Gen Vet Med Midterm 1

Question 1 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT a level of refinement for a problem?

Select one of the following:

Clinical signs
Pathophysiology
Lab data
Tentative diagnosis

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

1

A problem may be refined with accumulation of facts, temporarily inactivated, resolved, but never removed.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a problem oriented medical record?

Select one of the following:

Approaches each problem separately
Excellent for group practice communication
Eliminates oversight
Excellent for teaching logical and thorough diagnostic approach

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

1

What does bifurcation allow us to do?

Select one of the following:

Evaluate broad categories of rule outs
Potentially use less invasive diagnostic tools
Potentially use less expensive diagnotics
All of the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

1

Check all that are included in the minimum data base.

Select one or more of the following:

Signalment
System
Degree of evaluation
Final diagnosis
Physical exam findings

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

1

The master problem list may contain vaccine information, HW test, Felv status, or drugs dispensed.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

1

The last page of the master list acts as an index.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

1

A problem is anything that will interfere with the animal's well being and will require further evaluation and treatment.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

1

SOAP is the method utilized for progress notes.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

1

Which describes the subjective section of a SOAP.

Select one of the following:

Historical, overall assessment (ex. BAR), observations that are not easily quantified (stronger, better appetite, etc)
Daily PE findings, quantitated data (lab results, rad findings, ECG, neuro exam)
Interpretation and explanation of problem at this time period, current differential diagnosis, evaluation of treatment, how this case differs from typical case, shows student's understanding of case
What tests will be performed in the next 24 hrs, list therapeutic objectives and goals, what treatments will be administered in the next 24 hrs (include dose, frequency, route of administration), client education

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

1

Which of the following describes the assessment section of a SOAP?

Select one of the following:

Historical, overall assessment (BAR), observations not easily quantitated (stronger, better appetite, etc)
Daily PE findings, quantitated data (lab results, rad findings, ECG, neuro exam)
Interpretation and explanation of problem at this time period, current differential diagnosis, evaluation of treatment, how this case differs from typical case, shows student's understanding of case
What tests will be performed in the next 24 hrs, list therapeutic objectives and goals, what treatment will be administered in the next 24 hrs (include dose, frequency, route of administration), client education

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

1

Which of the following are to be included in recording client education.

Select one of the following:

Time of communication
Person talked with
Summarize conversation
All of the above
None of the above

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

1

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

Shock occurs when oxygen delivery does not equal oxygen consumption
Hypovolemic shock can be due to GDV, caval syndrome, cardiac tamponade
Distributive shock can occur due to vasodilation effectively removing blood from circulation, sepsis, or anaphlaxis
Cardiac shock can result from decreased cardiac output

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

1

Blood pressure can change when there are changes to systemic vascular resistance and/or cardiac output.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT a compensatory response to hypotension?

Select one of the following:

Sympathetic activtion
RAAS
ADH
Vasodilation

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

1

Many of the clinical signs of hypovolemic shock are due to compensatory mechanisms.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

1

Which set of clinical signs is associated with compensated shock?

Select one of the following:

Normal mentation, increased heart rate, normal to decrease temperature, normal to tacky pale mucous membranes, normal to around 2 second CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses) blood pressure, normal to increased (1-4) lactate
Mentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate increased in dogs, decreased in cats; decreased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; low blood pressure; lactate> 3
Normal mentation, decreased heart rate, normal to increased temperature, normal to tacky pale mucous membranes, normal CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses) blood pressure, normal to increased (1-4) lactate
Mentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate decreased in dogs, increased in cats; increased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; elevated blood pressure; lactate> 3

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

1

Which set of clinical signs is associated with early decompensation?

Select one of the following:

Mentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate increased in dogs, decreased in cats; decreased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; low blood pressure; lactate> 3
Normal mentation, increased heart rate, normal to decreased temperature, normal to tacky, pale mucous membranes, normal to around 2 seconds CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses), normal to increased (1-4) lactate
Mentation may be depressed, obtunded, stupor; heart rate decreased in dogs, increased in cats; increased temperature; pale, cyanotic mucous membranes; CRT> 2 seconds; low blood pressure; lactate> 3
Normal mentation, decreased heart rate, normal to decreased temperature, normal to tacky, pale mucous membranes, normal to around 2 seconds CRT, normal (+/- bounding pulses), decreased lactate

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

1

What is the shock dose for dogs when using crystalloid IV fluids?

Select one of the following:

90 ml/kg
80 ml/kg
70 ml/kg
60 ml/kg

Explanation

Question 20 of 55

1

You should give most of the shock dose as quickly as you can.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 21 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT true about hypertonic saline?

Select one of the following:

It is 7% saline (NaCl)
When given IV it results in rapid movement of interstitial and intracellular fluid into intravascular space
It has a short lived effect
It is given in small volume over 20-30 minutes

Explanation

Question 22 of 55

1

Which of the following is/are reasons to use colloids during shock? Check all that you think apply.

Select one or more of the following:

Hyperproteinemia
Hypoproteinemia
Lack of response to initial crystalloid administration
To improve hydration after initial crystalloid administration
None of these

Explanation

Question 23 of 55

1

Vasopressors and positive inotropes are used due to poor response to volume replacement and for hypovolemic shock.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 24 of 55

1

Giving oxygen in shock provides oxygen to tissues but it may not change oxygen transport.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 25 of 55

1

Hypothermia improves vascular response to fluids which is why it is important to use passive warming. Coming out of hypothermia too rapidly will impair the vascular response.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 26 of 55

1

What % of body weight is blood volume?

Select one of the following:

6
7
8

Explanation

Question 27 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT an indication for fluid therapy?

Select one of the following:

Rehydration
Expansion of intravascular volume
Decrease plasma oncotic pressure
Correct electrolyte imbalances

Explanation

Question 28 of 55

1

Which of the following clinical signs is associated with 6-8% dehydration?

Select one or more of the following:

Undetectable
Delayed skin tent
Dry mucous membranes
Sunken eyes
Weak pulses

Explanation

Question 29 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of oral fluid therapy?

Select one of the following:

Most physiologic route
No risk of overhydration
Reduce electrolyte loss is dehydration
Rapid absorption

Explanation

Question 30 of 55

1

Subcutaneaous fluids are ok for mild dehydration but there is moderate risk of overhydration.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 31 of 55

1

Hypertonic solutions should only be administered in a central catheter when given IV.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 32 of 55

1

You should not give maintenance solutions unless a patient is hydrated.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 33 of 55

1

Hpertonic saline causes a rapid increase in intracellular volume.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 34 of 55

1

Which of the following are other treatments for shock, once the animal has been stabilized? Check all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

GI protectants to treat/prevent GI ulcers
GI protectants that are H2-blockers
Antibiotics for septic shock
Antibiotics for patients with GI hemorrhage
Antibiotics for compensatory shock
Analgesia, but not opiods
Sodium bicarbonate to treat severe acidosis if present after volume replacement

Explanation

Question 35 of 55

1

Sepsis is a subset of systemic inflammatory response syndrome.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 36 of 55

1

Which of the following distinguishes severe sepsis from septic shock?

Select one or more of the following:

Severe sepsis has hypotension that responds to fluid therapy and supportive care. It also requires vasopressors.
Severe sepsis has hypotension that responds to fluid therapy and supportive care. It does not require vasopressors.
Septic shock has hypotension, responds to fluid therapy,and requires vasopressors.
Septic shock has hypotension, is unresponsive to fluid therapy, and requires vasopressors.

Explanation

Question 37 of 55

1

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Select one of the following:

Hypovolemic shock- SIRS infection and hypotension
Septic shock- vasodilation + vasoconstriction + thrombosis
Cardiogenic shock- decreased myocardial function
Distributive shock- excessive capillary permeability and fluid loss

Explanation

Question 38 of 55

1

Check all that are early clinical signs of sepsis.

Select one or more of the following:

Depression
Fever
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Pale mucous membranes
Rapid CRT
Weak pulses

Explanation

Question 39 of 55

1

Urine should be cultured in suspected cases of sepsis. Bacteriuria can occur in sepsis without clinical signs of UTI.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 40 of 55

1

Which of the following would NOT be expected from laboratory tests in a case of sepsis? (sepsis is the only problem)

Select one of the following:

Post renal azotemia
Hypoglycemia
Hyperbilirubinemia
Elevated liver enzymes

Explanation

Question 41 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT or would not be part of a treatment plan for sepsis?

Select one of the following:

Narrow spectrum antibiotics
Nutritional support
Treat for shock if present
Treat complications such as DIC, organ failure, hypoglycemia
These are all used for treatment of sepsis

Explanation

Question 42 of 55

1

Which of the following defines hyperthermia?

Select one of the following:

Elevation in core body temperature due to a changed thermoregulatory set point in the hypothlamus
Elevation in body temperature above normal range that occurs without a change in the hypothalamic set point

Explanation

Question 43 of 55

1

Heat gain occurs by 2 broad mechanisms. Which of the following does NOT result in decreased loss?

Select one of the following:

Catecholamines
Vasoconstriction
Piloerection
Seek warm environment

Explanation

Question 44 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT a method of heat loss?

Select one of the following:

Vsodilation
Panting
Postural change
Seek cold environment
All of the above are methods of heat loss

Explanation

Question 45 of 55

1

Which of the following are possible causes for fever? Check all that apply.

Select one or more of the following:

Infection
Immune-mediated
Neoplastia
Inflammation
Drugs
Toxins

Explanation

Question 46 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic tool for stage 2 diagnosis of FUO? (fever of unknown origin)

Select one of the following:

Protein electrophoresis
Bone marrow aspirate
Dental rads
FNA of masses, lymph nodes

Explanation

Question 47 of 55

1

When doing a therapeutic antibiotic trial for FUO, how long, minimum, should the full dose be given?

Select one of the following:

5 days
1 weeks
10 days
2 weeks

Explanation

Question 48 of 55

1

Which of the following is FALSE regarding a therapeutic corticosteroid trial for FUO?

Select one of the following:

If truly immune-mediated, pyrexia and clinical signs are usually resolved in 48-72 hrs
Many conditions will respond to steroids initially
Complicates diagnosis of neoplasia
You must rule out infection as the cause first

Explanation

Question 49 of 55

1

NSAIDs act centrally on the hypothalamus and reduce prostaglandin production via inhibition of cycloxygenase which results in peripheral vasoconstriction.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 50 of 55

1

Which of the following does NOT result from excessive core body temperature associated with heat stroke/hyperthermia?

Select one of the following:

Intracellular alterations
Protein denaturation
Enzyme activation
Cell membrane instability

Explanation

Question 51 of 55

1

Heat stroke can damage the thermoregulatory center. This leads to a predisposition to subsequent hyperthermic episodes.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 52 of 55

1

Which of the following is NOT a renal effect from heat stroke?

Select one of the following:

Indirect thermal injury to renal tubular epithelium
Hypoxia due to hypovolemia
Microthrombi associated with DIC
Myoglobin from rhabdomyolysis is nephrotoxic and may exacerbate renal tubular dz

	Created by karahm almost 11 years ago

Covers POVMR through Fever and hyperthermia. There may be a few fluid therapy questions thrown in there (more on part 2)

Gen Vet Med Midterm 1

Gen Vet Med Midterm 1

Question 1 of 55

Which of the following is NOT a level of refinement for a problem?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

A problem may be refined with accumulation of facts, temporarily inactivated, resolved, but never removed.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a problem oriented medical record?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

What does bifurcation allow us to do?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

Check all that are included in the minimum data base.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

The master problem list may contain vaccine information, HW test, Felv status, or drugs dispensed.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

The last page of the master list acts as an index.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

A problem is anything that will interfere with the animal's well being and will require further evaluation and treatment.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

SOAP is the method utilized for progress notes.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

Which describes the subjective section of a SOAP.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

Which of the following describes the assessment section of a SOAP?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

Which of the following are to be included in recording client education.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

Which of the following is FALSE?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

Blood pressure can change when there are changes to systemic vascular resistance and/or cardiac output.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

Which of the following is NOT a compensatory response to hypotension?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

Many of the clinical signs of hypovolemic shock are due to compensatory mechanisms.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

Which set of clinical signs is associated with compensated shock?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

Which set of clinical signs is associated with early decompensation?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

What is the shock dose for dogs when using crystalloid IV fluids?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 55