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Project Mngt Chapters 5-9 T/F

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Chapters 5-9 T/F

Question 1 of 50

1

Scope management is the function controlling a project in terms of its goals and objectives during the execution phase.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

1

The statement of work is a detailed narrative description of the work required for a project.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

1

A comprehensive statement of work includes an estimate of time and costs, resource requirements, and the scope of the work to be performed.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

1

Until a project has gone through work breakdown structure, it is impossible to determine the relationships among the constituent activities.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

1

The scope baseline is a document that provides a summary description of each reporting relationship along with a schedule for meetings and reports.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

1

A work package may be composed of one or more subdeliverables.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

1

A work package may consist of more than one milestone.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

1

Work authorization functions as the formal "It's OK to begin work," on the project.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

1

The terms lump-sum contract and turnkey contract are interchangeable.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

1

A lump-sum contract requires the customer to pay for the full delivered price of the project before any work is done.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

1

Team building and conflict management skills are two of the most important people skills that project managers can cultivate.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

1

The first step in assembling a project team is to talk to potential team members.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

1

If preferred project team members are not available, the project manager should notify top management of the consequences.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

1

Project managers are best able to promote a sense of enthusiasm within the project team when they create an environment that is challenging, supportive, and personally rewarding.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

1

High turnover among project team members is a key element of success since new team members will bring fresh perspectives and ideas to the group.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

1

Project team productivity is at its peak during the norming phase of group development.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

1

The punctuated equilibrium model suggests that groups spend the majority of their time in stasis.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

1

Cross-functional cooperation directly influences both the actual implementation of the project and the team members' assessment that the project experience was worthwhile.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

1

In general, a superordinate goal is a replacement goal for the goals of all functional groups involved in the project.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

1

Accessibility is the perception of the project team members that they are physically located in such a way that it is easy for them to interact.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 21 of 50

1

The risk is highest in the earliest phase of the project life cycle.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 22 of 50

1

Opportunity emerges from favorable project circumstances and risk from unfavorable events.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 23 of 50

1

As risk decreases in the project life cycle, opportunity increases

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 24 of 50

1

Risks can be quantified by multiplying the likelihood a failure will occur by the severity of the failure.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 25 of 50

1

Technical risk is the probability that the project will not perform to the required standards or produce substandard products or have excessive operating cost consumption.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 26 of 50

1

The probability that the investments made to fund the front-end activities will be lost due to project abandonment is financing risk.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 27 of 50

1

One approach to risk mitigation is simply to accept it.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 28 of 50

1

Risk cannot be transferred because ultimately your own project will suffer the consequences if the event occurs.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 29 of 50

1

Contingency reserves require a construction company to hold back some funds in an account just in case something happens that increases the overall project cost.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 30 of 50

1

The highest dollar value of reserves is typically task contingency.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 31 of 50

1

Direct costs are those clearly assigned to the aspect of the project that generated the cost.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 32 of 50

1

Material is an example of a cost that is recurring, variable and direct.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 33 of 50

1

An expedited cost is one that does not vary with respect to their usage.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 34 of 50

1

The term expedited cost has the same meaning as crashing cost in the project management milieu.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 35 of 50

1

An order of magnitude estimate is usually more accurate than a ballpark estimate.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 36 of 50

1

Comparative estimates are more accurate than definitive estimates when applied to the same project.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 37 of 50

1

A learning rate of 90% means that for every doubling of output, the time required by the activity falls by 10%.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 38 of 50

1

Function point analysis is a system for estimating the size of software projects based on the number of lines of code a typical programmer can write in a day.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 39 of 50

1

A common reason for cost overruns in a project is a low initial estimate of project cost.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 40 of 50

1

There is a tendency for different departments or functions to compete for scarce resources in a zero-sum game when bottom-up budgeting is used to develop a project budget.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 41 of 50

1

Preceding activities are those that must occur before others can be done.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 42 of 50

1

A backward pass is performed when it is necessary to undo some work that has been performed in order to complete it properly.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 43 of 50

1

A merge activity has two or more immediate predecessors.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 44 of 50

1

Float is always measured in exactly the same way as slack.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 45 of 50

1

The PERT technique assumes that durations are more deterministic.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 46 of 50

1

Burst activities are those with two or more successor activities.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 47 of 50

1

You must know the mean of an activity in order to determine its standard deviation.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 48 of 50

1

In assigning a value for the most pessimistic (b) duration, the project manager should estimate the duration of the activity to have a 99% likelihood that it will take b or less amount of time.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation

Question 49 of 50

1

The late start time should be calculated using a forward pass through the network.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: FALSE

Explanation

Question 50 of 50

1

Negative float exists when a project's critical path has been completed more quickly than anticipated.

Select one of the following:

  • T/F

  • Answer: TRUE

Explanation