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Quiz on Respiratory System I, created by mano li on 26/01/2022.

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Respiratory System I

Question 1 of 100

1

Tiščoča (Squeezing) chest pain is characterized by

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. ischemic heart disease

  • b. pneumonia

  • c. inflammation of the lining of thin

  • d. asthma

  • e. acute tracheitis

  • f. rib fractures

  • g. thoracic spine spondylosis

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

a. pleurisy a.) stabbing
b. impairment of the diaphragm b.) radiates in the shoulder
c. spondylosis c.) depends on the movement of
d. tracheitis d.) Opressive
e. fracture of the rib e.) depends on the pressure

La combinación correcta es 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

3. What is characteristic of pain in diaphragmatic pleuritis skirt?

Select one of the following:

  • a. radiates into the shoulder

  • b. depends on the movement of the

  • c. depends on the pressure

  • Opressive

  • e. stabbing

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

4. What is characteristic of pain in tracheitis?

Select one of the following:

  • a. radiates into the shoulder

  • b. depends on the movement of the

  • c. depends on the pressure

  • d. opressive

  • e. stabbing

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

5. Cough is the most common symptom of lung disease. Connect timeline cough with the most likely diagnosis:

Select one of the following:

  • a. asthma: night cough; smoking bronchitis: morning cough; respiratory infection: coughing throughout the day;

  • b. asthma: night cough; smoker's bronchitis: cough throughout the day; respiratory infection: a morning cough;

  • c. asthma: morning cough; smoker's bronchitis: night cough; respiratory infection: coughing throughout the day;

  • d. asthma: morning cough; smoker's bronchitis: respiratory infection: coughing throughout the day; night cough;

  • e. asthma: coughing throughout the day; smoking bronchitis: morning cough; respiratory infection: night cough;

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

6. Common causes of chronic cough are:

Select one of the following:

  • a. chronic rhinitis, swelling of mucus in the throat, asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux and smoking bronchitis

  • b. lung cancer, asbestosis, extrinsic allergic bonhiolitis, ARDS

  • c. silicosis, lung amiodaronska, foreign body aspiration,

  • d. pulmonary vasculitis, cystic fibrosis, acute myocardial infarction

  • e. obstructive apnea during sleep, hiperventilacijski syndrome kifoskolioza

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

7. Which the product may have the side effect of chronic non-productive cough:

Select one of the following:

  • a. converting inhibitors of angiotensin

  • b. inhibitors of angiotensin (sartans)

  • c. renin inhibitors

  • d. COX-2

  • e. agonists, beta-blockers

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

8. When a patient sputum noticed a trail of blood:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. We are talking about hemoptoi

  • b. We are talking about hemoptysis

  • c. We are talking about haematochezia

  • d. in the first instance we think of the lung, pulmonary infarction or tuberculosis

  • e. first and foremost think of Goodpasture's syndrome or hemophilia

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

9. Where diseases would expect haemoptysis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. bronchiectasis

  • b. lung cancer

  • c. pulmonary infarction

  • d. kifoskolioza

  • e. obstructive apnea during sleep

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

10. Where diseases would expect haemoptysis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. pneumonia

  • b. lung cancer

  • c. pulmonary vasculitis

  • d. kifoskolioza

  • e. hiperventilacijski syndrome

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Where diseases would expect haemoptysis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. cardiogenic pulmonary edema

  • b. Goodpasture syndrome

  • c. lung cancer

  • d. asthma

  • e. sarcoidosis

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

12. The patient has haemoptysis. Let's do a chest X-ray, which does not look convincing pathological changes. Who should be the next test?

Select one of the following:

  • a. hemogram

  • b. bronchoscopy

  • c. CT HD

  • d. bronchial artery angiography

  • e. lung imaging with magnetic resonance imaging

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

How to treat a patient with lung abscess, which is suddenly coughed 250 ml of blood, and the patient was hemodynamically managed to temporarily stabilize?

Select one of the following:

  • a. do angiography bronchial arteries and emboliziramo bleeding artery

  • b. the patient begins treatment with antitussives, so as not to cough, because if the patient will not be coughed hemoptoa will not be repeated

  • c. the patient treated by the epsilon-amino acid kaproično

  • d. increasing the dose of antibiotics

  • e. administered ACE inhibitor in order to reduce the pressure in the bronchial arteries

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Wheezing, which is pronounced expiratory, probably due to obstruction:

Select one of the following:

  • a. nose

  • b. throat

  • c. in the trachea

  • d. the bronchus

  • e. the bronchioles

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

15. Wheezing, which is more pronounced during inhalation, probably due to obstruction:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. throat

  • b. in the trachea

  • c. the bronchus

  • d. the bronchioles

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

16. Dyspnea is a description of:

Select one of the following:

  • a. faster and deeper breathing

  • b. breathing using the auxiliary breathing muscles

  • c. a feeling of lack of air

  • d. tightness in the chest

  • e. snoring

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

The reasons for dyspnea may include

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. lung disease

  • b. heart disease

  • c. anemia

  • d. psyche

  • e. high blood sugar

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

18. The diagnosis of dyspnea set if:

Select one of the following:

  • a. the patient said that heavy breathing

  • b. measuring the respiratory rate over 20 per minute

  • c. we see that the patient has a barrel shaped chest

  • d. ECG figure denivelacijo ST segment

  • e. in gas analysis of arterial blood figure decreased partial pressure of oxygen, and reduced saturation of the blood with oxygen

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

19. For dyspnea in lung disease is characterized by:

Select one of the following:

  • a. pronounced is stationary, the physical activity disappears

  • b. more marked in the sitting and in the prone position

  • c. patient describes to him to breath air not come far enough into the lungs

  • d. respiratory rate is small (less than 12 ppm), because in this way the patient easier and breathed his last air in the lungs

  • e. It intensifies when physical exertion

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

20. Where the disease is dyspnea begins suddenly, in minutes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. spontaneous pneumothorax

  • b. hyperventilating syndrome

  • c. lung cancer

  • d. COPD

  • e. sarcoidosis

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Where the disease is dyspnea begins gradually intensifies in the weeks or months?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. spontaneous pneumothorax

  • b. hiperventilating syndrome

  • c. lung cancer

  • d. COPD

  • e. sarcoidosis

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

With any of these investigations it is most useful to begin the diagnostic process in redistribution (predeljavanju) cause dyspnea, which lasts a few months?

Select one of the following:

  • a. spirometry

  • b. ECG

  • c. bronchoscopy

  • d. Arterial blood gas measurements

  • e. Measurements of blood pressure

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

The most common among respiratory diseases are:

Select one of the following:

  • a. lung cancer

  • b. viral and bacterial infections

  • c. asthma

  • d. congenital anomalies mucociliary apparatus

  • e. pulmonary fibrosis

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

24. Three common causes of death due to lung disease in the population are:

Select one of the following:

  • a. tuberculosis, asthma, pneumoconiosis

  • b. lung cancer, pneumonia, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

  • c. sarcoidosis, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

  • d. pneumothorax, asbestosis, pulmonary embolism

  • e. pneumoconiosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

What data history is important to define harmful effects of smoking?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. or smokes a filter cigarette without the filter, a cigar, a pipe

  • b. how many cigarettes smoked per day

  • c. many years trough (the smoke)

  • d. How many years ago it was to stop smoking

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

26. What diseases have an important genetic basis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. asthma

  • b. asbestosis

  • c. cystic fibrosis (mucoviscidosis)

  • d. COPD

  • e. pneumonia

  • f. alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

  • g. tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

For spirometry applies:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Spirometry specimen at a maximum and then breathed all the air breathed his last in a spirometer

  • b. most healthy people with a force exhale and breathed his last at least 70% of vital capacity in the first second

  • c. Spirometry is conveniently carried out when the two best curve FVC does not differ by more than 3%

  • d. by spirometry can determine if lung function is normal and whether the patient has obstructive ventilation disorder, we can not reliably confirm restrictive ventilator disorders

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

28. Bronchodilator test:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. do it, when, in spirometry determine that a patient has obstructive disorder ventilation

  • b. the patient breathes bronchodilator, the standard is 400 micrograms salbutamol

  • c. spirometry repeated over 20 minutes

  • d. the test is positive, when normalized FEV1

  • e. the test is positive when the FEV1 had increased by at least 12% and at the same time for at least 200 ml

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

29. Bronhodilatator test done when the spirometry determine that a patient has obstructive disorder ventilation.

Select one of the following:

  • a. The patient breathes bronchodilator, the standard is 400 micrograms salbutamol. Spirometry repeated over 20 minutes.

  • b. The patient breathes 2 milligrams of methacholine. Spirometry repeated over 20 minutes.

  • c. Patient 2 weeks of receipt of 32 mg methylprednisolone is then repeated spirometry

  • d. Patient 1 month of receipt of the inhaled glucocorticoid, then repeat spirometry

  • e. Patient charge on cycloergometer then repeating spirometry

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Bronhodilatator test done when a patient is in spirometry:

Select one of the following:

  • a. reduced vital capacity

  • b. reduced FEV1

  • c. reduced Tiffeneau index

  • d. poorly reproducible curves

  • e. so severe cough that spirometry without bronchodilator inhalations can not do

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Bronchial Challenge test with methacholine:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. It measures bronchial responsiveness (sensibilidad)

  • b. do when it is suspected to asthma, the patient has a normal spirometry

  • c. do when it is suspected to asthma, the patient has a severe obstructive disorder ventilation and negative bronhodilatator test

  • d. if positive, the diagnosis of asthma is unlikely

  • e. if negative, the diagnosis of asthma is unlikely

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

The measurement of the maximum expiratory flow (PEF) were used:

Select one of the following:

  • a. instead of spirometry, if we do not have spirometry

  • b. that with serial measurements of track activity of asthma

  • c. for the separation of obstructive and restrictive disorders ventilation

  • d. to distinguish between an obstruction in the large and small airways

  • e. for determining the saturation of the arterial blood oxygen

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

33. Body plethysmography is essential if we are to make a diagnosis:

Select one of the following:

  • a. obstructive disorders of ventilation

  • b. restrictive disorders ventilation

  • c. reversible disturbance ventilation

  • d. hyperventilation syndrome

  • e. disorders of diffusion of gases through the membrane alveolocapillary

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

The body plethysmography can be measured:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. full lung capacity

  • b. residual volume

  • c. airway resistance

  • d. maximum airflow during forced exhalation

  • e. surface alveolocapilar menbrane

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

35. The transthoracic lung ultrasound examination can determine:

Select one of the following:

  • a. embolism in the pulmonary artery

  • b. lying central tumor

  • c. pleural effusion

  • d. bronchial obstruction

  • e. foreign body in bronhu

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

36. The value of the nitric oxide in exhaled air (one):

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. It indicates the degree of inflammation in the airways.

  • b. It indicates the degree of airway obstruction.

  • c. if higher than 30 ppb, the diagnosis of asthma reliable.

  • d. inhaled glucocorticoids decreases the value of one.

  • e. values one less than 30 ppb reliably exclude the diagnosis of asthma.

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

How should the patient inhaled bronchodilator spray from the pressurized gas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. before using the spray to open the cover spray

  • b. spray to launch 1-2 seconds before the breath

  • c. breath should be slow (it takes seconds to 5)

  • d. after a deep breath, the patient should retain your breath for 10 seconds

  • e. by inhalation to the patient as quickly as possible and breathed his last

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

38. Foreign bodies in the airway:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. They tend to fall into the bronchus of the left upper lobe

  • b. more common in children and people who have swallowing problems

  • c. Diagnosis is simple, because the foreign body well seen on chest x-ray

  • d. They can cause chronic pneumonia

  • e. usually have to be removed by surgery (lobectomy or even pulmectomy)

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

39. The diagnosis of "chronic bronchitis" set:

Select one of the following:

  • a. when the patient coughs and coughs up most days for at least three months a year for 2 years in a row

  • b. if the spirometry figure obstructive disorder ventilation

  • c. only smoker of cigarettes

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

40. What are the arguments of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are correct?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. COPD is the common cause of morbidity and mortality in developed countries.

  • b. COPD is never develops in nekadilcu.

  • c. For COPD is suffering from at least 50% of smokers.

  • d. The best known genetic risk factor for COPD is a hereditary deficiency of alpha-1-antitrypsin.

  • e. Passive smoking is a risk factor for development of COPD.

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

41. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) applies:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. In lung function to detect respiratory obstruction, which may be partially reversible, diffusion lung capacity is normal or reduced.

  • b. On rtg p / c are significantly narrowed intercostal spaces, flattened diaphragm and gentle retikulonodularne crowding.

  • c. Very important is the history of smoking.

  • d. It is a great help in the diagnosis we methacholine test.

  • e. Auscultatory is characterized by impaired breathing prolonged exhalation.

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

42. In physical examination, patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), we find:

Select one of the following:

  • a. sunken chest

  • b. rapid breathing part exhale

  • c. reduced sound perkutorni

  • d. low frequency poke in early inhaling

  • e. beeps that are pronounced during inhalation

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

43. In physical examination, patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), we find:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Barrel chest

  • b. breathing with lip recommend

  • c. hypersonorous percutaneous sound

  • d. low frequency poke in early inhaling

  • e. beeps that are pronounced expiratory

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

44. In physical examination, patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), we find:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Barrel chest

  • b. low deposited diaphragm

  • c. breathing prolonged expiratory

  • d. hypersonorous percutaneous sound

  • e. beeps that are pronounced during inhalation

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

45. What is the essential functional test for the diagnosis of COPD?

Select one of the following:

  • a. X-ray chest

  • b. ECG

  • c. Ultrasound examination of heart and lungs

  • d. spirometry

  • e. bronchoscopy

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

46. What are the significant changes in lung function of COPD patients?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. vital capacity (VC) is a normal or reduced

  • b. the flow in the first second (FEV1), and the ratio of FEV1 / VC were reduced

  • c. lung function returns to normal after inhalation of a bronchodilator

  • d. reduced both the diffusing capacity for CO as well as the residual volume

  • e. increased the total lung capacity

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

47. In the treatment of COPD subject:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. recommend smoking cessation

  • b. basic drug is a glucocorticoid and the inhalation by the patient receives regularly, the problem could be added bronchodilator "the occasion should arise"

  • c. among the most effective bronchodilators parasympatholytic

  • d. at doses of methylxanthines (theophylline) save the optimum plasma drug concentration

  • e. winter patients receiving prophylactic antibiotic to prevent worsening of the disease due to possible infection

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

For the treatment of COPD subject:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. Inhaled glucocorticoids are the drug of choice in all stages of COPD.

  • b. The combination of sympathomimetics and anticholinergics effectively improves FEV1 than either medicine alone.

  • c. In women dominated emphysema, and women with COPD should not be prescribed bronchodilators.

  • d. Frequent exacerbations of COPD needed continuous treatment with oral glucocorticoids.

  • e. In any deterioration of COPD is necessary antibiotic treatment.

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Common causes of deterioration of dyspnoea in patients with COPD have all except:

Select one of the following:

  • a. viral respiratory infection

  • b. pulmonary embolism

  • c. smoking cessation

  • d. heart failure

  • e. bacterial respiratory infection

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

What are the common causes of exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease because of purulent bronchitis?

Select one of the following:

  • a. staphylococci

  • b. chlamydia and mycoplasma pneumonia

  • c. pseudomonal

  • d. Streptococcus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza and branhamela catarrhalis

  • e. tuberculosis bacillus

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

51. Reasons for exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are:

Select one of the following:

  • a. viral infection, bacterial infection or pollution of the air

  • b. infection with chlamydia or mycoplasma pneumonia

  • c. exposure to pollen or mite

  • d. lack of physical activity

  • e. tuberculosis bacillus

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

52. The degree of deterioration of COPD is defined on the basis of:

Select one of the following:

  • a. degree of dyspnea, and fever

  • b. degree of dyspnea, nature and intensity of the cough, the amount and color of sputum

  • c. spirometry

  • d. X-ray changes

  • e. auscultatory findings of the lungs

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

53. Syndrome immobile chilli (primary ciliary dyskinesia) may be manifested by:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. bronchiectasis

  • b. sinusitis

  • c. infertility

  • d. situs inversus viscerum

  • e. early pattern baldness

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Asthma

Select one of the following:

  • a. any disease in which the patient indicates periodic damping

  • b. disease, which is characterized by an increased resistance in the bronchioles

  • c. chronic inflammatory disease of the bronchial mucosa

  • d. bacterial infection of the lungs

  • e. the result of cigarette smoking

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

For asthma following applies:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. When a diagnosis is in addition to the history and clinical examination of great help to the measurement of lung function.

  • b. The diagnosis can be set on the basis of X-ray images.

  • c. Nitric oxide in exhaled air is in a disordered asthma usually increased.

  • d. The most characteristic symptoms are gnojav scum and morning cough.

  • e. It is usually detected in patients older than 50 years.

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

56. For asthma following applies:

Select one of the following:

  • a. It is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways.

  • b. It is primarily a disease of the small airways (bronhiolov).

  • c. There is airway obstruction is irreversible.

  • d. The most important role in the pathogenesis of a Th1 lymphocytes, neutrophils and interleukin eighth

  • e. The most important medicine are agonists, beta-2 adrenergic receptor, which in most asthmatics achieve good regulation of the disease.

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

What are the characteristics of asthma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. shortness of breath

  • b. tightness in chest

  • c. cough

  • d. expectoration of purulent sputum

  • e. Fever

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

58. What are the symptoms of asthma?

Select one of the following:

  • a. poki of the lungs, a baseline in the second half of exhalation

  • b. stridor

  • c. poki in začeku inspiratory and expiratory polyphonic beeps

  • d. Many monophonic high-frequency beeps expiratory

  • e. sinistroepigastrične pulsation

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

59. Symptomatology of asthma is more pronounced:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. at night and in the early morning hours

  • b. after physical exertion

  • c. after inhalation of the allergen

  • d. before noon

  • e. immediately after meals

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Airway remodeling in asthma:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. It is the result of chronic asthmatic inflammation.

  • b. In particular, small bronchus and bronchioli narrowed due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of smooth muscle.

  • c. Due to chronic inflammation, the thickening of the basal membrane of the lining of the trachea and large bronchi and therefore greatly increases the airway resistance.

  • d. In lung function continues to measure the complete reversibility after bronchodilator

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

61. What are the significant changes in lung function of patients with asthma (at a time when the symptoms)?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. vital capacity (VC) is a normal or reduced

  • b. the flow in the first second (FEV1), and the ratio of FEV1 / VC were reduced

  • c. lung function significantly improved after inhalation of a bronchodilator

  • d. decreased diffusing capacity for CO

  • e. reduced total lung capacity

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

62. Methacholine test:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. If it is positive, the diagnosis of asthma reliable.

  • b. If it is negative, with very high probability excludes asthma.

  • c. Is positive if the detected at least a 15% decrease in FEV 1 after inhalation of 8 mg methacholine.

  • d. It can be positive for allergic rhinitis, or respiratory infections.

  • e. With the introduction of the measurement of nitric oxide in exhaled air it has become unnecessary.

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

63. A feature of asthma has increased bronchial responsiveness. How it is measured?

Select one of the following:

  • a. the ratio between the vital capacity and the flow rate in the first second (FEV 1 / VC)

  • b. by measuring the diffusion capacity of CO

  • c. by measuring the residual volume

  • d. with methacholine test

  • e. with a concentration of nitric oxide in exhaled air

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

64. In the case of suspected asthma do methacholine test:

Select one of the following:

  • a. where the patient has severe obstruction (Tieffeneau index below 50%)

  • b. when the obstruction persists for inhaled bronchodilators

  • c. still, because without this test, the diagnosis of asthma can not lay

  • d. when the patient's history of suspected pulmonary function is normal

  • e. when the patient can not teach measurements of pulmonary flow to the PEF meter

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

65. In the treatment of asthma:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. We recommend the removal of allergens from the living environment

  • b. basic medicine is inhaled glucocorticoid in

  • c. among the most effective bronchodilators beta adrenergic agonist

  • d. bronchodilator as a rule used in the form of tablets

  • e. the majority of patients receiving theophylline

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

The most powerful bronchodilator, which is used in the treatment of asthma exacerbation, is:

Select one of the following:

  • a. inhaled glucocorticoid

  • b. beta-adrenergic agonist

  • c. parasimpatikolitic

  • d. theophylline

  • e. cyclosporine

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Characteristics of aspirin asthma are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. It occurs in more than half of asthmatics.

  • b. These patients easily tolerate NSAIDs.

  • c. Ingestion of acetylsalicylic acid, the patient can trigger a life-threatening asthma exacerbation.

  • d. Patients with aspirin intolerance often have nasal polyps.

  • e. Any patient with asthma, it must immediately upon diagnosis of asthma prohibit the use of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) and all NSAIDs.

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

What are the possible side effects of agonists, beta-2 adrenergic receptor when used from the spray at the recommended dosage?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. tachycardia

  • b. bradycardia

  • c. hypotension

  • d. hypertension

  • e. hypokalemia

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

69. Which statement about theophylline is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • a. It has a powerful effect bronhodilatatorni.

  • b. It is optional bronchodilator / anti-inflammatory drug for asthma.

  • c. It can cause dangerous heart rhythm disorder

  • d. No significant side effects.

  • e. The most appropriate serum levels are between 10 and 550 mol / l.

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

70. The medicine of the initial anti-inflammatory treatment of asthma:

Select one of the following:

  • a. inhaled glucocorticoid

  • a. short-acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist

  • c. aminophylline

  • d. an inhibitor of beta-blockers

  • e. combination antilevkotriena, inhaled glucocorticoid and long-acting beta-2 agonist-blockers

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

71. Among the reasons for the worsening of asthma does not belong:

Select one of the following:

  • a. viral respiratory infection

  • b. exposure to an allergen

  • c. pneumothorax

  • d. exposure to cigarette smoke

  • e. insufficient doses of inhaled glucocorticoid

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

What are the clinical and laboratory signs of very severe exacerbations of asthma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. loud beeps of the lungs

  • b. silent chest

  • c. a reduced partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

  • d. normal or increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

  • e. flow (PEF or FEV1) below 30% of normal

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

73. In difficult exacerbation of asthma:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. We should not give oxygen, because this would lead to brake respiratory center.

  • b. We must administer oxygen to 1 L / min through a nasal catheter.

  • c. Give oxygen through a mask at least 35%.

  • d. From acting bronchodilators is the strongest theophylline infusion.

  • e. Anticholinergic agents act synergistically with the beta adrenergic agonist in inhalation.

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

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74. The difficult asthma exacerbation applies:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The basic medicament is a beta-2 adrenergic receptors (up to 1 breath / minute) of the spray through a large nozzle.

  • b. Oxygen can be added, if saturation is over 88%, because we are afraid to hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis.

  • c. Treated with systemic glucocorticoid, usually methylprednisolone, at a dose of 32-128 mg on the first day.

  • d. Aminophylline is used only in life-threatening deterioration.

  • e. Prior to initiation of therapy with bronchodilators have to be performed RTG p / c imaging.

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

75. To assess exacerbations of asthma are key:

Select one of the following:

  • a. history, status and spirometry

  • b. X-ray of the lungs

  • c. history, status and blood counts

  • d. investigation of induced sputum

  • e. measuring diffusion capacity of the lungs

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

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76. In the intensive care unit treated a patient with asthma if:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. require relatives

  • b. It has signs of impending respiratory failure

  • c. confused

  • d. Hypoxemia is inferior, or. It is generated after the initial treatment of hypercapnia

  • e. the febrile

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (mycosis):

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. as indicated by the clinical picture of severe pneumonia

  • b. It is indicated by the clinical picture of severe asthma

  • c. in the blood of these patients are found IgE and IgG aspergilusu (fungi)

  • d. for a disease characterized by central bronchiectasis

  • e. disease is cured with antifungal agents

  • f. rule, the patients in need of treatment with systemic glucocorticoids

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

What is true for lung cancer:

Select one of the following:

  • a. In humans, smoking a 20 years after the pack of cigarettes a day, is the risk of developing lung cancer, at least 20 times increased.

  • b. At higher index pack-year reduces the frequency of mutation of the p53 protein, which is responsible for apoptosis in the defective cells.

  • c. Environmental factors that influence the development of lung cancer, asbestos, radon, arsenic, beryllium, nickel, chromium.

  • d. Exposure to asbestos and smoking at the same time increases the risk of developing lung cancer by 7 times.

  • e. Lung cancer never develops in nekadilcu.

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

79. Lung tumors are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. mostly benign

  • b. more common in women than in men

  • c. It is mainly a disease of smokers

  • d. common in people exposed to asbestos

  • e. very rare malignant disease

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

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80. A typical presentation of lung cancer:

Select one of the following:

  • a. recurrent pneumonia in the same place

  • b. recurrent pneumonia in different places

  • c. bilateral pneumonia

  • d. lung abscess

  • e. sepsis

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

For lung cancer, holds:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The most common early symptom is coughing up blood.

  • b. It appears exclusively in smokers.

  • c. If it is localized in the large airways may occur inspiratorni stridor.

  • d. Hoarseness can be a sign of pressure with lymph node metastases seized on the left return laryngeal nerve.

  • e. Horner's syndrome is the result of pressure of the tumor on the upper hollow vein.

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Syndrome above the vein of coffee:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. swelling of the neck, face and upper extremities due to pressure from swollen glands in the external jugular vein

  • b. are swollen veins in the neck and upper chest,

  • c. most often a sign of lung cancer

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Individual symptoms Noting that lung cancer present in more than half of the patients:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. dyspnoea

  • b. cough

  • c. haemoptysis

  • d. bone

  • e. Weight Loss

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

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84. Which of the signs is not present in patients with lung cancer who have Horner syndrome:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. miosis

  • b. Argyll-Robertson pupil

  • c. ptosis

  • d. enoftalmus

  • e. Anhidrosis

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Which is the most important tests for the diagnosis of lung cancer:

Select one of the following:

  • a. transthoracic needle biopsy

  • b. cytological examination of sputum

  • c. bronchoscopy

  • d. thoracoscopy

  • e. pleural puncture

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

86. Paraneoplastic syndrome in a patient with lung cancer can be caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • a. pressure increased metastatic lymph nodes of the upper hollow vein

  • b. due to the pressure of increased metastatic lymph nodes on the left return laryngeal nerve

  • c. tumor metastases in distant organs

  • d. secretion of hormones or similar substances from the cancer cells

  • e. chemotherapy or radiotherapy of the tumor

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

What are the manifestations may be paraneoplastic syndrome in lung cancer?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. betičasti fingers (acropaquia)

  • b. venous thrombosis

  • c. Weight Loss

  • d. Fever

  • e. hypercalcemia

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

88. Diagnostic procedure in suspected lung cancer takes place in the following order:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. history and clinical examination

  • b. Chest X-ray in two projections

  • c. bronchoscopy with collection of material CITO / histological definition

  • d. CT of the chest, upper abdomen and the head

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

How to treat a patient with lung cancer?

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. small cell cancer are treated primarily by chemotherapy

  • b. squamous cancer are treated primarily by chemotherapy

  • c. glandular cancer are treated primarily by surgery

  • d. large cell treated primarily by surgery

  • e. small cell cancer are treated primarily by irradiation

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

For the radical operation squamous cancer apikoposteriornega segment of the left upper lobe of the lung, clinical stage T1N0M0:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. it is necessary to remove the left lung

  • b. it is necessary to remove the left upper lung lobe

  • c. it has to be removed apikoposteriorni segment of the left upper lobe of the lung

  • d. it is necessary to remove the left-sided hilusne and mediastinal lymph nodes

  • e. there is no need to remove mediastinal lymph nodes

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

Brain metastases from small cell lung cancer treated:

Select one of the following:

  • a. with cisplatin-based chemotherapy

  • b. cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin and vincristine

  • c. with preventive irradiation head

  • d. by irradiation of the head

  • e. biologics

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

The five-year survival of operated patients with lung cancer in stage IA:

Select one of the following:

  • a. 3%

  • b. to 10%

  • c. to 20%

  • d. to 20%, but only if the operation is treated again with chemotherapy

  • e. 70-80%

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

At the prognosis of patients with lung cancer is NOT affected by:

Select one of the following:

  • a. stage

  • b. histological type of cancer

  • c. neuroendocrine tumor differentiation

  • d. general condition of the patient

  • e. involvement of lymph nodes in the lungs and medistinum

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

94. The X-ray definition round changes in the lungs as anything except:

Select one of the following:

  • a. size of up to 3 cm in diameter

  • b. touching the mediastinum

  • c. no enlarged lymph nodes

  • d. no atelectasis

  • e. no pleural effusion

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

Solitary round change (lesion):

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. the diameter is greater than 3 cm

  • b. It is clearly limited

  • c. It is not in contact with the structures of the chest wall, mediastinum, diaphragm

  • d. It may not have the thorny growths

  • e. We mostly discovered accidentally

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

96. What about the argument carcinoid lungs are correct:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. The five-year survival of patients with lung typical karcinoidom is below 40%.

  • b. Half of the patients was detected lung carcinoid no symptoms.

  • c. Most patients with lung karcinoidom the carcinoid syndrome.

  • d. Dyspnoea and haemoptysis are the result of growth in carcinoid large airways.

  • e. Carcinoid when biopsy is often strong pain.

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

What is a "secondary pneumonia '?

Select one of the following:

  • a. Other pneumonia in life

  • b. recurrence of pneumonia which occurs in a patient, which is also in the phase of convalescence after pneumonia

  • c. pneumonia, which occurs in a patient who has just got over an acute illness

  • d. pneumonia, which occurs in a patient with another disease, which facilitates the formation of pneumonia (bronchial tumor, bronchiectasis, foreign body, treatment with immunosuppressants, immune deficiency)

  • Pneumonia is less important than the other diseases the patient has

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

98. Conditions that promote colonization of the respiratory tract by Gram-negative bacteria:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. diabetes

  • b. bronchiectasis

  • c. smoking

  • d. antibiotics

  • e. bronchodilator therapy

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Typical clinical picture of bacterial pneumonia:

Select one of the following:

  • a. start is slow, with few days subfebrilnostjo (temperature up to 38 degrees)

  • b. the patient has fever, bake the eyes

  • c. characterized by pain in skeletal muscle

  • d. It characterized the purulent sputum vermillion

  • e. like runs in the family Epidemic

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

100. In the physical examination of a patient with bacterial pneumonia reženjsko significant figure:

Select one or more of the following:

  • a. slow and deep breathing

  • b. shortened chat over ill Flap

  • c. impaired breathing above the diseased Flap

  • d. reinforced pectoral fremitus and bronchophonic over ill Flap

  • e. poke the breath of the ill Flap

Explanation

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