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Quiz on Phath & Pharm Lesson 3 Quiz, created by sschule on 07/12/2015.

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Phath & Pharm Lesson 3 Quiz

Phath & Pharm Lesson 3 Quiz

Question 1 of 40

1

Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenous exercise?

Select one of the following:

  • Rapid emptying of the right heart

  • Forceful action of the valves in the veins

  • Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle

  • Peristalsis in the large veins

Explanation

Question 2 of 40

1

What results from increased secretion of epinephrine?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased heart rate and force of contraction

  • Decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles

  • Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and the kidneys

  • Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels

Explanation

Question 3 of 40

1

Which of the following arteries branch off of the aorta?

Select one of the following:

  • Common carotid arteries

  • Pulmonary arteries

  • Coronary arteries

  • Subclavian arteries

Explanation

Question 4 of 40

1

Which of the following drugs decreases sodium and fluid retention in the body?

Select one of the following:

  • Warfarin (Coumadin)

  • Digoxin (Lanoxin)

  • Nitroglycerin (Isodil)

  • Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)

Explanation

Question 5 of 40

1

Which of the following are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in circulation:
1. Decreased viscosity of the blood
2. Damaged blood vessel walls
3. Immobility
4. Prosthetic valves

Select one of the following:

  • 1 and 3

  • 2 and 4

  • 1, 3, and 4

  • 2, 3, and 4

Explanation

Question 6 of 40

1

What drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion?

Select one of the following:

  • Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA or Aspirin)

  • Streptokinase

  • Acetaminophen

  • Heparin

Explanation

Question 7 of 40

1

What will a partial obstruction in a coronary artery likely cause?

Select one of the following:

  • Pulmonary Embolus

  • Hypertension

  • Angina attack

  • Myocardial infarction

Explanation

Question 8 of 40

1

Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because it _____.

Select one of the following:

  • reduces vasoconstriction and peripheral resistance

  • decrease serum lipid levels

  • promotes thrombus formation

  • increases serum HDL levels

Explanation

Question 9 of 40

1

Loss of blood supply in a limb may lead to ___________.

Select one of the following:

  • necrosis

  • ulcers

  • gangrene

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 10 of 40

1

What does the term "arteriosclerosis" specifically refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • Development of atheromas in large arteries

  • Changes in coronary arteries

  • Degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries

  • Ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart.

Explanation

Question 11 of 40

1

A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is ________.

Select one of the following:

  • sedentary lifestyle

  • female over 40 years of age

  • exclusion of saturated fats from diet

  • familial hypercholesterolemia

Explanation

Question 12 of 40

1

An atheroma develops from _________.

Select one of the following:

  • a torn arterial wall and blood clots

  • accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occured

  • a thrombus forming in damaged walls of veins

  • repeated vasospasms

Explanation

Question 13 of 40

1

Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following except________.

Select one of the following:

  • eating a large meal

  • an angry arguement

  • walking down stairs

  • walking rapidly up a hill on a cold, windy day

Explanation

Question 14 of 40

1

When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true:

Select one of the following:

  • both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis

  • angina often occurs at rest, MI occurs during stressful time

  • pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI

  • angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; pain of MI is not

Explanation

Question 15 of 40

1

What describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction:

Select one of the following:

  • cardiac output is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body

  • temporary vasospasm occurs in a coronary artery

  • total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial infarction

  • heart rate and force is irregular, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries

Explanation

Question 16 of 40

1

What are the early signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

  • brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm with labored breathing

  • persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse

  • bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea

  • flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness and numbness

Explanation

Question 17 of 40

1

Which statement describes a coronary artery bypass procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • removing the section of an artery containing plaque and thrombus

  • compressing the thrombus with an inflated balloon to provide a larger lumen

  • attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal and distal to the obstruction

  • adding pieces of vein to the end of each coronary artery

Explanation

Question 18 of 40

1

Calcium channel blocking drugs are effective in ________.

Select one of the following:

  • reducing the risk of blood clotting

  • decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques

  • reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions

  • decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias

Explanation

Question 19 of 40

1

What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

  • cardiac arrhythmias

  • ruptured ventricle

  • congestive heart failure

  • cerebrovascular accident

Explanation

Question 20 of 40

1

Why does ventricle fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?

Select one of the following:

  • delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation

  • insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium

  • the ventricles contract before the atria

  • parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node

Explanation

Question 21 of 40

1

What happens in the lungs after the diaphragm relaxes?

Select one of the following:

  • air is forced out of the lungs

  • lung volume increases

  • intrapulmonic pressure decreases

  • intrapleural pressure decreases

Explanation

Question 22 of 40

1

Which of the following activities does not require muscle contractions and energy?

Select one of the following:

  • Quiet inspiration

  • Forced Inspiration

  • Quiet expiration

  • Forced expiration

Explanation

Question 23 of 40

1

What is the maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration?

Select one of the following:

  • Expiratory reserve volume

  • Inspiratory reserve volume

  • Total lung capacity

  • Vital capacity

Explanation

Question 24 of 40

1

Which of the following causes bronchodilation?

Select one of the following:

  • Epinephrine

  • Histamine

  • Parasympathetic nervous system

  • Drugs that block beta-2 adrenergic receptors

Explanation

Question 25 of 40

1

What does the term "hemoptysis" refer to?

Select one of the following:

  • Thick, dark red sputum associated with pneumococcal infection

  • Reddish-brown granular blood found in vomitus

  • Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum

  • Bloody exudate in the pleural cavity

Explanation

Question 26 of 40

1

What does "orthopnea" mean?

Select one of the following:

  • Very deep, rapid respirations

  • Difficulty breathing in a recumbent position

  • Waking up suddenly, coughing and struggling to breathe

  • Noisy breathing with stridor or rhonchi

Explanation

Question 27 of 40

1

How is acute sinusitis usually manifested?

Select one of the following:

  • Serous nasal discharge and chronic cough

  • Copious frothy sputum an dsyspnea

  • Severe localized pain and tenderness in the face

  • Fetid breath and sore throat

Explanation

Question 28 of 40

1

What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?

Select one of the following:

  • Purulent nasal discharge and periorbital pain

  • Serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing

  • Copious purulent sputum, particularly in the mornings

  • Harsh barking cough and wheezing

Explanation

Question 29 of 40

1

What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperinflation of the chest and stridor

  • Hoarse voice and barking cough

  • Sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling saliva

  • Sneezing, mild cough, and fever

Explanation

Question 30 of 40

1

What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?

Select one of the following:

  • Rhinovirus

  • Influenza virus

  • Haemophilus influenza

  • Pneumoccocus

Explanation

Question 31 of 40

1

Which of the following is a major factor contributing to the current increase in cases of tuberculosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased use of BCG vaccine

  • The increase of immunodeficient individuals

  • The lack of effective medications

  • Increased use of pasteurized milk

Explanation

Question 32 of 40

1

Cystic Fibrosis is transmitted as a ____________.

Select one of the following:

  • X-link recessive gene

  • autosomal recessive gene

  • autosomal dominant gene

  • chromosomal defect

Explanation

Question 33 of 40

1

Persistent thick mucus in the bronchioles of a child with cystic fibrosis may cause which of the following?
1. Air trapping
2. Atelectasis
3. Repeated infectious
4. Irreversible damage to tissue

Select one of the following:

  • 1 and 2

  • 2 and 4

  • 1, 3, and 4

  • All of the above

Explanation

Question 34 of 40

1

Destruction of alveolar walls and septae is typical of __________.

Select one of the following:

  • chronic bronchitits

  • acute asthma

  • emphysema

  • asbestosi

Explanation

Question 35 of 40

1

What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?

Select one of the following:

  • Chronic irritation, inflammation, and infection of the larger airways

  • A genetic defect causing excessive production of mucus

  • Hypersensitivity to parasympathtic stimulation in the bronchi

  • Deficit of enzymes preventing tissue degeneration

Explanation

Question 36 of 40

1

Which of the following would be significant signs of bronchiectasis?

Select one of the following:

  • Persistent nonproductive cough, dyspnea, and fatigue

  • Persistent purulent nasal discharge, fever, and cough

  • Chronic cough producing large quantities of purulent sputum

  • Wheezing and Stridor

Explanation

Question 37 of 40

1

Which is the common source of a pulmonary embolus?

Select one of the following:

  • Mural thrombus from the left ventricle

  • Thrombus attached to atheromas in the aorta or iliac arteries

  • Thrombus forming in the femoral veins

  • A blood clot in the pulmonary vein

Explanation

Question 38 of 40

1

When does flail chest occur?

Select one of the following:

  • An open puncture wound involves the pleural membranes

  • The visceral pleura is torn by a fractured rib

  • Several ribs are fractured at two sites

  • Increasing fluid in the pleural cavity causes atelectasis

Explanation

Question 39 of 40

1

Infant respiratory distress syndrome results form______.

Select one of the following:

  • insufficient surfactant production

  • incomplete expiration shortly after birth

  • retention of fluid in the lungs after birth

  • immature neural control of repirations

Explanation

Question 40 of 40

1

Obstruction in the upper airway would be indicated by_______.

Select one of the following:

  • Stidor

  • Rales

  • Wheezing

  • Orthopnea

Explanation

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