Cyber Security Test-1

Question 1 of 120

1

Security is a state or quality of being secure to be free from--------------.

Select one of the following:

Vulnerability
Attack
Threat
Danger

Explanation

Question 2 of 120

1

Which term among the following is correct?

Select one of the following:

Cybersecurity
Cyber-security
cyber security
All are correct

Explanation

Question 3 of 120

1

What does “cyber” meanin the context of Information Technology?

Select one of the following:

Software
Hardware
Network
Online World

Explanation

Question 4 of 120

1

Cyber security affects individuals, organizations, society and --------------------

Select one of the following:

Government
Institution
Department
Firms

Explanation

Question 5 of 120

1

Choose the odd one

Select one of the following:

Phishing attack
Denial of Service attack
SQL Injection
Man in the middle attack
Importing data

Explanation

Question 6 of 120

1

Restricting unauthorized access and misuse of physical assets helps in achieving physical security of an organization.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 7 of 120

1

Cybersecurity is the collection of tools, policies, security concepts, security safeguards, guidelines, risk management approaches, actions, training, best practices, assurance and technologies that can be used to protect the cyber environment , organization and

Select one of the following:

users’ cyber assets
user personal information
cyberspace
resource

Explanation

Question 8 of 120

1

The general security objectives comprise -------------------,Availability and Integrity

Select one of the following:

Confidentiality
Accountability
Authorization
Authentication

Explanation

Question 9 of 120

1

Network security involves protection of items, objects, or facilities.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 10 of 120

1

What term describes the quality or state of ownership or control of information?

Select one of the following:

confidentiality
possession
authenticity
integrity

Explanation

Question 11 of 120

1

Fill in the blanks
The McCumber Cube has -------------------dimensions with -------cells representing areas that must be addressed to secure today’s information systems.

Select one of the following:

7 and 21
4 and 27
3 and 18
3 and 27

Explanation

Question 12 of 120

1

------------------is a weakness or fault in a system or protection mechanism that opens it to attack or damage.

Select one of the following:

Threat
Vulnerability
Risk
Attack

Explanation

Question 13 of 120

1

Which of the following is not a component of an organization’s Information System?
(1) Software (2) Vendors (3) People (4) Government (5) ISPs

Select one of the following:

1&3
1,2 &4
4 & 5
2,4, & 5

Explanation

Question 14 of 120

1

True or False:
The person responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of information is the data custodian.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 15 of 120

1

Biometric data collected from users is used for-------------------------------------------- process.

Select one of the following:

Authentication
Authorization
Accountability
Privacy

Explanation

Question 16 of 120

1

Select the right options of the C.I.A. triad
(1) Assurance that information is shared only among authorized people or organizations
(2) Assurance that the information is complete and uncorrupted
(3) Assurance that information systems and the necessary data are not available for use when needed

Select one of the following:

(1) True (2) False (3) True
(1) False (2) False (3) True
(1) True (2) True (3) True
(1) True (2) True (3) False

Explanation

Question 17 of 120

1

Match the following:

Select one of the following:

A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-5
A-3, B-4, C-5, D-1, E-2
A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5

Explanation

Question 18 of 120

1

Who are responsible for the security and use of a particular set of information?

Select one of the following:

Data users
Data exporter
Data custodians
Data owner

Explanation

Question 19 of 120

1

True or False:
If information has a state of being genuine or original and is not a fabrication, it has the characteristic of authenticity.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 20 of 120

1

Which of the following terms best describe the specification of a model to be followed during the design, selection, and initial and ongoing implementation of all subsequent security controls?

Select one of the following:

Blueprint
NIST handbook
An information security framework
Security plan

Explanation

Question 21 of 120

1

True or False: SP 800-18, Guide for Developing Security Plans, is considered the foundation for a comprehensive security blueprint and framework.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 22 of 120

1

One of the foundations of security architectures is the requirement to implement security in layers. This layered approach is referred to as:

Select one of the following:

managerial controls
security domain
redundancy
defense in depth

Explanation

Question 23 of 120

1

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies is a framework created by ------ for information technology (IT) management and -------------

Select one of the following:

HIPPA, & Information officer
SO, & Security officer
ISACA, & IT governance
CISO, & Chief officer

Explanation

Question 24 of 120

1

Three approaches to cyber security management are
1. Governance-Risk-Compliance (GRC) approach
2. ---------------------------------------------------
3. Organizational planning approach

Select one of the following:

Information-driven approach
Security-driven approach
Standards-driven approach
Procedure-driven approach

Explanation

Question 25 of 120

1

SO/IEC 27032:2012 involves guidelines for -----------------

Select one of the following:

Network security
Cyber security
Risk Management
Governance of information security

Explanation

Question 26 of 120

1

The five goals of information security governance are
1. -----------------of information security with business strategy to support organizational objectives
2. ---------------- by executing appropriate measures to manage and mitigate threats to information resources
3. -----------------by utilizing information security knowledge and infrastructure efficiently and effectively
4. -----------------by measuring, monitoring, and reporting information security governance metrics to ensure that organizational objectives are achieved
5. -----------------by optimizing information security investments in support of organizational objectives.
A. Strategic alignment
B. Risk management
C. Resource management
D. Performance measurement
E. Value delivery
Match the following

Select one of the following:

1-B,2-C,3-D,4-C,5-A,
1-C,2-B,3-A,4-B,5-E
1-E,2-C,3-A,4-B,5-D
1-A,2-B,3-C,4-D,5-E,

Explanation

Question 27 of 120

1

Match ISO Series with the corresponding topic
(A) 27000 (1)Series Overview and Terminology
(B) 27003 (2)Information Security Management Systems Implementation Guidelines
(C) 27004 (3) Information Security Measurements and Metrics
(D) 27005 (4) ISMS Risk Management
(E) 27006 (5) Requirements for Bodies Providing Audit and Certification of ISMS

Select one of the following:

A-1, B-2,C-3, D-4, E-5
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-5
A-2,B-1,C-3,D-5,E-4
A-3,B-2,C-1,D-5,E-4

Explanation

Question 28 of 120

1

(1)------------------ is authorized by policy from senior management and is usually carried out by senior IT and information security executives, such as the(2)---------and-(3)-------

Select one of the following:

1- ISG 2- CIO, 3- CISO
1-CO,2, 2-CIO,3- CISO
1-CISO, 2-CIO, 3-CO
1-CISO, 2-ISG, 3-CO

Explanation

Question 29 of 120

1

Which term is used to describe detailed statements of what must be done to comply with policy?

Select one of the following:

Policies
Standards
Ethics
Governance

Explanation

Question 30 of 120

1

Management must use -------------------as the basis for all information security planning, design, and deployment.

Select one of the following:

Standards
Procedures
Policies
Best business practices

Explanation

Question 31 of 120

1

Which type of planning ensures that critical business functions continue if a catastrophic incident or disaster occurs?

Select one of the following:

Business continuity planning (BCP)
Contingency planning (CP)
Business resumption planning (BRP)
Disaster recovery planning (DRP)

Explanation

Question 32 of 120

1

-------------- policy can be separated into two general groups (a) managerial guidance and (b) technical specifications. Select the correct options

Select one of the following:

Systems-Specific Security
Issue-Specific Security
Enterprise Information Security
None of these

Explanation

Question 33 of 120

1

The actions taken during and after a disaster falls under ----------------

Select one of the following:

Impact assessment
Risk management
Crisis management
Both (a) & (b)

Explanation

Question 34 of 120

1

Special Publication 800-14 of the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) defines three types of security policy and chooses the

Select one of the following:

Violations of Policy, Business continuity planning, Response planning
A disaster recovery, Incident response planning, and Business continuity planning
Issue-specific security, Systems-specific security, Enterprise information security
Enterprise information security, Violations of Policy, Response planning

Explanation

Question 35 of 120

1

What are the elements of a business impact analysis?
1. Threat attack identification
2. Business unit analysis
3. Attack success scenario development
4. Potential damage assessment
5. Subordinate plan classification
6. Risk management
7. Disaster management

The elements of a business impact analysis are:

Select one of the following:

1,2,3,4,5 correct
1,2,3,5,6 correct
2,3,5,6,7 correct
All are correct

Explanation

Question 36 of 120

1

Access control lists (ACLs) that govern the rights and privileges of users consist of the
1. User access lists,
2. Matrices,
3. Capability, and
4. Dedicated hardware

Choose the correct answer

Select one of the following:

1,2,3,4 are true
1,2,3 are true
Only 4 is true
All are true

Explanation

Question 37 of 120

1

The instructions a system administrator codes into a server, networking device, or a device to specify how it operates is called

Select one of the following:

Administration rule
Configuration rules
Networking rules
Security rule

Explanation

Question 38 of 120

1

Information security safeguards focus on administrative planning, organizing, leading, and controlling and that are designed by strategic planners and implemented by the organization’s security administration. These safeguards include governance and risk management together known as

Select one of the following:

Managerial controls
Operational controls
Technical controls
None of these

Explanation

Question 39 of 120

1

A lattice-based access control with rows of attributes associated with a particular subject such as a user is called

Select one of the following:

Access control matrix
Capabilities table
Configuration table
All of above

Explanation

Question 40 of 120

1

What type of policy addresses specific areas of technology, requires frequent updates, and contains a statement on the organization’s position on a specific issue?

Select one of the following:

Enterprise information security policy (EISP)
Systems-specific security policy (SysSP)
Automated policy (AP)
Issue-specific security policy (ISSP)

Explanation

Question 41 of 120

1

What are the defence strategies’ three common methods?
1. Application of policy
2. Education and training
3. Business impact analysis
4. Risk management
5. Application of technology
Choose the correct answer.

Select one of the following:

1,2,3
1,2,4
2,4,5
1,2,5

Explanation

Question 42 of 120

1

Policy administrator is responsible for -----------
1. creation,
2. revision,
3. implementation
4. distribution, and
5. storage
of policy in an organization. Choose the correct option

Select one of the following:

1,2
3
3,4
5

Explanation

Question 43 of 120

1

Which type of policy is frequently codified as standards and procedures to be used when configuring or maintaining systems?

Select one of the following:

Enterprise information security policy (EISP)
Systems-specific security policy (SysSP)
Automated policy (AP)
Issue-specific security policy (ISSP)

Explanation

Question 44 of 120

1

Which of the following is used to direct how issues should be addressed and technologies must be used in an organization?

Select one of the following:

policies
standards
ethics
governance

Explanation

Question 45 of 120

1

The boundary in the network within which an organization attempts to maintain security controls for securing information from threats from untrusted network areas is called ----

Select one of the following:

Security peripheral
Security perimeter
Security measure
Security principle

Explanation

Question 46 of 120

1

Consider the following statements
1. Statement of Purpose -What the policy is for
2. Information Technology Security Elements – Defines information security
3. Need for Information Technology Security – Justifies the irrelevance of information security in the organization
4. Information Technology Security Responsibilities and Roles - Defines organizational overall business planning and security investment plan.

Identify the components of the EISP

Select one of the following:

3, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 2
all are true

Explanation

Question 47 of 120

1

Access Control Lists specify
1. who can --------the system
2. what ---------users can access
3. when authorised users can --------the system
4. where authorised users can access the system from

Chose the correct words or expressions to fill in the blanks, in sequence:

Select one of the following:

use, authorised, access
authorised, access, create
authorised, access, use
administer, access, accountable

Explanation

Question 48 of 120

1

The goals of (A)------------------------------ are:
1.------------------ of information security with business strategy to support organizational objectives
2 ------------------ by executing appropriate measures to manage and mitigate threats to information resources
3. ------------------ by using information security knowledge and infrastructure efficiently and effectively

Choose the correct answer:

Select one of the following:

A-Financial security gov, 1- Tactical alignment, 2- Performance mgmt., 3- Resource mgmt.,
A-Information security governance,1-Strategic alignment, 2- Risk mgmt., 3- Resource mgmt.
A-Data security gov, 1-Operational management, 2- Resource mgmt., 3- Risk mgmt.,
A-Bord of governance,1-Operational alignment, 2- Risk mgmt., 3- Resource mgmt

Explanation

Question 49 of 120

1

Match 1 & 2 with A& B following
1. Residual risk
2. Risk appetite

A: The risk to information assets that remains even after current controls have been applied.
B: The quantity and nature of risk that organizations are willing to accept as they evaluate the trade-offs between perfect security and unlimited accessibility.
Choose the correct answer:

Select one of the following:

1-A, 2-B
1-B, 2-A

Explanation

Question 50 of 120

1

True or False:
The information technology community of interest must assist in risk management by configuring and operating information systems in a secure fashion.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 51 of 120

1

The process of examining how each threat will affect an organization is called:

Select one of the following:

Risk assessment
Data classification
Threat assessment
Vulnerability classification

Explanation

Question 52 of 120

1

The probability that a specific vulnerability within an organization will be the target of an attack is known as:

Select one of the following:

Loss Magnitude
Manageability
Likelihood
Practicability

Explanation

Question 53 of 120

1

The calculation of the value associated with the most likely loss from an attack is called:

Select one of the following:

Annualised Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Annualised Loss Expectancy (ALE)
Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA)
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)

Explanation

Question 54 of 120

1

----------------------is the formal assessment and presentation of the economic expenditures needed for particular security control, contrasted with its projected value to the organization.

Select one of the following:

Feasibility analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk-benefit analysis
Economic impact analysis

Explanation

Question 55 of 120

1

A document that compares the relative importance of prioritised assets to prioritised threats and highlights any weaknesses in the asset/threat pairs.

Select one of the following:

Threats-Vulnerabilities document
Threats-Vulnerabilities-Assets (TVA) worksheet
Threats-Vulnerabilities-Assets log file
Attack Vulnerability Asset document

Explanation

Question 56 of 120

1

Match the following:
(A) Internal Used for the most sensitive corporate information that must be tightly controlled, even
within the company. Access to information with this classification is strictly on a
need-to-know basis or as required by the terms of a contract. Information with
this classification may also be referred to as “sensitive” or “proprietary.”
(B) Confidential Used for all internal information that does not meet the criteria
for the confidential category. Internal information is to be

viewed only by corporate employees, authorized contractors,

and other third parties.

(C) External All information that has been approved by management for public release.

Select one of the following:

A-2, B-1, C-3
A-1, B-2, C-3
A-3, B-2, C-1
A-1, B-3, C-2

Explanation

Question 57 of 120

1

------------------- varies among organisations because they maintain different balances between the expense of controlling vulnerabilities and the possible losses if the vulnerabilities are exploited. The key for each organisation is to find the proper balance in its decision-making and feasibility analyses, to use experience and facts instead of ignorance or wishful thinking.

Select one of the following:

Risk appetite
Risk control
Residual Risk
Risk Assessment

Explanation

Question 58 of 120

1

Malware dictation Software has its own (Asset) internal personnel database behind a firewall. Industry reports indicate a 5 % chance of an attack. The information security and IT departments report that if the organization is attacked, the attack has a 15 % chance of success based on current asset vulnerabilities and protection mechanisms. The asset is valued at a score of 35 on a scale of 0 to 100, and information security and IT staff expect that 60 % of the asset would be lost or compromised by a successful attack, because not all of the asset is stored in a single location. You estimate that the assumptions and data are 90 % accurate. Calculating Risk.

Select one of the following:

0.1575
0.1733
0.2887
0.5575

Explanation

Question 59 of 120

1

xyzbuy.com has an estimated value of Rs 50,00,000, as determined by an asset valuation and a cracker defacement scenario indicates that a deliberate act of sabotage or vandalism could damage 25 per cent of xyzbuy.com, then the single loss expectancy for the xyzbuy.com would be?

Select one of the following:

16,50,000
15,20,000
11,11,000
12,50,000

Explanation

Question 60 of 120

1

Which VPN technology uses leased circuits from a service provider and conducts packet switching over these leased circuits?

Select one of the following:

Secure VPN
Hybrid VPN
Trusted VPN
Transport VPN

Explanation

Question 61 of 120

1

The biometric technology criteria that describe the number of legitimate users who are denied access because of a failure in the biometric device in known as

Select one of the following:

False reject rate
False accept rate
Crossover error rate
Accountability rate

Explanation

Question 62 of 120

1

True or False: All traffic exiting from the trusted network should be filtered.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 63 of 120

1

What term is used to describe decoy systems designed to lure potential attackers away from critical systems?

Select one of the following:

Trap
Honeypot
Trace
Sniffer

Explanation

Question 64 of 120

1

True or False: Signature-based IDPS technology is widely used because many attacks have clear and distinct signatures.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 65 of 120

1

The method by which systems determine whether and how to admit a user into a trusted area of the organization is known as

Select one of the following:

Attribute
Accountability
Access control
Audibility

Explanation

Question 66 of 120

1

------------------denotes the rate at which fraudulent users or nonusers are allowed access to systems or areas as a result of a failure in the biometric device. This failure is also known as --------------

Select one of the following:

False reject rate, Type I error
False accept rate, Type 2 error
False accept rate, Type I error
False reject rate, Type 2 error

Explanation

Question 67 of 120

1

Fill in the blank
------------------denotes the rate at which authorised users are denied access to systems or areas as a result of a failure in the biometric device. This failure is also known as ------------.
Choose the correct option

Select one of the following:

False reject rate, Type I error
False accept rate, Type 2 error
False accept rate, Type I error
False reject rate, Type 2 error

Explanation

Question 68 of 120

1

Match the following
A. Thresholds 1 Signature-based detection
B. Blacklists and whitelists: 2 Anomaly-based detection
C. Alert settings: 3 Detection-related related programs
D. Code viewing and editing: 4 Specifying which prevention capabilities

Choose the correct option

Select one of the following:

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Explanation

Question 69 of 120

1

Choose the right option to fill in the blanks
(1) --------------- initiates network traffic to find and evaluate service ports whereas (2) ---------------- uses traffic from the target network segment to evaluate the service ports available from hosts on that segment.

Select one of the following:

1-active vulnerability scanners, 2-passive vulnerability scanners
1-passive vulnerability scanners, 2-active vulnerability scanners

Explanation

Question 70 of 120

1

Which of the following terms describes the process of making and using codes to secure the transmission of information?

Select one of the following:

Algorithm
Cryptography
Steganography
Cryptanalysis

Explanation

Question 71 of 120

1

What is term is used to describe a cryptographic method that incorporates mathematical operations involving both a public key and a private key to encipher or decipher a message?

Select one of the following:

Private-key encryption
Symmetric encryption
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Asymmetric encryption

Explanation

Question 72 of 120

1

A substitution cipher that incorporates two or more alphabets in the encryption process is called-------------------

Select one of the following:

Monoalphabetic substitution
Block cipher substitution
Stream cipher substitution
Polyalphabetic substitution

Explanation

Question 73 of 120

1

The current standard for the encryption of data, as specified by NIST --------- is based on the Rijndael algorithm, which was developed by Vincent Rijmen and Joan Daemen.

Select one of the following:

DES
RSA
AES
Message Digest

Explanation

Question 74 of 120

1

True or False:
Nonrepudiation means that customers or partners can be held accountable for transactions, such as online purchases, which they cannot later deny.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 75 of 120

1

Limited-use symmetric keys for temporary communications during an online session is called

Select one of the following:

Session keys
One-time padding
AES
DES

Explanation

Question 76 of 120

1

Match the folowing

Select one of the following:

A-3, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-2
A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5, E-3
A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-1
A-5, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-4

Explanation

Question 77 of 120

1

Suppose that everyone in a group of N people wants to communicate secretly with the N-1 others using a symmetric key cryptographic system. Communication between any two persons should not be decodable by others in the group. The number of keys required in the system as a whole to satisfy the confidentiality requirement is

Select one of the following:

2N
N(N-1)
N(N-1)/2
(N-1)2

Explanation

Question 78 of 120

1

Decrypt the following message if it was encrypted using a shift cipher with a shift of 3.
Message: NPTELINFORMATION

Select one of the following:

Q S W H O L Q I R U P W L R Q
Q S W H O L Q I T U P W L R Q
Q S W F O L Q I R V P W L R Q
Q S W H O L Q I R V P W L R Q

Explanation

Question 79 of 120

1

------------security protocols are used to protect e-mail

Select one of the following:

SMTP
HTTPS
S/MIME, PEM, and PGP
Telnet

Explanation

Question 80 of 120

1

What is the most popular encryption system used over the Web?

Select one of the following:

Diffie Hellman key exchange
RSA
Block cipher
DES

Explanation

Question 81 of 120

1

What is the maximum fine for GDPR non-compliance?

Select one of the following:

EUR 10mn or 2% global turnover
EUR 15mn or 3% global turnover
EUR 20mn or 4% global turnover
EUR 25mn or 5% global turnover

Explanation

Question 82 of 120

1

Richards and Solove (2007) suggest that while the American derivation of general privacy is grounded in one's --------------------

Select one of the following:

inviolate personality
violate personality
serious personality
funny personality

Explanation

Question 83 of 120

1

Cohenretism treats privacy as a

Select one of the following:

Permission
Order
Freedom
Distinct right

Explanation

Question 84 of 120

1

True/ or False?
Confidentiality is concerned with the externalization of restricted but accurate information to a specific entity.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 85 of 120

1

Being observed, while the subject doesn’t know is

Select one of the following:

Panopticon
Transparency
Prevention
Anonymity

Explanation

Question 86 of 120

1

Concerns for Information Privacy (CFIP) has four constructs. Which is a construct that is not part of the CFIP?

Select one of the following:

Collection
Unauthorized access
Autonomy
Errors

Explanation

Question 87 of 120

1

According to --------------------- privacy is not a distinct value concept because it could be conceptually reduced to other values, like liberty

Select one of the following:

Coherentism
Reductionism
Privacy
Security

Explanation

Question 88 of 120

1

……………… determines the purposes and means of processing personal data

Select one of the following:

Data fiduciary
Data processor
Data principle
Data users

Explanation

Question 89 of 120

1

A IPL team management contracts a market research specialist team to carry out players satisfaction survey. The IPL team specifies the budget and the deadline, but the market research team determines sample sizes and interview methods. The market research team decides which player to select for the interview, what information will be collected, how the information will be collected, and how the information will be presented to the IPL team management. Who is the data controller in this situation?

Select one of the following:

An IPL team management
Market research firm
Both a & b are controllers
None of them are controllers

Explanation

Question 90 of 120

1

Fair Information Practice (FIP) principles were developed the United States in response to increasing privacy concerns resulting from massive computerization. What is an issue FIP does not address?

Select one of the following:

secret record-keeping systems
access by data subject to information stored in record keeping systems
ability by data subject to correct errors in one’s own data
data localization

Explanation

Question 91 of 120

1

GDPR makes provisions for the individual member states to add their own exemptions

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 92 of 120

1

The GDPR introduces a new data protection principle that requires organizations to

Select one of the following:

demonstrate compliance with the principles
optional compliance with the privacy regulation
flexibility to report data protection breaches
accept data breaches

Explanation

Question 93 of 120

1

In which of these circumstances could a data subject exercise their right to be forgotten?

Select one of the following:

Where they have withdrawn consent for data processing
Where the data is no longer necessary for the purposes for which it was collected
Where erasure is necessary to comply with a legal obligation
All are true
All are false

Explanation

Question 94 of 120

1

According to GDPR a group of companies or public authorities may appoint a single data protection officer to represent them all

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 95 of 120

1

--------------------- is a system for publicly sharing information about a dataset by describing the patterns of groups within the dataset while withholding information about individuals in the dataset.

Select one of the following:

Differential privacy (DP)
Privacy calculus
Privacy paradox
Privacy theory

Explanation

Question 96 of 120

1

A release of data is said to have the k-anonymity property if the information for each person contained in the release cannot be distinguished from at ---------individuals whose information also appears in the release

Select one of the following:

least k−1
least k+1
least k +/- 1
least k*1

Explanation

Question 97 of 120

1

consider the diagram:

In the First wave of the economic theory of privacy, work did not consist of formal economic models, but rather general ------------around the value or the damage that individuals, and society, may incur when personal information is protected, thereby making potentially useful information unavailable to the marketplace
Choose the correct answer:

Select one of the following:

information privacy
economic arguments
economic value
economic benefit

Explanation

Question 98 of 120

1

The economics of privacy concerns the tradeoffs associated with the balancing of --------------------spheres between individuals, organizations, and governments.

Select one of the following:

public and private
internal and external
low and high
individual vs group

Explanation

Question 99 of 120

1

The goal of privacy-preserving data mining is to develop data mining methods without increasing the risk of misuse of the ---------

Select one of the following:

privacy
data
anonymity
Privacy-related content
database

Explanation

Question 100 of 120

1

___________ is a dichotomy between a person’s intention to protect their online privacy versus how they actually behave online and as a result compromise their privacy

Select one of the following:

Privacy paradox
Privacy calculus
Differential calculus
Coherentism

Explanation

Question 101 of 120

1

The personal data that has been de-identified, ----------------but can be used to re-identify a person remains personal data and falls within the scope of the GDPR.

Select one of the following:

pseudonymized
decrypted
Anonymize
Secrete

Explanation

Question 102 of 120

1

The area of philosophy that examines the basis for moral judgment, as well as its nature, standards, sources, and logic, is called ------------------

Select one of the following:

Moral principle
Moral value
Ethics
Law

Explanation

Question 103 of 120

1

Choose the correct option that represents HIPAA’s fundamental principle

Select one of the following:

Producer control of medical information
No restrictions on how medical data may be used
Accountability to maintain the privacy of specified types of information
Balance of public responsibility for the use of medical information for the greater good measured against no impact on the individual
Security of health information

Explanation

Question 104 of 120

1

True or False:
The cornerstone of many current computer-related criminal laws in the US is the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 105 of 120

1

Which one of these activities falls outside the scope of the GDPR?

Select one of the following:

processing for marketing purposes
processing for domestic and household purposes
processing for the purposes of crime and investigations
processing for the purposes of journalism literature and art

Explanation

Question 106 of 120

1

What types of information are covered by the GDPR?
1. Personal data
2. Data related to the public domain
3. All data of a person that can be identified by their identifier, directly or indirectly
4. Garbage data
Choose the correct option.

Select one of the following:

1,2
2,4
1,3
4,3

Explanation

Question 107 of 120

1

Which of the following are not GDPR fundamental rights?

Select one of the following:

The right to be informed, the right of access
The ability to learn from mistakes, the freedom to transfer data
The right to object, rights related to automated decision-making
All are correct

Explanation

Question 108 of 120

1

Match topics of interest to IT Professionals with US Laws

(A) Cryptography (1) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
(B) IP (2) Federal Privacy Act
(C) Encryption and digital signatures (3) No Electronic Theft Act amends
(D) Privacy (4) Security and Freedom through Encryption Act
Choose the correct option

Select one of the following:

A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.
A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.
A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2.

Explanation

Question 109 of 120

1

INDIAN COPYRIGHT ACT was drafted in --------------------by Shalu Gothi and Daisy Jain

Select one of the following:

2000
1857
1957
1967

Explanation

Question 110 of 120

1

What is the software that comes hidden in free downloadable software and tracks your online movements, mine the information stored on your computer or use your computer’s CPU and storage for some task you know nothing about?

Select one of the following:

Weblog
Clickstream
Anonymous web browsing service
None of above

Explanation

Question 111 of 120

1

What are the primary examples of public law?

Select one of the following:

Criminal, administrative, and constitutional law
Civil, Legislative and public service
IPC, administrative, service, constitutional law
All are the primary examples of public law.

Explanation

Question 112 of 120

1

The Aadhaar project is the world’s largest national identity project, launched by the government of India, which seeks to collect the following data about residents and store these in a centralized database.

Select one of the following:

Biometric data
Demographic data of residents
Life style data of citizens
All of these

Explanation

Question 113 of 120

1

Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 had the following provision.
(1) Provide for the protection of the privacy of individuals relating to their personal data,
(2) Specify demerits of the flow and usage of personal data,
(3) Create a mysterious relationship of trust between persons and entities processing personal data,
(4) Protect the fundamental rights of individuals whose personal data are processed

Choose which of the options listed above are false?

Select one of the following:

1,2,3
2,3
1,4
1,2

Explanation

Question 114 of 120

1

The Aadhaar Act attempts to create a method for--------------- of individuals so as to provide services, subsidies and other benefits to the residents of the country.

Select one of the following:

Identification
Authentication
Authorization
Accountability

Explanation

Question 115 of 120

1

------------------- gathers personally identifying information from Aadhaar holders, prepares the data for transmission, and receives the authentication.

Select one of the following:

System Terminal
Barcode reader
Authentication device
RFID

Explanation

Question 116 of 120

1

According to standard notions of digital authentication, a security principal (a user or a computer), while requesting access to a service, must provide two independent pieces of information, which are:

Select one of the following:

Identity and Authentication.
Verification and Authentication
Validation and Authorization
Validation and Authentication

Explanation

Question 117 of 120

1

Identity provides an answer to the question ------------------ Anonymity is when nobody knows who you are but potentially, they know ---------------------------

Select one of the following:

how are you? & how you do
who are you? & what you do
how are you feeling? & what you do
who are you? & what you know about others

Explanation

Question 118 of 120

1

Which of the following is odd about Aadhaar authentication?

Select one of the following:

It enables authentication using a One-Time-Password (OTP) issued to the resident's listed email address or cellphone number in the CIDR.
It enables authentication combining OTP, fingerprint, and iris authentication for residents.
It offers a 2-factor authentication with OTP as one factor and multimodal biometric as the second factor for authenticating residents.
It enables Aadhaar authentication by matching Aadhaar numbers and demographic attributes of residents.

Explanation

Question 119 of 120

1

Personal Data Protection Bill sought to ensure privacy rights of the individual. Select the odd option

Select one of the following:

Obtain confirmation from the fiduciary on whether their personal data has been processed
Seek correction of inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date personal data
Have personal data transferred to any other data fiduciary in certain circumstances
Restrict continuing disclosure of their personal data by a fiduciary, if it is no longer necessary Or consent is withdrawn
Provide advice on security safeguards like data encryption

Explanation

Question 120 of 120

1

Which of the following act enforces individual privacy in online space, after scrapping a similar bill:

Select one of the following:

PDP Bill 2018
Digital Personal Data Protection Bill 2023
GDPR
IT Act, 2000

	Created by Bishal Jena 10 months ago

Quiz on Cyber Security Test-1, created by Bishal Jena on 05/10/2023.

Cyber Security Test-1

Cyber Security Test-1

Question 1 of 120

Security is a state or quality of being secure to be free from--------------.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 120

Which term among the following is correct?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 120

What does “cyber” meanin the context of Information Technology?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 120

Cyber security affects individuals, organizations, society and --------------------

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 120

Choose the odd one

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 120

Restricting unauthorized access and misuse of physical assets helps in achieving physical security of an organization.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 120

Cybersecurity is the collection of tools, policies, security concepts, security safeguards, guidelines, risk management approaches, actions, training, best practices, assurance and technologies that can be used to protect the cyber environment , organization and

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 120

The general security objectives comprise -------------------,Availability and Integrity

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 120

Network security involves protection of items, objects, or facilities.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 120

What term describes the quality or state of ownership or control of information?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 120

Fill in the blanks The McCumber Cube has -------------------dimensions with -------cells representing areas that must be addressed to secure today’s information systems.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 120

------------------is a weakness or fault in a system or protection mechanism that opens it to attack or damage.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 120

Which of the following is not a component of an organization’s Information System? (1) Software (2) Vendors (3) People (4) Government (5) ISPs

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 120

True or False: The person responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of information is the data custodian.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 120

Biometric data collected from users is used for-------------------------------------------- process.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 120

Select the right options of the C.I.A. triad (1) Assurance that information is shared only among authorized people or organizations (2) Assurance that the information is complete and uncorrupted (3) Assurance that information systems and the necessary data are not available for use when needed

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 120

Match the following:

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 120

Who are responsible for the security and use of a particular set of information?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 120

True or False: If information has a state of being genuine or original and is not a fabrication, it has the characteristic of authenticity.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 120

Fill in the blanks
The McCumber Cube has -------------------dimensions with -------cells representing areas that must be addressed to secure today’s information systems.

Which of the following is not a component of an organization’s Information System?
(1) Software (2) Vendors (3) People (4) Government (5) ISPs

True or False:
The person responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of information is the data custodian.

Select the right options of the C.I.A. triad
(1) Assurance that information is shared only among authorized people or organizations
(2) Assurance that the information is complete and uncorrupted
(3) Assurance that information systems and the necessary data are not available for use when needed

True or False:
If information has a state of being genuine or original and is not a fabrication, it has the characteristic of authenticity.

Three approaches to cyber security management are
1. Governance-Risk-Compliance (GRC) approach
2. ---------------------------------------------------
3. Organizational planning approach

Access control lists (ACLs) that govern the rights and privileges of users consist of the
1. User access lists,
2. Matrices,
3. Capability, and
4. Dedicated hardware

Choose the correct answer