Skills
    Development Act

  • Labour Relations Act , Basic Conditions of Employment Act , Employment Equity Act

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 53 of 55

1

The ILO action their Decent Work agenda by focusing on four key objectives

Select one of the following:

  • Creating Jobs

  • Guaranteeing rights at work

  • Extending social protection

  • Promoting social dialogue

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 54 of 55

1

Unethical behaviour in business can be reduced if management does all of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • establish clear policies on unethical behavior.

  • limit opportunities for unethical behavior.

  • establish formal rules and procedures.

  • punish unethical behavior firmly.

  • depend totally on employees' personal ethics.

Explanation

Question 55 of 55

1

Which of the following best describes the relationship between utilitarianism and consequentialism?

Select one of the following:

  • Utilitarianism is a form of consequentialism.

  • Consequentialism is a form of utilitarianism.

  • Utilitarianism and consequentialism are completely independent theories.

  • Utilitarianism and consequentialism are inconsistent.

Explanation