Soheila Amri
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Soheila Amri
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Physiology exam 2022 - Cycle 1

Question 1 of 102

1

Which of the following statements properly describe hormones produced in hypothalamus:

Select one or more of the following:

  • TSH is produced from hypothalamus to bind to its receptor of the cellular membrane of the thyroid cell

  • CRH from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary cells to liberate FSH and LH

  • Paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus increases liberation of oxytocin in positive feedback in response mechanism stimulation of the uterine cervix. it initiates and supports uterine contraction

  • Liberation of CRH is controlled by corticotropin (ACTH) and cortisol in mechanism negative feedback

Explanation

Question 2 of 102

1

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood;

Select one or more of the following:

  • Most CO2 is transported in form of carbaminians and carbaminohemoglobin

  • Bicarbonate binds reversibly heme moiety of hemoglobin

  • Most CO2 is converted to bicarbonate by carbonic anhydrase of erythrocyte

  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin forming carboxyhemoglobin

Explanation

Question 3 of 102

1

Which of the following statements concerning water are true;

Select one or more of the following:

  • Specific heat of water is low. Because of this reason water is excellent heat conductor

  • Water is an excellent solvent because of its polar molecule

  • Water easily passes across cellular membrane through non-gated channel for cations

  • Vasopressin controls synthesis of the protein-AQP2 and its insertion to the apical membrane of the cells of the collecting ducts in kidney. AQP2 performs active transport.

  • Adipose tissue is the least hydrated tissue

Explanation

Question 4 of 102

1

Put the following ions in the extracellular fluid in proper order, begin with least concentrate (mmol)
1. Na+
2. K+
3. Mg2+
4. Cl-

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1, 2, 3, 4

  • 3, 2, 4, 1

  • 3, 4, 2, 1

  • 1, 4, 2, 3

Explanation

Question 5 of 102

1

Identify the right statement concerning erythrocytes

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sphingosine 1-phosphate derived from their plasma membrane is a strong chemoattractant agent mobilizing HSC from bone marrow niches

  • Sphingosine 1 -phosphate derived from their plasma membrane is a strong chemoattractant agent facilitating homing of HSC in bone marrow niches

  • Nitric oxide liberated from hemoglobin in tissues, facilitates vasodilation improving blood supply

  • Carbonic anhydrase of erythrocytes reduces hemoglobin, improving oxygen supply to tissues

  • 2,3-DPG increases affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen and decreases oxygen utilization

Explanation

Question 6 of 102

1

Which of the following statements concern facilitated diffusion.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Water soluble substances are transported through the cellular direction of such a diffusion depends on a chemical gradient

  • Na+ passes through the nicotinic receptor which is a ligand

  • Facilitated diffusion of hydrophobic substances easily

  • Glucose transporters GLUT are examples of system

Explanation

Question 7 of 102

1

Haemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right due to: (reduced affinity)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rise of the concentration 2,3 DPG

  • Rise of pH

  • Decline of the pCO2-

  • Rise to the body temperature

  • Anemia

Explanation

Question 8 of 102

1

Find right sentences concerning erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is a ratio of volume of all erythrocyte to the volume of the whole blood

  • It is proportionate to plasma concentration of globulin

  • it should not exceed 15mm/h in healthy adults. It is much higher in infectious diseases and cancer

  • It is proportionate to packed cell volume (PCV, Hematocrit)

Explanation

Question 9 of 102

1

Which statements characterize IgM immunoglobulins.

Select one or more of the following:

  • It can easily produce agglutination of erythrocyte in room temperature

  • It can cross blood placenta barrier

  • It can bind complement

  • It has two antigen binding sites

  • it's a secretory immunoglobulin

Explanation

Question 10 of 102

1

Which of the following characteristics are typical for erythrocyte of a fetus:

Select one or more of the following:

  • They contain fetal hemoglobin which is replaced by the adult type of hemoglobin during first weeks of life

  • Their shape is more spherical; they have small fragments of cellular nuclei

  • The characterize with lower affinity for oxygen than erythrocyte with adult hemoglobin

  • Their expression of antigens of ABO system is lower (they have less antigens of ABO systems on their erythrocyte)

Explanation

Question 11 of 102

1

Which of the following statements are true and concern cholinergic

Select one or more of the following:

  • All muscarinic receptors are g-protein coupled receptors.

  • Some of the cholinergic receptors are tyrosine kinase

  • Some of them are ionotropic receptors of the postsynaptic membrane of the autonomic ganglia

  • Activation of muscarinic receptors rises activity of the adenylyl cyclase

Explanation

Question 12 of 102

1

Which of the following statements concern G-Protein:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Glycine receptor is one of best known example of the g-protein

  • They are all metabotropic receptors

  • They are metabotropic receptors able to autophosphorylate

  • They activates synthesis of intracellular messengers such as cAMP

Explanation

Question 13 of 102

1

Which of the following receptors are metabotropic

Select one or more of the following:

  • PTH receptor

  • IP3 receptor

  • IGF receptor

  • Adrenergic receptor

Explanation

Question 14 of 102

1

Which of the following statements properly describes nicotinic receptor

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is a ligand-gated sodium channel

  • Activity of this receptor brings IPSP to the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction

  • It is a channel for small cations and anions. It is blocked by nicotine

  • Two molecules of a natural agonist are bound to alpha-subunits of the receptor

Explanation

Question 15 of 102

1

Action of heparin are ...

Select one or more of the following:

  • It inhibits activity of plasma factors 4 and 5.

  • It activates natural anticoagulant protein of platelet

  • It inhibits activity of activated Stuart factor and thrombin (factor X and II)

  • It facilitates adhesion and aggregation of platelet

  • It performs proteolytic degradation of activated factor I

Explanation

Question 16 of 102

1

Which of the following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) is true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Most known action of TxA2 are mediated by its own receptor which is a ligand

  • TxA2 intensifies degranulation of platelet (release of the content of granules)

  • It facilitates aggregation of platelet

  • It produces vascular contraction

  • It activates fibrinolysis

Explanation

Question 17 of 102

1

Natural anticoagulants are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Heparin

  • Tissue thromboplastin

  • Antithrombin III

  • Fibrinogen

  • Fibrin deposition

  • Histamine

Explanation

Question 18 of 102

1

Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity of thrombin:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prolonged clotting time

  • Prolonged APTT(activated partial thromboplastin time)

  • Prolonged bleeding time

  • Prolonged prothrombin time (increased INR)

  • Prolonged thrombin time

Explanation

Question 19 of 102

1

Identify proper statement concerning platelets

Select one or more of the following:

  • They can be activated by heparin

  • They adhere to intact vessel in presence of heparin

  • They are activated by tissue thromboplastin

  • Their activity is irreversibly inhibited by aspirin

  • They adhere to sub-endothelial collagen and non-collagen glycoprotein

Explanation

Question 20 of 102

1

Identify function of PTH

Select one or more of the following:

  • It intensifies both calcium and phosphate reabsorption

  • It increases concentration of phosphate in plasma of bloods

  • It increases activity of 1a-hydroxylase in kidneys

  • It decreases reabsorption of calcium from gastrointestinal tract

Explanation

Question 21 of 102

1

Identify right statements concerning clotting time

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is prolonged in people treated with heparin

  • It depends on the number of platelets

  • It depends on the state of the vascular wall

  • It tests processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

Explanation

Question 22 of 102

1

Choose the correct statement concerning B-Lymphocyte

Select one or more of the following:

  • MHC class II is presented on their membrane

  • In effect of antigenic stimulation, they form plasma cell and secrete immunoglobulin

  • They are formed mainly in thymus

  • They mediate cellular immunity

Explanation

Question 23 of 102

1

Blood type A individual have genes which code for;

Select one or more of the following:

  • The sequence of amino acids of both the A antigen and B antigen

  • Enzyme transferase that catalyzes placement of N-acerylgalactosamine onto H antigen

  • Enzyme transferase that catalyzes placement of fucose forming H Antigen

  • Enzyme transferase that catalyzes placement of N-acetylalactosamine onto D Antigen

  • Enzyme transferase that catalyzes placement of D-galactose onto H antigen

Explanation

Question 24 of 102

1

A couple requests blood typing of their child (Father B RhD positive, mother is A RhD Positive). Childs erythrocyte is agglutinated by anti-B antibodies, not agglutinated by anti-A and Anti-D antibodies. Childs Serum agglutinates A-typed erythrocyte does not agglutinate B-type.
Which of the following are correct:

Select one or more of the following:

  • The child is the natural offspring of this couple

  • The mother is natural, the father is not the natural father

  • The father is natural and the mother is not the natural mother

  • Blood type in ABO system is A

  • Blood type in ABO system is B

  • Blood type in ABO system is AB

  • Child is Rh- Positive

Explanation

Question 25 of 102

1

A young adult non-obese female 50 kg was injected intravenously with 1200 mg inulin. Laboratory analysis revealed that the plasma concentration of inulin is 120mg/L. Proper conclusion is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Volume of plasma is improper and equals 10 liters, the possible reason is over hydration or hypervolemia

  • Volume of plasma is proper and equals 3.2-3,5 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained

  • Volume of extracellular fluid is proper and equals 10 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained.

  • Volume of extracellular is improper and equals 10 liters. The possible reason is dehydration

Explanation

Question 26 of 102

1

Which of following statements properly describe metabotropic receptors (MR)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Muscarinic receptor are coupled to phospholipase C and adenylyl cyclase

  • GABAb receptor is an example of metabotropic receptor

  • Tyrosine kinase receptors are metabotropic receptor able to autophosphorylates after binding their ligands

  • Some adrenergic receptors are tyrosine kinase receptors

Explanation

Question 27 of 102

1

Which of the following statements properly concern G proteins?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Binding of insulin to G protein of the insulin receptor initiates process of activation of adenylyl cyclase

  • Extracellular ligands bind to G-protein coupled receptors which in turn activate particular G protein

  • Inhibitory G protein (Gi protien) is coupled to carbonic anhydrase of some cells

  • The G-protein activates a cascade of signaling events that finally results in a change in cell functions

Explanation

Question 28 of 102

1

Which of the following receptors are ionotropic?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ryanodine receptor

  • Rhodopsin receptor

  • PTH receptor

  • Nicotine receptor

Explanation

Question 29 of 102

1

Which of the following statements properly describe hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland = APG?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Dopamine decreases liberation of from APG in mechanism of negative feedback

  • Liberation of corticoliberin (CRH) from APG is stimulated by corticotropin (ACTH)

  • TSH is liberated from APG. TSH binds its metatropic receptor of the membrane of the thyroid cell

  • GnRH (gonadoliberin) from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH and LH

  • Prolactin is produced by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus and liberated by the anterior pituitary

Explanation

Question 30 of 102

1

Actions of angiotensin II are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • It mediates vasoconstriction

  • It decreases reabsorption of sodium ions in kidneys

  • It stimulates secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex

  • It increases heart rate

Explanation

Question 31 of 102

1

Oxytocin;

Select one or more of the following:

  • It produces contraction of the uterus

  • It binds to the ligand-gated sodium channel of smooth muscle cells of the uterus

  • It is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells

  • It has galactopoietic activity -it stimulates production of milk

Explanation

Question 32 of 102

1

Phenomena causing increased liberation of renin are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Increased arterial pressure

  • Reduced volume of ECF and hypoperfusion of the kidney

  • Decreased load of distal tubular fluid (NaCl) in area of the macula densa (of the distal tubule)

  • Increased volume of ECF (hypervolemina)

Explanation

Question 33 of 102

1

Put following ions the ECF in proper order, beginning from the most concentrated (mmol/L):
1. Na+
2. Cl-
3. HCO3-
4. K+

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1, 2, 4, 3

  • 1, 3, 2, 4

  • 4, 2, 3, 1

  • 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Question 34 of 102

1

Which of the following statement concerning active transport are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Na/K ATPase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires 2 ATP molecules

  • Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K-ATPase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport

  • Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF

  • Active transport mechanism are able to move substances against concentration gradient

Explanation

Question 35 of 102

1

Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rise of liberation of histamine from mast cells

  • Rise of gluconeogenesis

  • Rise of plasma concentration free fatty acids

  • Intensification of catecholamine-dependent bronchodilation

Explanation

Question 36 of 102

1

Channels embedded in cellular membrane can be gated by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Extracellular ligand such as glycine

  • Change of the electrical potential of the cellular membrane

  • Mechanical deformation of the cell

  • Second messenger such as IP3

Explanation

Question 37 of 102

1

Which of the following statements properly describes beta-adrenergic receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Beta-adrenergic receptor is ligand-gated channel

  • Activity of adrenergic receptors brings EPSP to the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction

  • Beta-adrenergic receptors are G protein coupled receptors related to adenylyl cyclase

  • Activation of beta-adrenergic receptors up-regulates synthesis of cAMP

Explanation

Question 38 of 102

1

Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Growth hormone exerts hypercalcemic effect

  • PTH up-regulated (increases) mobilization of calcium ion from bones

  • PTH decreases activity of 1alpha-hydroxylase of vitamin 25-OHD3 in kidney

  • Thyroid hormones decrease plasma concentration of calcium

Explanation

Question 39 of 102

1

Which of following will NOT haemolyse erythrocytes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • 5% solution of glucose

  • Benzene, ether and other organic solvents

  • IgG against D-antigen administered to Rh-D-negative mother after delivery of the Rh-D positive fetus

  • 0,6% saline

Explanation

Question 40 of 102

1

Which of following will facilitate detachment of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rise of pH

  • Rise pO2

  • Rise of body temperature

  • Rise of CO2

Explanation

Question 41 of 102

1

Which of the following statements are true in case of erythropoietin (EPO)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adenosine and androgens inhibit secretion of EPO

  • EPO is produced by interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed of kidneys

  • EPO increases the number of erythropoietin sensitive committed stem cells in the bone marrow that are converted by red blood cell precursors

  • Hypoxia (low partial pressure of O2) in kidney is the main stimulus for EPO release

Explanation

Question 42 of 102

1

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 5-7% of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood

  • 10% of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Conversion is spontaneous and performed in plasma of blood

  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin

  • Carbaminohemoglobin is an example of reduced hemoglobin of red-brown colour

Explanation

Question 43 of 102

1

Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes

  • They release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin

  • They belong to the adaptive immune system. they are not able to phagocyte

  • They aggregate in tissues when allergic reactions occur, (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma)

  • The exhibit chemotaxis

Explanation

Question 44 of 102

1

Which of following statements properly concern agglutination?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Administration of heparin slows the process agglutination

  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin

  • Gamma globulins of IgM class are able to produce immediate agglutination in room temperature

  • Agglutination results from an interaction between the platelet's GP IIb/IIIa and vascular collagen

Explanation

Question 45 of 102

1

Which of following sentences are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Agglutinins against antigens of Rh system develop in childhood

  • Immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma of the newborn is almost zero

  • Immunoglobulin against antigens 0-A-B blood type system are produced by the fetus before the birth

  • Agglutinins in 0-A-B blood type system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B commonly present in environment

Explanation

Question 46 of 102

1

In Rh system of blood:

Select one or more of the following:

  • D antigen is the most antigenic (the strongest) component of the system

  • D antigen is the only antigen of the system

  • Antigens are proteins, located only on membranes of erythrocytes

  • Agglutinogens are synthesized in Rh-D negative individuals after exposure to Rh-D positive blood

Explanation

Question 47 of 102

1

Complement is a group of more than 25 proteins of the innate immunity. Find their actions

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chemotaxis (chemoattraction) of macrophages and neutrophils

  • Degranulation of the eosinophils and monocytes - mast cells and basophils

  • Promotion of agglutination of invading microbes

  • Presenting on the water soluble antigen

  • Opsonization

  • Maturation of erythrocytes

Explanation

Question 48 of 102

1

Which statements characterize IgG immunoglobulin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • It can easily produce agglutination of erythrocytes

  • It cannot cross blood-placenta barrier

  • Binding of C1 complex of complement to antigen-IgG complex initiates classical pathway of complement activation

  • It has only 2 antigen-binding sites

  • It is a memory immunoglobulin

Explanation

Question 49 of 102

1

Identify right statements concerning the Bleeding time test?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Its duration is inversely proportional to the number of platelets

  • It does not depend on concentration and activity of plasma factors of secondary hemostasis

  • It is prolonged in people treated with heparin

  • It tests processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

Explanation

Question 50 of 102

1

Choose the correct statements concerning B lymphocytes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They mediate cellular immunity

  • Lymphocytes B are classified as professional antigen presenting cells

  • They are formed mainly in in thymus

  • B lymphocytes express B cell receptors on their cell membrane. It allows B lymphocytes to bind a specific antigen

Explanation

Question 51 of 102

1

Analyze ABO system of a couple: a woman (blood type A) has a father whose blood type is O, and is married to a man whose blood type is B (his mother type is A). What is their child probability of blood type A:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 75%

  • 0%

  • 50%

  • 25%

Explanation

Question 52 of 102

1

Which of the following statement concern G-Protein concern receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nicotinic receptor is an example of G-Protein coupled receptor

  • Examples of G-Protein coupled receptor are rhodopsin and GABA(b)-Receptor.

  • G-Protein coupled receptors are metabotropic receptors

  • All G-Protein coupled receptors are metabotropic receptors, they activate intracellular enzymes.

Explanation

Question 53 of 102

1

Which of the following statements properly concern muscarinic receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • All muscarinic receptors are serpentine G-coupled receptors.

  • Some of them are ligand-gated ionic channels.

  • Muscarinic receptors modify activity of adenylyl cyclase of phospholipase C.

  • Acetylcholine is an antagonist of all muscarinic receptors

Explanation

Question 54 of 102

1

Which if following receptors are ionotropic receptors

Select one or more of the following:

  • IP3 & ryanodine receptors

  • Rhodopsin and vasopressin receptors

  • Insulin and adrenergic receptors

  • Glycine & nicotinic receptors

Explanation

Question 55 of 102

1

Find proper sequence of events in signal transduction of the G-Protein coupled receptor
1. G-Protein dissociates from the receptor, Subunits of G protein dissociate
2. Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates
3. Subunits of G-Protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins.
4. Receptor interacts with G-protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP to GTP
5. Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of beta-subunit of the receptor, beta-subunit phosphorylates other proteins.
4.

Select one or more of the following:

  • 1, 2, 4, 3

  • 1, 3, 4, 2

  • 2, 3, 4, 1

  • 2, 4, 3, 1

Explanation

Question 56 of 102

1

Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

Select one or more of the following:

  • In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through cellular membranes against concentration gradient.

  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.

  • Facilitated diffusion characterized with limit rate of transfer of substance diffuse as maximum saturation.

  • Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2

Explanation

Question 57 of 102

1

Which of following statements properly concern gating of channels of a cellular membrane:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Insulin receptor open channels for tyrosine, which become phosphorylated in cytosol of the cell - belong to the family of tyrosine kinase receptor

  • Glycine receptor is an example of chemically-gated channel for chloride ion

  • Smooth muscle cells can contract being mechanically stretched it is mediated by stretch gated channels

  • Action potential of excitable cells is usually evoked by entrance of cations through electrical gated channels

  • Action potential of excitable cells is usually provoked by outflow of anions through ligand-gated channels

Explanation

Question 58 of 102

1

B-lymphocytes

Select one or more of the following:

  • Express MHC II

  • Include cellular response

  • Include humoral response

  • Stimulated by IL-2

Explanation

Question 59 of 102

1

Identify right statement concerning erythrocytes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Carboxyhemoglobin is a reduced form
    greater than O2

  • Methemoglobin is the oxidized form

  • Carries 97% of oxygen in blood

  • Carries 97% of CO2

Explanation

Question 60 of 102

1

A couple requested blood typing of their child(father AB-. Mother B-). child erythrocytes are agglutinated by antigen B immunoglobulins, not agglutinated by Anti-A or anti-D. Child Serum
agglutinates A-typed erythrocytes, doesn't agglutinates B-typed erythrocytes. which following conclusions are true

Select one or more of the following:

  • Child is a natural offspring of this couple

  • Mother is natural, father is not the natural father

  • Father is natural, mother is not the natural mother

  • Blood types in ABO system is A

  • Blood types in ABO system is B

  • Blood types in ABO system is AB

  • Child is Rh-

  • Child is Rh+

Explanation

Question 61 of 102

1

What is correct concerning the intrinsic pathway:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Depends on factor 3-12

  • Depends on release of HMWK

  • Depends on vascular wall

  • Needs calcium ions

  • Needs action of thromboxane

Explanation

Question 62 of 102

1

Hemolysis of normal erythrocytes occur:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Distilled water

  • 0.5% concentration of glucose

  • Urea solution

  • 0.2% saline

Explanation

Question 63 of 102

1

Characteristics of IgM:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Has 2 antigen binding sites

  • Memory immunoglobulin

  • Activate complement

  • Produce aggregation in standard environment of own plasma

Explanation

Question 64 of 102

1

Vasopressin is released when:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Increased blood pressure

  • Increased blood volume

  • Increased osmotic pressure of blood and cerebrospinal fluid

  • Decreased blood volume

  • Decreased osmotic pressure of blood and cerebrospinal fluid

Explanation

Question 65 of 102

1

Growth factor (Somatotropin) stimulated by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hyperglycemia

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Stress and sleep (REM)

  • Physical exercise

Explanation

Question 66 of 102

1

Identify factors reducing affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Acidosis

  • Increase concentration of 2,3 BPG in erythrocytes

  • Increased temperature

  • Decreased pH of blood

Explanation

Question 67 of 102

1

Simple diffusion:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Protein can diffuse easily through membrane

  • Depends on chemical gradient

  • Hydrophobic proteins cannot diffuse via membrane

Explanation

Question 68 of 102

1

Erythrocytes of newborn:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Contain immature hemoglobin that matures during first week after delivery

  • Hemoglobin has higher affinity to oxygen

  • Have small nucleus

  • Contain less hemoglobin than mature erythrocytes

Explanation

Question 69 of 102

1

Which of following statements concerning water are true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Water characterizes with extremely high specific heat -absorption of energy without change of temperature

  • It is a natural solvent and environment for all physiological and chemical processes occurring inhuman organism

  • Aldosterone directly increases water reabsorption in collecting duct

  • Main cation of intracellular water compartment is Mg2+, main anion HCO3-

Explanation

Question 70 of 102

1

Identify right statements concerning Total Body Water (TBW)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Its volume can't be assessed by intravenous injection of Inulin or other colloid molecule

  • Majority of water of TBW fills extracellular compartment of organism

  • It is usually 60% of the body weight of the young adult human and it tends to decrease with age

  • Water can easily pass through cellular membrane via common to all cells water channel- aquaporin AQP1

Explanation

Question 71 of 102

1

Factors that stimulate growth hormone (GH, somatotropin) release are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • GnRH liberated from hypothalamus

  • Hyperglycemia

  • Decreased concentration of FFA + glucose in plasma

  • Physical exercise

Explanation

Question 72 of 102

1

Which of the following statements concerning oxytocin are true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Peptide hormone synthesized in anterior pituitary gland

  • Its liberation is inhibited by stimulation of mechanoreceptors located in cervix of the uterus

  • Responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells

  • Produces contraction of smooth muscle cells of pregnant + non-pregnant uterus

Explanation

Question 73 of 102

1

Which of following statements concerning affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen are true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Affinity is inversely proportional to pH

  • Affinity is proportionate to the body temperature

  • Product of glycolysis in erythrocytes - 2,3 BPG decreases affinity of hemoglobulin for oxygen

  • High partial pressure of carbon dioxide - pCO2 in plasma decreases affinity of hemoglobin for
    oxygen

Explanation

Question 74 of 102

1

Low level of PCV may result from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hemorrhage (rapid loss of blood cells)

  • Anemia (loss of RBC)

  • Dehydration

  • Repetitive exercise

Explanation

Question 75 of 102

1

Identify statements characteristic for "0" typed individuals in ABO system:

Select one or more of the following:

  • They have gene/genes coding for the sequence amino acids of fucosyl-transferase

  • Have no antigens on membranes of erythrocytes

  • Both anti-A and anti-B immunoglobulins are synthesized after exposition to those antigens

  • Both anti-A and anti-B hemagglutinins are present in their plasma since their birth

Explanation

Question 76 of 102

1

Find solutions able to produce hemolysis to normal erythrocytes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hypertonic solution of glucose

  • Organic solvents (soap, detergents, etc)

  • Distilled water

  • Hypotonic solution of sodium chloride

Explanation

Question 77 of 102

1

Haemolytic Newborn disease can cause:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Anemia

  • Hypobilirubinemia

  • Decreased production of EPO

  • Death

Explanation

Question 78 of 102

1

Choose the correct statement concerning B-lymphocytes

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are mediators of humoral immunity

  • They are formed mainly in thymus

  • In effect of antigenic stimulation they form plasma cells which secrete Ig

  • They mediate cellular immunity

Explanation

Question 79 of 102

1

Agglutination of erythrocytes is in vitro phenomenon. Which of following processes may facilitate agglutination.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cooling (decreasing of temp) of in vitro preparation

  • Administration of Ig against human IgG (idea of indirect antiglobulin test/indirect Coombs test)

  • Enzymatic modification of molecules of IgG immunoglobulins

  • Activation of complete system performed by complexes antigen immunoglobulins IgM/IgG

Explanation

Question 80 of 102

1

In healthy humans which of following morphological elements of peripheral blood have shortest life span:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Macrophages

  • Thrombocytes

  • Hematopoietic stem cells

  • Erythrocytes

  • Memory B lymphocyte

Explanation

Question 81 of 102

1

PCV (Packed Cell Volume) of female is 20%. Identify right sentence concerning her case:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Her RBC is approximately 3,5 mln/mm3

  • She is in a state of dehydration

  • The client suffers anemia

  • Client is in a state of polycythemia

  • Her RBC is approximately 2,0 mln/mm3

Explanation

Question 82 of 102

1

Identify right statement concerning EPO:

Select one or more of the following:

  • 85% of erythropoietin comes from kidney and 15% from liver

  • Synthesized in kidney and next hydroxylated in liver in effect of hypoxia

  • Chemoattractant facilitates homing of blood progenitor cells in bone marrow

  • Bilaterally nephrectomized (removal of both kidneys) patients are able to maintain proper erythropoiesis

  • EPO stimulates differentiation of erythrocytes from cells of Colony Forming Unit of Mixed Lineages

  • G-CSF and interleukins 3 stimulates differentiation of erythrocytes from Colony Forming Unit of Mixed-Lineages

Explanation

Question 83 of 102

1

Hematopoietic stem cells play key role in human organism. Identify right statement:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Migrate among stem cell niches of embryo

  • Possesses ability for self renewal, highly resistant to radio chemotherapy

  • HSCs are not able to differentiate into blood cells of lymphoid lineage

  • Migration of HSCs finishes after birth. Hematopoiesis is performed in axial skeleton + proximal parts of long bones

Explanation

Question 84 of 102

1

Identify the right statement related to counting of leukocytes in hemocytometers (Such as Burker chamber):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Measurement of leukocytes requires previous hemolysis of erythrocytes

  • Fluids used for counting of leukocytes shrink erythrocytes

  • Fluids used for counting of leukocytes stain organelles of leukocytes

  • Counting of leukocytes requires previous staining of all blood cells

  • Hypertonic solution used for counting of leukocytes dilutes blood

Explanation

Question 85 of 102

1

Which of the following statements concerning ESR are true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Assessment of ESR requires centrifugation of erythrocytes

  • Increase of globulins concentration and decrease of albumin concentration in plasma decreases aggregating ability of erythrocytes. Due to this reason ESR rises

  • Normal ESR in healthy adult humans is usually lower than 10 mm/hour

  • ESR increases during menstruation and after physical exercise

Explanation

Question 86 of 102

1

Which of following statement concerning erythrocytes are true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • RDW (RBC distribution width) is quantitative measure of MCV

  • MCV is an erythrocyte index expressing average volume of erythrocytes

  • Concentration of hemoglobin in blood of healthy adult women ranges 12-16 g/dL

  • Standard erythrocyte due to its size + shape is not able to pass via capillaries which diameter is lower than 10 micrometer

Explanation

Question 87 of 102

1

Identify right statements concerning an antigen:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Secreted by plasmocytes in effect of immune response

  • It is any substance which is able to induce specific immune-response

  • Secreted by T-lymphocytes in effect of immune response

  • Able to activate complement system when bound by APCs

Explanation

Question 88 of 102

1

Which of following statements may characterize basophiles of blood:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Have large, dark blue granules in their cytoplasm

  • Present antigens to immune competent cells

  • Account for 5-10% of all leukocytes of peripheral blood

  • Their granules contain histamine, heparin + other chemicals involved in allergic + immune responses

Explanation

Question 89 of 102

1

Functions of ionized Ca2+ in organism are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • It inhibits secretory processes

  • Maintains proper functioning of cellular membrane transport

  • Factor 4 of coagulation supports proper coagulation process

  • It modifies hemoglobin which reduces hemoglobin affinity for oxygen

Explanation

Question 90 of 102

1

Identify right statements concerning tetany:

Select one or more of the following:

  • High plasma concentration of magnesium produces tetany

  • Hypocalcemia produces tetany

  • Tetany can be observed in people whose ventilation is depressed

  • Tetany will be observed in people with elevated level of PTH in plasma

  • Tetany can be observed in hyperventilating people

Explanation

Question 91 of 102

1

Which statement characterize IgG immunoglobulin

Select one or more of the following:

  • Can easily produce aggregation in standard environment of own plasma

  • Cannot pass through placenta

  • Can activate complement system

  • Has 2 antigen binding sites

  • A memory immunoglobulin

Explanation

Question 92 of 102

1

Which of following terms and definitions properly describes hemoglobin molecules able to perform their action in conditions in human organism:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Methemoglobin which is a form of oxygenated hemoglobin present in lungs

  • Carbaminohemoglobin, form of deoxygenated hemoglobin bound by CO2

  • Carbaminohemoglobin, a form of deoxygenated hemoglobin bound by CO

  • Oxyhemoglobin, a form of oxygenated hemoglobin present in lungs

  • Oxyhemoglobin, a form of oxidized hemoglobin dominating in erythrocytes of arterial blood

Explanation

Question 93 of 102

1

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT):

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prolonged in case of low plasma concentration of fibrinogen (Factor 1)

  • Depends on processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

  • Depends on platelets count

  • Depends on state of vascular wall

Explanation

Question 94 of 102

1

Identify proper statement concerning plasma coagulation proteins dependent on vitamin K:

Select one or more of the following:

  • They can be activated by heparin. substrates for thrombin

  • Post-translatory modification of molecules of prothrombin factor 2 + 10 in liver depends on vitamin K

  • Activity is inhibited by inhibitors of cyclooxygenase

  • They are plasma coagulation factors 1, 5, 8

  • They are proteolytic enzymes (serine-proteases)

Explanation

Question 95 of 102

1

Identify proper statements concerning plasma coagulation proteins dependent on vitamin K:

Select one or more of the following:

  • They can be activated by heparin

  • They are plasma coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X

  • They are plasma coagulation factors I, V, VIII, XIII

  • Their activity is inhibited by inhibitors of cyclooxygenase

  • They are plasma coagulation factors XI, XII, HMWK

  • Inhibited by coumarin-derivatives such as dikumarol + warfarin

Explanation

Question 96 of 102

1

Extrinsic pathway of coagulation:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Begins with exposure of collagen + activation of factor 7+3 coagulation

  • Begins with liberation of tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor (3))

  • Requires factor 12 for full activation of hemostatic process

  • Requires calcium ions

Explanation

Question 97 of 102

1

Find right sentences concerning hemagglutinins:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Agglutinogens are synthesized in Rh+ individuals after exposure to Rh- blood

  • Hemagglutinins in ABO system are mostly IgM class

  • Hemagglutinins in ABO system are inborn

  • In ABO system they are synthesized after immunization against antigen A + B commonly present in environment

Explanation

Question 98 of 102

1

Which of following receptors are ionotropic receptor for cations?

Select one or more of the following:

  • IP3 receptor.

  • Ryanodine receptor.

  • Glycine receptors.

  • GABAA receptors.

  • Nicotinic receptors

Explanation

Question 99 of 102

1

Which of following expressions about MHC class I complexes are true?

Select one or more of the following:

  • They are present in almost all cells, except for erythrocytes.

  • They are present only on antigen presenting cell.

  • Their role is to present proteins and activate helper T-lymphocytes

  • It plays role in defense against intracellular pathogens.

Explanation

Question 100 of 102

1

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT):

Select one or more of the following:

  • prolonged in case of low plasma concentration of fibrinogen (factor 1)

  • Depends in processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

  • depends on platelets count

  • depends on state of vascular wall

Explanation

Question 101 of 102

1

Identify proper statement concerning plasma coagulation proteins dependent on vitamin K:

Select one or more of the following:

  • they can be activated by heparin. substrates for thrombin

  • Post-translatory modification of molecules of prothrombin factor 2 & 10 in liver depends on vitamin K

  • activity is inhibited by inhibitors of cyclooxygenase

  • They are plasma coagulation factors 1, 5, 8

  • They are proteolytic enzymes (serine-proteases)

Explanation

Question 102 of 102

1

Identify proper statements concerning plasma coagulation proteins dependent on vitamin K:

Select one or more of the following:

  • They can be activated by heparin

  • They are plasma coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X

  • They are plasma coagulation factors I, V, VIII, XIII

  • Their activity is inhibited by inhibitors of cyclooxygenase

  • They are plasma coagulation factors XI, XII, HMWK

  • Inhibited by coumarin-derivatives such as dikumarol and warfarin

Explanation

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