Virology (week 5 and 6)

Question 1 of 66

1

What is the basic structure of Adenoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Non‐enveloped, icosahedral, ds DNA
Enveloped, icosahedral, ds DNA
Enveloped, icosahedral, ss DNA

Explanation

Question 2 of 66

1

Which of the below are features of Adenoviridae?

Select one or more of the following:

Relatively stable in environment
Persistent infection common
Narrow host ranges
Causes respiratory and gastroenteric diseases
Labile in the environment
Rarely a persistent infection
Can infect a variety of hosts

Explanation

Question 3 of 66

1

Which of the below are genera of Adenoviridae

Select one or more of the following:

Siadenovirus
Atadenovirus
Mastadenovirus
Aviadenovirus
Betaherpesviridae
Panleukopaenia virus
Orbivirus

Explanation

Question 4 of 66

1

How can canine adenovirus 1 (canine hepatitis) be transmitted?

Select one or more of the following:

Infection through nasopharyngeal, oral and conjunctival route of entry
Vector transmission
Ingestion of urine, faeces or saliva from an infected animal
Transdermal infection

Explanation

Question 5 of 66

1

What is the route of infection of canine adenovirus 1?

Select one of the following:

Tonsillar crypts-->Regional lymph nodes-->Bloodstream via thoracic duct-->Endothelial and parenchymal cells of many organs
Tonsillar crypts-->Regional lymph nodes-->Bloodstream via thoracic duct-->Endothelial and parenchymal cells of only the kidneys
Regional lymph nodes-->Tonsillar crypts-->Bloodstream via thoracic duct-->Endothelial and parenchymal cells of only the liver

Explanation

Question 6 of 66

1

Infection of endothelial and parenchymal cells of many organs leads to?

Select one of the following:

Haemorrhage and necrosis, especially of liver, kidneys, spleen and lungs
Asymptomatic infection
CNS dysfunction
Tumour formation

Explanation

Question 7 of 66

1

In general terms clinical recovery coincides with production of neutralising antibody, approximately how long after infection?

Select one of the following:

10 days
3 days
21 days
19 days

Explanation

Question 8 of 66

1

What are the overlapping syndromes of clinical disease in animals infected with canine adenovirus 1?

Select one or more of the following:

Peracute disease: pup found dead, often with short lived (3‐4 hours) or no apparent illness
Acute disease: may be fatal. Fever, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea, pettechial haemorrhages of gums, pale mucous membranes
Mild or inapparent disease
Chronic disease: Chronic fever, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea, pettechial haemorrhages of gums, pale mucous membranes
Peracute disease: may be fatal. Fever, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea, pettechial haemorrhages of gums, pale mucous membranes
Acute disease: pup found dead, often with short lived (3‐4 hours) or no apparent illness

Explanation

Question 9 of 66

1

What is the incubation period of canine adenovirus 1?

Select one of the following:

4-9 days
2-3 days
10-12 days
12-24 hrs

Explanation

Question 10 of 66

1

When might canine adenovirus 1 be suggested as a diagnosis for a patient that enters the clinic?

Select one of the following:

History of fever, sudden collapse, and abdominal pain in young dogs
History of fever, sneezing and nasal discharge in older dogs
History of fever, sudden collapse, and abdominal pain in older dogs
History of fever, sneezing and nasal discharge in younger dogs
History of fever and seizures in younger dogs
History of fever and seizures in older dogs

Explanation

Question 11 of 66

1

How long can recovered dogs shed canine adenovirus 1 in urine for?

Select one of the following:

up to 6 months
up to 3 weeks
up to 1 month
up to 12 days
up to 12 months

Explanation

Question 12 of 66

1

Why might corneal oedema (Blue eye) develop in convalescing dogs and dogs recently vaccinated with CAV1?

Select one of the following:

Caused by virus‐antibody complexes in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea
Caused by vaccine adjuvent in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea
Caused by a hypersensitivity type I reaction in response to viral antibodies in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea
Caused by cytokine production by B cells in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea

Explanation

Question 13 of 66

1

Which of the below are features of a CAV2 (Canine adenovirus 2) infection?

Select one or more of the following:

Can lead to bronchitis and bronchiolitis
Causes localised respiratory
disease (part of kennel cough complex)
No systemic infection
CAV2 provides complete homologous protection and cross protection against disease caused by CAV1 without side effects
Convalescing animals can develop corneal oedema (Blue eye)
Causes haemorrhage and necrosis, especially of liver, kidneys, spleen and lungs

Explanation

Question 14 of 66

1

Which of the below are features of Equine adenovirus1?

Select one or more of the following:

Isolated worldwide
Isolated from young horses with and without respiratory disease (can be symptomatic or asymptomatic)
Always causes symptomatic disease
Latent infection
Virus is endemic only to South East Asia and Africa
Mostly asymptomatic or mild disease

Explanation

Question 15 of 66

1

Which of the below are features of Equine adenovirus 2?

Select one or more of the following:

Isolated from lymph nodes and faeces of foals with respiratory disease and diarrhoea
Mostly asymptomatic or mild disease
Latent infection
Isolated worldwide
Endemic only to Africa and North America

Explanation

Question 16 of 66

1

What breed of horses (foals) is known to be born with a genetically based primary severe combined immunodeficiency (an autosomal inherited defect) where there is a complete absence of T and B lymphocytes, and the animals are unable to mount an adaptive immune response when maternal immunity wanes making them susceptible to death within 3 months of birth from adenovirus 1 and 2?

Select one of the following:

Arabian foals
Thoroughbred foals
Friesian foals
Clydesdale foals
Dutch warmblood foals
Shetland pony

Explanation

Question 17 of 66

1

What family of viruses is this cow likely to be infected with?

Select one of the following:

A Papillomavirus
An Adenovirus
Herpesviridae
Panleukopaenia viruses

Explanation

Question 18 of 66

1

What is the basic structure of the Papillomaviruses?

Select one of the following:

Non‐enveloped double stranded circular DNA viruses
Enveloped double stranded circular DNA viruses
Non‐enveloped single stranded circular DNA viruses
Enveloped single stranded circular DNA viruses

Explanation

Question 19 of 66

1

What do Papillomaviruses cause?

Select one of the following:

Papillomas (warts)
Ulcers
Papules
Macules

Explanation

Question 20 of 66

1

Which of the below are features of Papillomaviruses?

Select one or more of the following:

May give rise to carcinomas, usually with appropriate co‐factors
Papillomavirus replication linked to growth and differentiation of stratified squamous epithelium of skin and some mucous membranes
Resistant in the environment
Resistant to solvents, disinfectants, low pH and high temperature
Resistant to solvents, disinfectants, high pH and low temperature
Labile in the environment
Usually regress after several weeks
Lesions are typically finger‐like projections of proliferating epithelium supported by a thin core of fibrous connective tissue

Explanation

Question 21 of 66

1

In what age group of animals are papillomavirus lesions usually associated?

Select one of the following:

Young animals
Old animals
Middle aged animals

Explanation

Question 22 of 66

1

What species of animal are the most commonly affected by papillomavirus warts?

Select one of the following:

Cattle
Sheep
Horses
Dogs
Pigs
Chickens

Explanation

Question 23 of 66

1

How many different bovine papillomaviruses are recognised?

Select one of the following:

At least 10 different genera
At least 20 different genera
At least 2 different genera

Explanation

Question 24 of 66

1

How are bovine papillomaviruses transmitted?

Select one or more of the following:

Transmission by fomite transfer (eg. contaminated equipment and facilities)
Sexual transmission
Vector transmission
Respiratory droplet transmission
Ingestion of faeces and urine

Explanation

Question 25 of 66

1

Bovine papillomaviruses ❌ cause cutaneous fibropaplillomas (warts) on udder, head and neck and genitalia

Bovine papillomaviruses ❌ cause lesions with les fibrous tissue

Bovine papillomavirus ❌ associated with enzootic haematuria. Cattle eat bracken fern which contains carcinogens, mutagens and immunosuppressive agents

Bovine papillomavirus ❌ is associated with lesions in the alimentary tract, some of which progress to squamous cell carcinoma

Drag and drop to complete the text.

1, 2 and 5

3 and 6

1 and 2

4

5

4 and 5

7

Explanation

Question 26 of 66

1

Which of the below are features of equine papillomavirus?

Select one or more of the following:

Cause aural plaques and cutaneous papillomas
Regression occurs in 1‐9 months
Generally occur around the muzzle of young horses
Can lead to equine sarcoids
Associated with enzootic haematuria

Explanation

Question 27 of 66

1

What is the most common skin tumour of horses, mules and donkeys?

Select one of the following:

Sarcoid
Squamous cell carcinoma
Melanoma
Fibroma

Explanation

Question 28 of 66

1

Which of the below are features of equine sarcoids?

Select one or more of the following:

Superficial ulceration and secondary trauma are common
Do not metastasize
Locally aggressive
Occur singly or in groups
Head, ventral abdomen and limbs affected most commonly
More common in animals <4 years of age
Metastatic

Explanation

Question 29 of 66

1

What is the basic structure of reoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Non-enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented double stranded RNA genome
Non-enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented single stranded RNA genome
Enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented double stranded RNA genome
Enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented single stranded RNA genome
Non-enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented double stranded DNA genome

Explanation

Question 30 of 66

1

Correctly match the genera of Reoviridae

Drag an answer into the correct orange point.

Orthoreovirus

Orbivirus

Coltivirus

Rotavirus

Aquareovirus

Dolitivirus

Explanation

Question 31 of 66

1

What species of animal can show diseases of Bluetongue?

Select one of the following:

Sheep, cattle and goats
Sheep, goats and pigs
Sheep, goats and rabbits
Dogs, cats and sheep

Explanation

Question 32 of 66

1

Which of the below are symptoms/clinical signs of Bluetongue virus in sheep?

Select one or more of the following:

Hyperaemia of oral and buccal cavities (salivation / frothy mouth)
Oedema (head and neck)
Hyperaemia of the coronary bands
Cyanosis of the tongue
Nasal discharge (serous – mucopurulent – blood flecked)
Abortion of lambs or lambs born with congenital abnormalities (hydranencephaly)
Severe cases have a protracted recovery (may lose part of the fleece)
Death occurs in up to 30% of cases, but more commonly 2 – 8%
Sheep experience asymptomatic infection
Course of disease is variable from sub-clinical to death (eg. Mild cases recover rapidly)

Explanation

Question 33 of 66

1

What form of disease do cattle and goats experience in comparison to sheep?

Select one of the following:

Cattle experience asymptomatic infection (except current BTV 8)
Goats experience a milder form of disease than sheep
Cattle experience a milder form of disease than sheep
Goats experience asymptomatic infection (except current BTV 8)
Both cattle and goats experience a more severe form than sheep
Cattle experience a more severe form of disease than sheep
Goats experience asymptomatic infection

Explanation

Question 34 of 66

1

What is the pathogenesis of bluetongue virus?

Select one or more of the following:

Incubation period ~ 1 week (time between infection and clinical signs)
Incubation period ~ 1 day (time between infection and clinical signs)
Viraemia lasts 14-28 days (cows up to 10 weeks)
It is an arbovirus transmitted by Culicoides spp.
It is an arbovirus transmitted by Lucilia spp.
Associated with red blood cells and leukocytes
Viraemia lasts 7-10 days (cows up to 6 weeks)

Explanation

Question 35 of 66

1

What is the basic structure of the parvoviruses?

Select one of the following:

Small non‐enveloped single stranded DNA viruses
Small non‐enveloped single stranded RNA viruses
Small enveloped single stranded DNA viruses
Small non‐enveloped double stranded DNA viruses
Small enveloped double stranded DNA viruses

Explanation

Question 36 of 66

1

What are the main features of the parvoviruses?

Select one or more of the following:

Replicate in nucleus
Very resistant to detergents, drying, heat, solvents, pH changes, disinfectants
Very stable in the environment
Require rapidly dividing cells (S‐phase)-- eg. intestinal cells
Easily killed by detergents, drying, heat, solvents, pH changes, disinfectants
Labile in the environment
Replicate in the cytoplasm

Explanation

Question 37 of 66

1

What genus do all parvoviruses of veterinary significance belong? Which sub-family does this sit within?

Select one of the following:

Genus Parvovirus in the Sub‐Family Parvovirinae
Genus Protoparvovirus in the Sub‐Family Parvovirinae
Genus Parvovirus in the Sub‐Family Densovirinae
Genus Protoparvovirus in the Sub‐Family Densovirinae

Explanation

Question 38 of 66

1

Describe the pathogenicity and clinical symptoms of feline panleukopaenia virus?

Select one or more of the following:

Highly contagious, systemic and enteric disease of cats
Causes bone marrow suppression, GIT signs, cerebellar hypoplasia (foetus)
Causes generalised disease of cats (domestic and wild cats)
Many infections are sub‐clinical
Onset of disease associated with profound panleukopaenia + fever
Incubation period ~5 days
Prefers mitotically active cells (S‐phase) (eg. Intestinal crypt cells, Lymphopoietic cells of bone marrow, Foetal cells (cerebellum, retina, death))
Acute cases progress to vomiting, (bloody) diarrhoea, dehydration while severe cases die in peracute stage
Distributed by free and cell associated viraemia
Virus enters via oropharynx, replicates in pharyngeal lymphoid tissue

Explanation

Question 39 of 66

1

Which of the below explain the epidemiology of feline panleukopaenia virus?

Select one or more of the following:

One serotype with worldwide distribution
Endemic infection in vaccinated cat populations: unvaccinated cats at most risk
Endemic disease in unvaccinated cat populations: young cats affected
Two serotypes both with worldwide distribution
Seasonal disease pattern (kitten season)
Cats of all ages susceptible (Primarily see disease in kittens as maternal antibody wanes)
Incubation period ~5 days
Incubation period ~10 days
Causes generalised disease of cats (domestic and wild cats)
Causes generalised disease of cats and dogs (domestic and wild)

Explanation

Question 40 of 66

1

How can feline panleukopaenia be transmitted?

Select one or more of the following:

Trans‐placental infection in susceptible queens
Virus excretion in faeces (several weeks after clinical recovery), also in saliva, urine, vomit (acute stages)
Vector transmission
Direct contact required for transmission (eg. open wounds)

Explanation

Question 41 of 66

1

How might feline panleukopaenia be prevented and treated?

Select one or more of the following:

Supportive therapy (eg. Fluid therapy, blood / plasma transfusion, broad spectrum antibiotics)
Catteries: strict hygiene, quarantine and disinfection required
Vaccination (Inactivated and live‐virus vaccines available)
Antivirals are often used
Cleaning with bleach

Explanation

Question 42 of 66

1

What is the epidemiology of canine parvovirus 2?

Select one or more of the following:

Endemic worldwide
3 variants recognised (2a, 2b, 2c)
All members of Canidae family susceptible
High morbidity and mortality in initial outbreak situation (all ages affected)
High spread
Only endemic to Australia
Only domestic dogs are susceptible

Explanation

Question 43 of 66

1

What are the clinical signs that a dog has canine parvovirus 2?

Select one or more of the following:

Severe disease in pups between 6 weeks and 6 months of age (waning maternal immunity)
Myocarditis (but uncommon)
Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis and vomiting
Disease may be mild or sub‐clinical if sufficient immunity
Severely affected animals die
Causes CNS symptoms
Severe disease in adult dogs most often
Myocarditis (very common)

Explanation

Question 44 of 66

1

What is the pathogenesis of canine parvovirus 2?

Select one or more of the following:

Myocarditis in pups infected late gestation or first 2 weeks of age due to rapid proliferation of myocytes in the perinatal period
Maldigestion and malabsorption and often severe haemorrhage (foetid smell, diarrhoea)
Mucosal collapse with contraction and fusion of villi of small intestine
Rapidly dividing cells in intestinal crypts are infected
Infection of the upper respiratory tract, mucosal cells (oronasal discharge)
Myocardial inflammation and necrosis

Explanation

Question 45 of 66

1

How can canine parvovirus 2 be diagnosed?

Select one or more of the following:

PCR assays
Haemagglutination
Presumptive diagnosis based on sudden onset of foul smelling haemorrhagic diarrhoea
Faecal immunoassays (virus shedding is transient: 3‐7 days after infection)
Bacterial culture

Explanation

Question 46 of 66

1

How can canine parvovirus be prevented and treated?

Select one or more of the following:

Supportive therapy (Fluid therapy, blood / plasma transfusion, broad spectrum antibiotics)
Kennels and shelters: strict hygiene, quarantine and disinfection\required
Vaccination (Inactivated and live‐virus vaccines available)
Antivirals are used often
Disinfection using sodium hypochlorite
Disinfection using Formalin, β‐propiolactone and oxidising agents

Explanation

Question 47 of 66

1

If there is an outbreak or a larger than normal number of puppies with parvovirus that are younger than 6 weeks, what should you do?

Select one of the following:

Vaccinate earlier, maternal antibodies may be waning earlier than the recommended 6 to 8 week vaccine start date
Vaccinate at the recommended 6 to 8 week vaccine start date as there is nothing you can do
Vaccinate adult animals more often than the 3 or more year recommended booster shot to increase immunity

Explanation

Question 48 of 66

1

What is the estimated relative efficacy of the below vaccines at 7 years post vaccination according to research conducted by Professor Ronald D. Schultz
Canine Distemper (ML)
Canine rDistemper (R)
Canine Parvovirus-2 (ML)
Canine Adenovirus-2 (ML)

Select one of the following:

99%
75%
21%
88%

Explanation

Question 49 of 66

1

Why do we give multiple doses of infectious vaccines to puppies?

Select one of the following:

As we cannot predict duration of waning maternal immunity, maternal immunity may wane at different times for different puppies
As we hope to make more money
As we cannot give a huge dose of vaccine all at once to a puppy

Explanation

Question 50 of 66

1

What is correct for S.M.E.D.I.?

Select one of the following:

Stillbirth
Mummification
Embryonic Death
Infertility
Swine
Mummification
Embryonic Death
Infertility
Stillbirth
Maternal death
Embryonic Death
Infertility

Explanation

Question 51 of 66

1

Porcine parvovirus is an important cause of reproductive failure in swine worldwide?

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 52 of 66

1

What is the epidemiology of porcine parvovirus?

Select one or more of the following:

Most significant if virus is introduced into seronegative herd
Enzootic in many herds
Virus stable in environment for months
Morbidity reduced by vaccination
In endemic situation: disease seen in seronegative gilts infected in the sow herd when pregnant
Endemic only to the UK

Explanation

Question 53 of 66

1

What are the clinical signs of porcine parvovirus?

Select one or more of the following:

Clinical signs in foetus depend on stage of gestation – apparent at farrowing
First clinical sign is often increased number of young sows returning to oestrus 3‐8 weeks after breeding
Some sows remain “endocrinologically pregnant” and don’t come back into oestrus until expected farrowing date
Reproductive failure
Death of young sows/gilts
Lifelong infertility in sows

Explanation

Question 54 of 66

1

What is the pathogenesis of porcine parvovirus?

Select one or more of the following:

<30 days gestation: foetal death and resorption
Local replication in tonsillar lymphoid tissue precedes viraemia and trans‐placental
Takes ~ 15 days for virus to reach foetus after infection
Takes ~ 2 days for virus to reach foetus after infection
Takes ~ 24 days for virus to reach foetus after infection
>70 days gestation: stillbirth or normal piglet (depends on immune response)
30‐70 days gestation: foetus fail to develop (mummification/stillbirth
>70 days gestation: foetal death and resorption

Explanation

Question 55 of 66

1

How can porcine parvovirus be diagnosed?

Select one or more of the following:

Difficult to diagnose early infections as embryonic death and resorption not obvious and no specimens
Serology (but limited usefulness)
Haemagglutination assays
PCR assays
Infected foeti contain high levels of virus
Ultrasound
Odd behaviour of sows when virus is infecting the placenta

Explanation

Question 56 of 66

1

How can porcine parvovirus be prevented

Select one or more of the following:

Vaccination (inactivated vaccine) is available (however, limited opportunity to vaccinate gilts as they are bred at 7 months of age (waning maternal antibody)
Exposure of gilts prior to mating induces immunity (so that they do not become infected while pregnant)
Gilts should not be mated until they are 2yrs old
Abortion should be forced for the gilts first litter so she can become pregnant again quickly

Explanation

Question 57 of 66

1

What is the basic structure of the Circoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Non‐enveloped, single stranded DNA
Enveloped, single stranded DNA
Non‐enveloped, single stranded RNA
Non‐enveloped, double stranded DNA
Enveloped, double stranded DNA

Explanation

Question 58 of 66

1

What are the general features of the circoviridae?

Select one or more of the following:

Require actively dividing cells
Persistent infections
Stable at pH 3‐9
Resistant to disinfectants
Resistant to heating at 60oC, 30 minutes
Very stable in environment
Labile in the environment
Latent infections
Stable at pH 7-9

Explanation

Question 59 of 66

1

What are the veterinary important circoviridae of those listed below?

Select one or more of the following:

Psittacine beak and feather disease
Porcine circovirus
Chicken anaemia virus
Feline panleukopaenia
African horse sickness

Explanation

Question 60 of 66

1

What is the epidemiology of Psittacine beak and feather disease?

Select one or more of the following:

First identified in Australian parrots in captivity
Birds under 5 years at greater risk
Disease in cockatoos, parrots and budgerigars
Disease in pigeons
Endemic to Africa only

Explanation

Question 61 of 66

1

What clinical symptoms does Psittacine beak and feather disease cause?

Select one of the following:

Feather loss, feather deformities and Beak and claw deformities
Feather loss, feather deformities and pulmonary oedema
Liver necrosis and pulmonary oedema
Vomiting and diarrhoea

Explanation

Question 62 of 66

1

What is the pathogenesis of

Select one or more of the following:

In wild birds, malformed feathers and beak lead to difficulty feeding and death. In care, these birds can live for months/years if fed
Basophillic intracytoplasmic inclusions in follicular epithelium
Virus replicates in basal epithelial layer of feather follicles, beak and claws
Lymphoid depletion
Progressive disease
Virus replicates in the intestinal crypts
Virus causes death in less than 3 months due tp destruction of the intestinal crypts

Explanation

Question 63 of 66

1

How can Psittacine beak and feather disease be diagnosed?

Select one of the following:

Clinical signs and histology (basophillic inclusions in feather follicles), PCR assays
Clinical signs and histology (basophillic inclusions in feather follicles), PCR assays, cell culture
Clinical signs and histology (basophillic inclusions in feather follicles), bacterial culture

Explanation

Question 64 of 66

1

How can Psittacine beak and feather disease be controlled/prevented?

Select one or more of the following:

Strict hygiene and quarantine protocols needed to keep infection out of breeding aviaries
There is only an experimental vaccine
Vaccination
Hard to eradicate when in the environment

Explanation

Question 65 of 66

1

What are the general features of porcine circovirus?

Select one or more of the following:

Widespread in most pig populations
6 week old pigs present with weight loss, enlarged lymph nodes and dyspnoea
Progressive wasting disease
Causes a variety of clinical disease syndromes: Post‐weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome is most important
Causes infertility and abortions
Endemic only to Asia

Explanation

Question 66 of 66

1

What are the general features of Chicken Anaemia disease?

Select one or more of the following:

Horizontal transmission by direct contact and contaminated fomites
Vertical transmission (into eggs)
2‐3 weeks of age: anorectic, anaemic, bone marrow aplasia, atrophy of thymus, bursa and spleen
Virus shed in faeces and feather dander
Virus shed in oronasal discharge
Young birds develop aplastic anaemia and generalised lymphoid atrophy
Only affects chickens
Affects all species of poultry

	Created by Kathryn Borg about 8 years ago

DVM2 Virology Quiz on Virology (week 5 and 6), created by Kathryn Borg on 04/05/2016.

Virology (week 5 and 6)

Question 1 of 66

What is the basic structure of Adenoviridae?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 66

Which of the below are features of Adenoviridae?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 66

Which of the below are genera of Adenoviridae

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 66

How can canine adenovirus 1 (canine hepatitis) be transmitted?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 66

What is the route of infection of canine adenovirus 1?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 66

Infection of endothelial and parenchymal cells of many organs leads to?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 66

In general terms clinical recovery coincides with production of neutralising antibody, approximately how long after infection?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 66

What are the overlapping syndromes of clinical disease in animals infected with canine adenovirus 1?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 66

What is the incubation period of canine adenovirus 1?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 66

When might canine adenovirus 1 be suggested as a diagnosis for a patient that enters the clinic?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 66

How long can recovered dogs shed canine adenovirus 1 in urine for?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 66

Why might corneal oedema (Blue eye) develop in convalescing dogs and dogs recently vaccinated with CAV1?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 66

Which of the below are features of a CAV2 (Canine adenovirus 2) infection?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 66

Which of the below are features of Equine adenovirus1?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 66

Which of the below are features of Equine adenovirus 2?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 66

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 66

What family of viruses is this cow likely to be infected with?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 66

What is the basic structure of the Papillomaviruses?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 66

What do Papillomaviruses cause?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 66

Which of the below are features of Papillomaviruses?

Select one or more of the following: