Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
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Week 2 DFT prep

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Rachael Eleanor Alexandra
Created by Rachael Eleanor Alexandra about 8 years ago
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Week 2 DFT Prep - Equality, CQC, Radiography, Pilot schemes, quality assurance, GDC standard 4

Question 1 of 52

1

According to the Equality Act 2010, how many protected characteristics are there?

Select one of the following:

  • 7

  • 8

  • 6

  • 10

Explanation

Question 2 of 52

1

What act dictates that treatment of employees should not be affected by 8 "protected" characteristics?

Select one of the following:

  • Freedom of information act 2000

  • Disability discrimination act

  • GDC Standards for the dental team

  • Equality act 2010

Explanation

Question 3 of 52

14

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The treatment of employees should not be affected due to any of the following 8 protected characteristics
A
D
Gender r
M and c p
R
R or belief
S
S orientation

women have special protections
Employers/service providers must make reasonable a to the workplace to overcome b experienced by d people.

Explanation

Question 4 of 52

1

True or false: the CQC have the right to carry out inspections unnanounced

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 5 of 52

1

True or false: Comprehensive CQC inspections can be carried out unannounced

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 6 of 52

1

True or false: Focussed inspections by the CQC are usually in response to a specific issue or concern

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 52

1

True or false: Dental providers do not need to register with the CQC before they begin activities.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 8 of 52

11

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The CQC is an i regulatory body for health and social care services.

Providers of care must satisfy CQC registration requirements. They rate providers as such:
O
Good
Require i
In
Rating s.

They ask 5 key questions during the inspection process.
1. Are they s?
2. Are they e?
3. Are they c?
4. Are they well l?
5. Are they r to peoples n?

Explanation

Question 9 of 52

1

True or false: All dental practices were given a comprehensive inspection by the CQC in 2015/2016

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 52

1

True or false: It is only in comprehensive inspections that the CQC ask the 5 key questions

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 11 of 52

1

How long does a comprehensive inspection usually take?

Select one of the following:

  • A week

  • 2 hours

  • 30 minutes

  • A day

Explanation

Question 12 of 52

1

The CQC may take action on service providers should they identify concerns. Should this concern breach a regulation, they have enforcement powers given to them by which act?

Select one of the following:

  • Equality act 2010

  • Health and social care act 2008

  • Disability discrimination act

Explanation

Question 13 of 52

4

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Clinical governance is defined as:

"A framework through which NHS organisations are a for continually improving the q of their services and safeguarding high standards of c by creating an environment in which e in clinical care will flourish"

Put simply, this means that clinical governance means that a service provider is responsible for improving their services and ensuring the services are always excellent in quality.

Explanation

Question 14 of 52

1

In the primary care dental services clinical governance document, dental radiography requirements state that procedures and policies should be in accordance with which two key documents?

Select one of the following:

  • HTM01-05

  • IRR and IRMER

  • Caldicott principles

  • Freedom of information act

Explanation

Question 15 of 52

5

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Dental radiography service providers must ensure that they follow the dental radiography requirements from the Primary care dental services clinical governance documents. These are:

1. Procedures and policies are in accordance with and IRMER
2. A quality a system is in place
3. X ray m plan should be stated - including management of over-exposures
4. Records of staff t and updates
5. X ray equipment m records

Explanation

Question 16 of 52

1

An quality radiograph is given the rating . This means there are no errors of patient preparation, exposure, positioning, processing, or film handling

A acceptable radiograph is given the rating 2. This means there are some errors of patient preparation, exposure, positioning, processing, or film handling but they do not detract from the diagnostic utility of the radiograph

An unacceptable radiograph is given the . This means there are errors of preparation, exposure, positioning, processing, or film handling that render the radiograph diagnostically unacceptable.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    1
    2
    3
    excellent
    diagnostically acceptable
    unacceptable
    diagnostically
    radiographically
    practicably
    rating 3
    rating 2
    rating 1

Explanation

Question 17 of 52

10

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

Quality assurance in radiography ensures consistently a diagnostic information, keeping radiation doses to the patient A (according to I). Radiographs must be prescribed and j, taking into account:

Ps x rays
R for taking radiograph
Diagnostic b to patient
R risk
A techniques

Radiographs should be carried out in a c area.

Explanation

Question 18 of 52

1

The target for grade 1 rated radiographs should ideally not be less than...

Select one of the following:

  • 70%

  • 60%

  • %0%

Explanation

Question 19 of 52

1

The target for radiographs graded 3 should not be more than...

Select one of the following:

  • 5%

  • 15%

  • 10%

  • 20%

Explanation

Question 20 of 52

1

Who should be contacted if a patient receives a dose of radiation much greater than intended?

Select one of the following:

  • An RPA

  • The dentists' indemnity provider

  • Practice manager

  • Local trust board

Explanation

Question 21 of 52

1

What multiple of the intended dose is considered "much greater than intended"?

Select one of the following:

  • 10 times

  • 5 times

  • 30 times

  • 20 times

Explanation

Question 22 of 52

5

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Bisphosphonates ( reduce, increase ) bone resorption by hindering formation and function of ( osteoclasts, osteoblasts ). Bisphosphonates can cause bone fracture and pain. They accumulate at ( high, low ) sites of bone turnover e.g. the jaw and can lead to bone death due to decreased ( blood, lymph, antibiotic, bisphosphonate ) supply. This is known as bisphosphonate related ( osteonecrosis, osteoradionecrosis, osteomyelitis, osteogenesis ) of the jaw.

Explanation

Question 23 of 52

1

To be classified as BRONJ, necrotic bone must be present in the mouth for more than how many weeks?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 weeks

  • 4 weeks

  • 8 weeks

  • 12 weeks

Explanation

Question 24 of 52

1

True or false: for diagnosis of BRONJ, a patient must have had a history of radiation.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 25 of 52

1

Select all the symptoms of BRONJ

Select one or more of the following:

  • Stratified mucosa

  • Pain

  • Soft tissue swelling

  • Infection

  • Delayed healing

  • Glossitis

Explanation

Question 26 of 52

1

True or false: A patient should not be advised to stop taking their bisphosphonates even if they present with BRONJ

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 27 of 52

1

True or false: patients on bisphosphonates should avoid dental treatment

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 28 of 52

1

Select all the high risk BRONJ patients.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Treatment for malignant condition

  • Osteogenesis imperfecta

  • Paget's disease

  • Previous bronj

  • Corticosteroid use

  • Oral bisphosphonates

  • Osteoarthritis

  • Osteoporosis

Explanation

Question 29 of 52

1

Why would cessation of bisphosphonate use not impact on a patient's risk for BRONJ following dental treatment?

Select one of the following:

  • Bisphosphonates remain in the bone for some time after they've stopped taking it

  • Cessation would increase likelihood of pathological fracture

  • Bisphosphonates act to strengthen bone and would increase the chance of BRONJ if stopped

  • Bisphosphonates prevent secondary infection of extraction sockets

Explanation

Question 30 of 52

1

True or false: even low risk patients for BRONJ should be referred to maxfacs

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 31 of 52

1

To reduce the chance of BRONJ, low risk patients may be treated with which of the following precautions?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Referral to maxfacs for routine XLA

  • Atraumatic extractions

  • Surgical extractions

  • Increased time between check ups

  • Denture adjustment

  • Periodontal/preventative treatment

  • XGA for all extractions

Explanation

Question 32 of 52

1

If a high risk patient for BRONJ arrives at your practice for treatment, who should you ask for advice?

Select one of the following:

  • Local maxfacs don

  • Local periodontal expert

  • Primary care trust board

  • Your trainer

Explanation

Question 33 of 52

1

In what year did the first NHS pilot schemes begin?

Select one of the following:

  • 2009

  • 2012

  • 2011

  • 2003

Explanation

Question 34 of 52

1

NHS pilot schemes have shifted focus towards...

Select one of the following:

  • Treatment and repair

  • Prevention and oral health

  • Increased services for non UK residents

Explanation

Question 35 of 52

1

The two main paradigm shifts in the pilot NHS contracts focus on which two of the following key principles?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Risk assessment and management

  • Renumeration models

  • Treatment options

  • Increased bureaucracy

Explanation

Question 36 of 52

1

Renumeration models in pilot schemes reward dentists on...

Select one of the following:

  • Quality of care

  • Number of treatments

  • Number of treatment courses

  • Quality of premises

Explanation

Question 37 of 52

3

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Type 1 pilots remunerate dentists for providing an ( expected, increased, decreased ) level of care based on what they were delivering prior to the pilot. This essentially means they are paid based on ( achieving, exceeding ) their average target and not based on financial incentives for increased activity or patient numbers. Providing treatment that surpasses these targets ( does not, will always ) provide any benefit to the dentist.

Explanation

Question 38 of 52

3

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Type 2 pilots are remunerated based on the ( number, type ) of weighted capitated patients they have - capitation weighting depends on the patients age, gender, and ( deprivation, social, financial ) status. The capitation payment system is intended to ( compensate, incentivise ) for the average cost of care for an individual with that capitation weighting. The remuneration is dependent on the number of patients.

Explanation

Question 39 of 52

1

Select from the dropdown list to complete the text.

Type 3 pilots are remunerated based on their number of weighted capitated patients also. However; the weighted capitation payment is only for ( preventive and routine, prosthodontic and paedodontic, endodontic ) treatment only (i.e. band 3 treatment payments are fixed and not adjusted for with capitation weightings).

Explanation

Question 40 of 52

1

The clinical care pathway was developed for use in the pilot schemes and is based on need/risk pathways. The pathway begins with what clinical activity?

Select one of the following:

  • Comprehensive oral health assessment

  • Extraction of hopeless teeth

  • Smoking cessation, diet advice, and alcohol advice as necessary

  • Referral to GP for health assessment

Explanation

Question 41 of 52

1

According to the clinical care pathway, which of the following are considered the four main causes of poor oral health?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dental caries

  • Periodontal disease

  • Tooth surface loss

  • Soft tissue conditions

  • Bony abnormalities

  • Delayed development

  • Smoking

Explanation

Question 42 of 52

5

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

The clinical care pathway developed for pilot schemes focusses on the patient's need for treatment based on their risk for the ( 4, 3, 2, 5 ) main causes of poor oral health. A ( comprehensive, brief, focussed ) oral health assessment will identify a patient's risk of these conditions occuring/( progressing, resolving ) and the pathway guides clinicians to provide preventive care plans. These plans are based on a red amber green (RAG) system for risk for each of these 4 causes of poor oral health. The care plan provides a platform for ( communication, invoicing, pizza ) with patients and aids in transferring ( responsibility, money, need ) for patient self care.

Explanation

Question 43 of 52

1

True or false: pilot schemes using the clinical care pathway put more onus on the clinical for responsibility over the patient's oral health status

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 44 of 52

5

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

Clinical care pathway plans based on a patients ( RAG, sexual, environmental ) risk status for dental caries, ( periodontal, gastrointestinal, bony ) disease, tooth surface loss, and soft tissue conditions includes the following;

( Tailored, General, Brief ) advice to patients on their oral health and preventive actions they need to take to improve oral health

information about prevention regimes implemented by the ( dental team, patient, Parents ) - interim care management. This includes use of fluoride varnish.

Suggested timing for the next ( oral health review, extractions, root surface debridement )

Explanation

Question 45 of 52

1

Select from the dropdown lists to complete the text.

The GDC outlines a set of standards for education for their quality assurance programme. This ensures the degree is fit for purpose. These standards are:

( Patient, Payment ) protection
Quality evaluation and review
Student ( assessment, expulsion, torture )
Equality and diversity

Explanation

Question 46 of 52

5

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

A good q a programme is essential in practice and should cover all aspects of patient care. It should also help the practice work more e and reduce the kinds of incident that can lead to c or claim.

Review practice p and procedures to ensure they are fit for purpose and encourage members of staff to speak up should problems may arise

Explanation

Question 47 of 52

5

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

GDC standard 4: Maintaining and protecting patient c.

This standard focusses on the patient's expectation for records to be:
- Up to
- C
- Stored s
- A should they be requested

Explanation

Question 48 of 52

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

GDC Standard 4.1

Make and keep c, complete, and a patient records

Explanation

Question 49 of 52

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

GDC standard 4.2

Protect c and only use the information for the p for which it was given

Explanation

Question 50 of 52

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

GDC standard 4.3

Only release information without p in el circumstances

e.g. interests of public, risk to patient. Document efforts to gain consent.

Explanation

Question 51 of 52

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

GDC standard 4.4

Ensure patients have a to their records

Under the data p act 1998. You may charge for this.

Explanation

Question 52 of 52

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

GDC standard 4.5

Keep information s at all times wether paper or electric

Explanation

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