Esmeralda Espitia
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patho 1 Quiz on Ch. 12 cancer bio, created by Esmeralda Espitia on 01/02/2022.

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Ch. 12 cancer bio

Ch. 12 cancer bio

Question 1 of 42

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1. Which cancer originates from connective tissue?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Osteogenic sarcoma

  • b. Basal cell carcinoma

  • c. Multiple myeloma

  • d. Adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 2 of 42

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2. Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Blood vessels

  • b. Epithelial cells

  • c. Connective tissue

  • Glandular

Explanation

Question 3 of 42

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3. Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

  • b. Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

  • c. Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

  • d. Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

Explanation

Question 4 of 42

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4. Which term is used to describe a cell showing a loss of cellular differentiation?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Dysplasia

  • b. Hyperplasia

  • c. Metaplasia

  • d. Anaplasia

Explanation

Question 5 of 42

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5. What are tumor cell markers?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells

  • b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked

  • c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells

  • d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy

Explanation

Question 6 of 42

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6. What is one function of the tumor cell marker?

Select one of the following:

  • a. To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer

  • b. To treat certain types of cancer

  • c. To predict where cancers will develop

  • d. To screen individuals at high risk for cancer

Explanation

Question 7 of 42

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7. Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in the development of colon cancer?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Cancer cells accumulate slower than noncancer cells.

  • b. An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required to develop cancer.

  • c. Tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract.

  • d. Apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli, including excessive growth.

Explanation

Question 8 of 42

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8. Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to do what?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply

  • b. Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors

  • c. Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth

  • d. Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use

Explanation

Question 9 of 42

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9. What is apoptosis?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive

  • b. Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb

  • c. Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene

  • d. Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia

Explanation

Question 10 of 42

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10. A student studying biology asks the professor to describe how the ras gene is involved in cancer proliferation. What explanation by the professor is best?

Select one of the following:

  • a. It suppresses the action of the tumor-suppressor genes.

  • b. It changes the way the growth promotion genes work.

  • c. A mutation in this gene allows continuous cell growth.

  • d. It activates a cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus.

Explanation

Question 11 of 42

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11. The professor explains to students that oncogenes are genes that are capable of what?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation

  • b. Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary
    replacement of tissue

  • c. Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt
    the replacement of tissue

  • d. Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph
    nodes for metastasis

Explanation

Question 12 of 42

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12. Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Point mutation

  • b. Chromosome translocation

  • c. Gene amplification

  • d. Chromosome fusion

Explanation

Question 13 of 42

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13. In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of normal gene to oncogene?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Point mutation

  • b. Chromosome fusion

  • c. Gene amplification

  • d. Chromosome translocation

Explanation

Question 14 of 42

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14. What aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in retinoblastoma?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes.

  • b. The tumor-suppressor gene is turned off.

  • c. Genetic amplification causes the growth.

  • d. Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused.

Explanation

Question 15 of 42

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15. Why are two “hits” required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each
    gene, one from each parent.

  • b. The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal
    tissue growth.

  • c. Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to
    affect carcinogenesis.

  • d. The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.

Explanation

Question 16 of 42

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16. How does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of
    another chromosome

  • b. Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies

  • c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs

  • d. Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes

Explanation

Question 17 of 42

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17. How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase?

Select one of the following:

  • a. To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth

  • b. As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division

  • c. To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely

  • d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely

Explanation

Question 18 of 42

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18. What are characteristics of benign tumors?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Benign tumors invade local tissues.

  • b. Benign tumors spread through the lymph nodes.

  • c. Benign tumors cause systemic symptoms.

  • d. Benign tumors include the suffix -oma.

Explanation

Question 19 of 42

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19. What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Herpes simplex virus type 6

  • b. Herpes simplex virus type 2

  • c. Human papillomavirus

  • d. Human immunodeficiency virus

Explanation

Question 20 of 42

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20. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Ovarian

  • b. Uterine

  • c. Cervical

  • d. Vaginal

Explanation

Question 21 of 42

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21. A healthcare professional is caring for a patient undergoing chemotherapy. What is the skin- related health risk the professional should assess the patient for and be prepared to treat?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Infection

  • b. Ultraviolet damage

  • c. Pain

  • d. Erythema

Explanation

Question 22 of 42

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22. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Proto-oncogenes

  • b. Oncogenes

  • c. Tumor-suppressor genes

  • d. Growth-promoting genes

Explanation

Question 23 of 42

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23. What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Cells undergo apoptosis.

  • b. Cells escape apoptosis.

  • c. Cells receive less oxygen.

  • d. Cells adhere more readily.

Explanation

Question 24 of 42

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24. Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and radiation therapy?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Increased cell turnover

  • b. Constipation

  • c. Stomatitis

  • d. Bloody stool

Explanation

Question 25 of 42

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25. What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis?

Select one of the following:

  • a. To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells

  • b. To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells

  • c. To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis

  • d. To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels

Explanation

Question 26 of 42

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26. It has been determined that a patient’s tumor is in stage 2. How does the healthcare professional describe this finding to the patient

Select one of the following:

  • a. Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.

  • b. Cancer has spread to regional structures.

  • c. Cancer is locally invasive.

  • d. Cancer has spread to distant sites.

Explanation

Question 27 of 42

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27. A cancer patient has pain at the tumor site and is worried the tumor has metastasized. What does the healthcare provider understand about this patient’s complaint?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor.

  • b. Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer.

  • c. Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer.

  • d. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.

Explanation

Question 28 of 42

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28. A healthcare professional is caring for four patients with cancer. Which patient does the professional educate about brachytherapy?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Lung

  • b. Colon

  • c. Cervical

  • d. Brain

Explanation

Question 29 of 42

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29. A child has been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). What does the healthcare professional tell the parents about the survival rate at 5 years for this disease

Select one of the following:

  • a. 90%

  • b. 70%

  • c. 40%

  • d. 20%

Explanation

Question 30 of 42

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30. By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Proto-oncogene

  • b. Autocrine stimulation

  • c. Reliance on caretaker genes

  • d. Pleomorphology

Explanation

Question 31 of 42

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31. What is the role of caretaker genes?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Maintenance of genomic integrity

  • b. Proliferation of cancer cells

  • c. Secretion of growth factors

  • d. Restoration of normal tissue structure

Explanation

Question 32 of 42

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32. In a normal, nonmutant state, what is an oncogene referred to as?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Basal cell

  • b. Target cell

  • c. Caretaker gene

  • d. Proto-oncogene

Explanation

Question 33 of 42

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33. What does the student learn about pleomorphic cells?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Pleomorphic cells are similar in size.

  • b. They have different sizes and shapes.

  • c. They are a result of anaplasia.

  • d. Pleomorphic cells differentiate uniformly.

Explanation

Question 34 of 42

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34. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Nausea

  • b. Fatigue

  • c. Hair loss

  • d. Weight loss

Explanation

Question 35 of 42

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35. What does the health professions student learn about benign tumors?

Select one of the following:

  • a. The resulting pain is severe.

  • b. Benign tumors are not encapsulated.

  • c. Benign tumors are fast growing.

  • d. The cells are well-differentiated.

Explanation

Question 36 of 42

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1. Normally, which cells are considered immortal? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Germ

  • b. Stem

  • c. Blood

  • d. Epithelial

  • e. Muscle

Explanation

Question 37 of 42

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2. What is the most common route for distant metastasis? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Seeding

  • b. Blood

  • c. Lymphatic vessels

  • d. Invasion

  • e. Proliferation

Explanation

Question 38 of 42

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3. What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Size

  • b. Ability to differentiate

  • c. Life expectancy

  • d. Tissue structure

  • e. Shape

Explanation

Question 39 of 42

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4. What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections among patients with cancer? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Indwelling medical devices

  • b. Suppressed immune system

  • c. Visitor-introduced microorganisms

  • d. Poor appetite

  • e. Inadequate wound care

Explanation

Question 40 of 42

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5. Which statements concerning aging and the occurrence of cancer are true? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Decline in immunologic functions

  • b. Predisposition to nutritional inadequacies

  • c. Unwillingness to access healthcare services

  • d. Reluctance to engage in cancer screenings

  • e. Effects of immobility on the immune system

Explanation

Question 41 of 42

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6. Which cancers are associated with chronic inflammation? (Select all that apply.)

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Brain

  • b. Colon

  • Bone

  • d. Thyroid gland

  • e. Urinary bladder

Explanation

Question 42 of 42

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7. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who has cancer and a hemoglobin of 8.8 mg/dL. What factors should the professional assess the patient for?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Chronic bleeding

  • b. Malabsorption of iron

  • c. Malnutrition

  • d. Recent blood transfusion

  • e. Current infection

Explanation

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