tsampikos pompou
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6 FLIG. PER. EXAM. PREP.

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tsampikos pompou
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6 FLIG. PER. EXAM. PREP.

Question 1 of 25

1

152 If an aeroplane with a lift/drag ratio of 9/1 was at 9000ft, the maximum distance it could glide in still air conditions would be:

Select one of the following:

  • O 13.5 nautical miles.

  • O 8.1 kilometres.

  • O 8.1 nautical miles.

  • O 18.5 nautical miles.

Explanation

Question 2 of 25

1

153 Published take-off performance data, is complied from aircraft operating on:

Select one of the following:

  • O a level, dry, hard surface runway.

  • O an average hard surface, paved runway and free of condamination.

  • O a hard surface, paved runway with a maximum specified slope and free of condamination.

  • O a tarmac surface runway with a maximum 0.5° up or down slope.

Explanation

Question 3 of 25

1

154 Increasing or decreasing the power setting in a single engined aeroplane, changes the pitch attitude because:

Select one of the following:

  • O the thrust line not being aligned with the drag line vectors.

  • O the gyroscopic effect of propeller torque changes.

  • O of the excess available power .

  • O imbalance of the lift/ weight couple vectors.

Explanation

Question 4 of 25

1

155 When landing, if the TAS is significantly less than the ground speed, you will have:

Select one of the following:

  • O a tailwind.

  • O a headwind.

  • O a lesser drag.

  • O a windsheer .

Explanation

Question 5 of 25

1

156 If the stalling speed of an aeroplane in the landing configuration (Vso) is 55kt, what should be the minimum approach speed.

Select one of the following:

  • O 71kt

  • O 60kt

  • O 42kt

  • O 48kt

Explanation

Question 6 of 25

1

157 The airspeed should be kept relatively high during a prolonged climb so that:

Select one of the following:

  • O the airflow that passes over and cools the engine is adequate.

  • O the desired distance is reached as soon as possible.

  • O the nose is kept low, visibility increased and drag decreased.

  • O altitude change is established as soon as possible, to the best angle of climb.

Explanation

Question 7 of 25

1

159 When carburettor heat is applied on the ground or in the air, the engine speed drops:

Select one of the following:

  • O because there is a power loss resulting from warmer less dense air entering the combustion chamber.

  • O because airflow in the main jet is mechanically inhibited.

  • O because fuel flow is increased to compensate for the weaker mixture due to denser air.

  • O because fuel flow is reduced to compensate for the warmer denser air entering the combustion chamber.

Explanation

Question 8 of 25

1

160 If an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller is in a steep dive, excessive engine RPM would:

Select one of the following:

  • O be prevented by throttling back as required.

  • O not occur owing to the propeller governor.

  • O not be critical due to presence of higher parasite drag.

  • O be governed aerodynamically by the disproportionate increase in propeller drag that resists rotation.

Explanation

Question 9 of 25

1

161 When loading a light aeroplane:

Select one of the following:

  • O it is important to ensure that the C of G is within limits and the take-off weight does not exceed the maximum authorized take-off weight (MTOW).

  • O certification requirements specify that all seats and tanks are within the C of G limits so that no combination of loads can cause the C of G to be outside those limits.

  • O certification requirements specify that the capacity of seats and tanks is such that even with them all filled, the maximum take-off weight authorised will not be exceeded.

  • O it is important to ensure that the C of G is within limits, even if the take-off weight slightly exceeds the maximum take-off weight.

Explanation

Question 10 of 25

1

162 The required fuel load for a flight is 500 pounds. Given that the specific gravity of the fuel is 0.73, how much fuel in litres should be uplifted, presuming the tanks are empty?

Select one of the following:

  • O 310 litres.

  • O 500 litres.

  • O 285 litres.

  • O 685 litres.

Explanation

Question 11 of 25

1

163 Before refuelling, an aircraft, had a weight of 2122 pounds and the total moments were 75900 lb in aft of the datum. 354 lb of fuel were loaded which had an effective arm of 48 inches aft of the datum. The new total aft of datum moments were:
.

Select one of the following:

  • O 92.984 lb in.

  • O 85.317 lb in.

  • O 89.900 lb in.

  • O 120.110 lb in.

Explanation

Question 12 of 25

1

164 In case of a full complement of passengers and maximum possible baggage load are to be carried:

Select one of the following:

  • O the fuel uplift may have to be restricted to prevent the maximum take-off weight being exceeded.

  • O full fuel tanks must be carried and extra oil left home.

  • O the fuel load need not to be taken into account separately in the loading calculations.

  • O the fuel load must not exceed 70% of the fuel tank capacity during MTOW calculations.

Explanation

Question 13 of 25

1

165 An oil tank containing 3 US gallons of oil weighing 6 lb/gal . And is 17 inches from the aeroplane datum point. The oil tank moment, will be:

Select one of the following:

  • O 306 lb in.

  • O 184 lb in:

  • O 17 lb in.

  • O 34 lb in.

Explanation

Question 14 of 25

1

166 13 Imperial gallons of fuel with a specific gravity of 0.72 weighs:

Select one of the following:

  • O 93.5 lbs.

  • O 88.1 lbs.

  • O 103.0lbs.

  • O 28.6lbs.

Explanation

Question 15 of 25

1

167 Aeroplane planned take-off weight = 2122lb.
Calculated C of G for departure = 35.78 inches aft of the datum.
Planned fuel burn during the flight = 354lb, positioned 48 inches aft of the datum. What is the calculated C of G position in inches aft of the datum for landing?

Select one of the following:

  • O 33.30"

  • O 35.80"

  • O 41.00"

  • O 37.50"

Explanation

Question 16 of 25

1

168 For a given fuel load, if the aircraft all up weight is increased, the range will:

Select one of the following:

  • O be reduced.

  • O be unchanged.

  • O be increased.

  • O only be reduced if the a/c is flown at a higher altitude in less dense air.

Explanation

Question 17 of 25

1

169 Gliding for maximum range requires:

Select one of the following:

  • O a relatively low angle of attack.

  • O a steep angle of attack.

  • O a negative angle of attack.

  • O a neutral angle of attack.

Explanation

Question 18 of 25

1

170 The primary reason for making a take-off into wind is to:

Select one of the following:

  • O reduce the take-off distance.

  • O reduce the fuel consumption.

  • O reduce the TAS at which the aeroplane takes off.

  • O reduce the emergency distance available(ASDA), in the event of an aborted take-off.

Explanation

Question 19 of 25

1

171 The best rate of climb speed will achieve:

Select one of the following:

  • O the greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time.

  • O the maximum increase in height in the shortest distance from take-off.

  • O the best obstacle clearance performance.

  • O the greatest gain in height for the shortest distance travelled over the surface.

Explanation

Question 20 of 25

1

172 On occasions when the ambient air density is low, the resulting reduction in:

Select one of the following:

  • O both lift and engine power will require, a longer take-off run.

  • O drag permits the use of greater flap angles during the take-off phase.

  • O climb rate will require a maximum fuel consumption.

  • O drag and surface friction during the take-off phase will necessitate a longer take-off run.

Explanation

Question 21 of 25

1

173 The probable consequence of any ambient temperature increase upon air density and aircraft performance would be:

Select one of the following:

  • O decrease in both air density and engine power available.

  • O an increase in both air density and engine power available.

  • O a decrease in air density with an attendant increase in engine power available.

  • O an increase in air density with an attendant decrease in engine power available.

Explanation

Question 22 of 25

1

174 If the barometric pressure falls after the altimeter sub-scale of an aircraft on the ground has been set, the altimeter will indicate:

Select one of the following:

  • O an increased altitude indication.

  • O the same altitude as when the sub-scale was set.

  • O a lower altitude indication.

  • O an altitude that is below pressure altitude.

Explanation

Question 23 of 25

1

175 An aeroplane operating from a flat runway in the same wind conditions as when operating from an up-sloping runway will require a ....(i).... take-off distance and a ....(ii).... landing distance.

Select one of the following:

  • O (i) shorter (ii) longer

  • O (i) longer (ii) longer

  • O (i) longer (ii) shorter

  • O (i) shorter (ii) shorter

Explanation

Question 24 of 25

1

176 The effect on take-off performance of an over-loaded aeroplane is:

Select one of the following:

  • O it will have reduced acceleration and require a greater take-off run.

  • O it will accelerate slower but will have a better rate of climb.

  • O the maximum operating altitude will be reduced but the gliding range will be increased.

  • O the landing speed will be reduced but the final approach rate of decent increased.

Explanation

Question 25 of 25

1

177 Compared to operating from a runway at sea level, an aeroplane operating from a runway at a high pressure altitude in the same wind conditions will require:

Select one of the following:

  • O a longer take off run and longer landing distance.

  • O a shorter take off run and shorter landing distance.

  • O a longer take off run but a shorter landing distance.

  • O a shorter take off run but a longer landing distance.

Explanation