Physiology Cycle 1 - BLOOD

Question 1 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly describes beta-adrenergic (β-adrenergic) receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

β-adrenergic receptor is a ligand-gated channels.
Activity of some adrenergic receptors brings fEPSP to the postsynaptic membranes.
Beta-adrenergic receptors initiate transduction resulting with activation of adenylate cyclase.
Activation of beta-adrenergic receptors up-regulates synthesis of cAMP.

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Which of following expressions about MHC class I complexes are true?

Select one or more of the following:

They are present in almost all cells, except for erythrocytes.
They are present only on antigen presenting cell.
Their role is to present proteins and activate helper T-lymphocytes
It plays role in defense against intracellular pathogens.

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Put following cations of the extracellular fluid (ECF) in proper order. Begin from the most concentrated:

Select one or more of the following:

Sodium-calcium-potassium-magnesium
Magnesium-sodium - calcium
Potassium-sodium-calcium-magnesium
Sodium-potassium-calcium-magnesium

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

In Rhesus system of blood:

Select one or more of the following:

D antigen the oligosaccharide bound to the cellular membrane.
D antigen is the most immunogenic (the strongest) component of the system.
All antigens of the Rhesus system are proteins located only on membranes of erythrocytes.
Agglutinins are synthesized in RhD-negative individuals after exposure to RhD-postive
blood.

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:

Select one or more of the following:

Rise of liberation of histamine from mast cel
Rise of gluconeogenesis.
Rise of plasma concentration free fatty acids.
Intensification of catecholamine-dependant bronchodilation.

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?

Select one or more of the following:

It activates fibrinolysis.
TxA2 activates platelets – it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of
granules).
It mediates vascular contraction.
It prevents aggregation of platelets.

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

Select one or more of the following:

In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through the cellular membrane against concentration gradient.
Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water
Facilitated diffusion characterizes with finite rate of transfer of substance defined as
maximum saturation.
Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?

Select one or more of the following:

Prolonged time of the clotting time test.
Prolonged prothrombin time.
Prolonged time of bleeding time test.
Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.
Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.
Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This
mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.
Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:

Select one or more of the following:

5-7 % of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood.
50 % of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Process is catalyzed angiotensin converting enzyme.
All the bicarbonate produced in erythrocytes and exchanged for chloride. It’s called
Hamburger’s phenomenon.
Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carboxyhemoglobin

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Which of following sentences are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood.
Immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma of the newborn is almost zero.
Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.
Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B commonly present in environment.

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Which of following receptors are ionotropic receptor for cations?

Select one or more of the following:

IP3 receptor.
Ryanodine receptor.
Glycine receptors.
GABAA receptors.
Nicotinic receptors.

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

Which of following events don’t match the signal transduction of the G protein coupled receptor.

Select one or more of the following:

Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of β-subunit of the receptor. β-subunit
phosphorylates other proteins.
Subunits of G protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins.
Receptor interacts with G protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP for GTP.
Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates.

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:

Select one or more of the following:

Administration of aspirin slows the process of agglutination
Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin
Gamma globulins of IgM class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.
Agglutination is slowed by albumin molecules

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

Actions of heparin are:

Select one or more of the following:

It inhibits activity of plasma coagulation factors I and IV.
It activates natural anticoagulant protein of plasma – antithrombin III.
It inhibits activity of activated Stuart factor and thrombin (factors X and II).
It intensifies adhesion and degranulation of platelets.
It intensifies proteolytic degradation of plasminogen.

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?

Select one or more of the following:

They migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes.
They release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin.
They belong to the adaptive immune system. They are not able to phagocyte.
They aggregate in tissues where allergic reactions occur (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma).
They exhibit chemotaxis.

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left due to:

Select one or more of the following:

Decline of the concentration 2,3 BPG.
Rise of pCO¬2
Anemia.
High body temperature
Rise of pH.

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Muraminidase:

Select one or more of the following:

It is a part of innate immune response.
It activates complement cascade.
It is an enzyme that performs bacterial lysis.
It is present in plasmocytes.

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Oxytocin:

Select one or more of the following:

It produces contraction of cells of the deferent duct.
It up-regulates synthesis IP3 in smooth muscle cells of the uterus.
It is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells.
It has galactopoetic activity – it stimulates production of milk

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Which of following statements concerning coagulation are proper:

Select one or more of the following:

Thrombin dependant. factor are factors l, ll, X & Xll
Thrombin is a proteolytic enzyme catalyzing conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin.
Vitamin K is necessary in process of post-translatory modification of prothrombin in liver
Exposition of thrombin to fibrin degradation products accelerate coagulation.

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left due to:

Select one or more of the following:

Decline of the temperature.
Rise of 2,3 BPG.
Impulses from carotid bodies.
Rise of pH.
Hypercapnia (rise of pCO2).

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Actions of heparin are:

Select one or more of the following:

It inhibits activity of plasma coagulation factors I and IV.
It activates natural anticoagulant protein of plasma antithrombin III.
It inhibits activity of activated Stuart factor and thrombin (factors X and II)
It intensifies adhesion and degranulation of platelets.

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Find true statements concerning vasopressin:

Select one or more of the following:

It increase water reabsorption from the collecting duct via AQP2 up-regulated after hormone -binds to VP1 receptor.
In smooth musculature of vessels, it up-regulates synthesis of IP3 in smooth muscle cells, eliciting contraction.
Its plasma level rises in effect of decreasing osmotic pressure of blood and cerebrospinal fluid.
Decompression of baroreceptors of the carotid sinus and aortic arch increases liberation of that hormone.
Activates Thirst complex

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

Select one or more of the following:

In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through the cellular membrane against concentration gradient.
Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.
Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2.
Facilitated diffusion characterizes with finite rate of transfer of substance defined as maximum saturation.

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Lactoferrin:

Select one or more of the following:

It is a part of innate immune response.
It activates complement cascade.
It is an enzyme of saliva binding iron necessary for proliferation of microbs.
It is an enzyme of saliva reducing Fe2+ to Fe3+.

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Which of following receptors are intracellular ionotropic receptor for cations?

Select one or more of the following:

IP3 receptor.
Nicotinic receptors.
Ryanodine receptor.
Glycine receptors.

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:

Select one or more of the following:

It up-regulates liberation of histamine from mast cells.
It intensifies gluconeogenesis in liver.
It down-regulates number of lymphocytes and eosinophils.
It intensifies catecholamine-dependent broncho-constriction.
It increases GFR. 
Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are rise of plasma conc. of free fatty acids

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Put following cations of the extracellular fluid (ECF) in proper order. Begin from the least concentrated:

Select one or more of the following:

Sodium-potassium-calcium- magnesium
Magnesium-calcium-potassium-sodium
Potassium-sodium-calcium- magnesium
Sodium- calcium - potassium - magnesium

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Which of following sentences are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Ratio of agglutinins of ABO in plasma of blood rises throughout childhood.
Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B, being simple and common antigens. 
Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.
Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood.
Agglutinins are present in adult blood plasma

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Which of following statements concern G-protein coupled receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

G-protein coupled receptors hydrolyses GTP, transferred from G-protein to the binding site of the receptor.
Muscarinic receptor is an example of G-protein coupled receptor.
All adrenergic receptors belong to family of G-protein coupled receptors.
G-protein coupled receptors are metabotropic, they initiate formation of second messengers: cAMP or IP3.

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:

Select one or more of the following:

Administration of heparin slows the process of agglutination.
Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon, in vivo process continues, engaging mechanism of destruction of erythrocytes
Administration of isotonic solution of NaCl can facilitate IgG-dependent agglutination of
erythrocytes
Gamma globulins of IgG class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?

Select one or more of the following:

Prolonged time in the clotting time test.
Prolonged prothrombin time.
Prolonged time of bleeding time test.
Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.
Prolongerd APTT

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?

Select one or more of the following:

It activates fibrinolysis.
TxA2 activates platelets & it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of granules).
It prevents aggregation of platelets.
It mediates vascular contraction.

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.
Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.
Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.
Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly describe metabotropic receptors (MR)?

Select one or more of the following:

GABAb receptor is an example of metabotropic receptor
Tyrosine kinase receptors are metabotropic receptor able to autophosphorylates after binding their ligands
Some adrenergic receptors are tyrosine kinase receptors
Muscarinic receptors are coupled to phospholipase C & adenylyl cyclase

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Which of the following statements properly concern G proteins?

Select one or more of the following:

Binding of insulin to G protein of the insulin receptor initiates process of activation of adenylyl cyclase
Extracellular ligands bind to G-protein coupled receptors which in turn activate particular G protein
Inhibitory G protein (Gi protein) is coupled to carbonic anhydrase of some cells
The G-protein activates a cascade of signaling events that finally results in a change in cell function

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Which of the following receptors are ionotropic?

Select one or more of the following:

Ryanodine receptor
Rhodopsin receptor
PTH receptor
Nicotine receptor
IP3 receptor

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Which of the following statements properly describe hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland(APG)?

Select one or more of the following:

Dopamine decreases liberation of from APG in mechanism of negative feedback
Liberation of corticoliberin (CRH) from APG is stimulated by corticotropin (ACTH)
TSH is liberated from APG. TSH binds its metatropic receptor of the membrane of the thyroid cell
GnRH (gonadoliberin) from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH and LH
Prolactin is produced by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus and liberated by the anterior pituitary

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Actions of angiotensin II are:

Select one or more of the following:

it mediates vasoconstriction
It stimulates secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex
It decreases reabsorption of sodium ions in kidneys
It increases heart rate
It is a product of partial proteolysis of plasma protein angiotensinogen, process initiated by renin.

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

Oxytocin

Select one or more of the following:

It binds to the ligand-gated sodium channel of smooth muscle cells of the uterus
It is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells
It has galactopoietic activity -it stimulates production of milk
It produses contraction of the cells in the deferent duct
It up-regulates synth of IP3 in SMC of the uterus
It produces contraction of the uterus

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Phenomena causing increased liberation of renin are:

Select one or more of the following:

Reduced volume of ECF and hypoperfusion of the kidney
Increased arterial pressure
Decreased load of distal tubular fluid (NaCl) in area of the macula densa (of the distal tubule
Increased volume of ECF (hypervolemina)

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Channels embedded in cellular membrane can be gated by:

Select one or more of the following:

Extracellular ligand such as glycine
Change of the electrical potential of the cellular membrane
Mechanical deformation of the cell (ex. Organ of corti)
Second messenger such as IP3

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?

Select one or more of the following:

PTH increases conc. of Ca2+ in plasma blood.
PTH up-regulates mobilisation of Ca2+ ions from bones.
PTH increases activity of la-hydroxylase of 25OH D3 in kidneys
Thyroid hormones decrease plasma concentration of calcium

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?

Select one or more of the following:

Growth hormone exerts hypercalcemic effect
PTH decreases activity of 1alpha-hydroxylase of vitamin 25-OHD3 in kidney
Calcitonin & glucocorticoids decrease plasma level of Ca2+
Tetany is a symptom of hypercalcemia

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Tetany:

Select one or more of the following:

Is a symptom of neuromuscular hyperexcitability
Can be produced by respiratory alkalosis (by hyperventilation)
Is caused by Low phosphate levels
Tetany can be prod by low plasma levels of Mg2+

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

Which of following will NOT haemolyse erythrocytes?

Select one or more of the following:

5% solution of glucose
0.3 % NaCl
Distilled water
0,6% saline
Benzene, ether & other organic solvents hemolyse RBC’s
Temp. above 60C

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Which of following will facilitate detachment of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin?

Select one or more of the following:

Rise of pH
Rise pO2
Rise in body temp
Rise in pCO2

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

What's true about EPO?

Select one or more of the following:

EPO is produced by interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed of kidneys
Adenosine and androgens inhibit secretion of EPO
Hypoxia (low partial pressure of O2) in kidney is the main stimulus for EPO release
EPO increases the number of erythropoietin sensitive committed stem cells in the bone marrow that are converted by red blood cell precursors

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

EPO;

Select one or more of the following:

Is a cholesterol
Is a glycoprotein
Synthesised in the liver
Synthesised in the kidneys

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:

Select one or more of the following:

10% of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Conversion is spontaneous and performed in plasma of blood
5-7% of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood
Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin
carbaminohemoglobin is an example of reduced hemoglobin of red-brown colour
CO2 can be found as carbaminians & carbanomoHb in the blood
Most of CO2 is converted to HCO3- by carbonic anhydrase of RBC

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?

Select one or more of the following:

They migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes
They aggregate in tissues when allergic reactions occur, (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma)
They release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin
They exhibit chemotaxis

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern agglutination?

Select one or more of the following:

Administration of heparin slows the process agglutination
Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin
Agglutination results from an interaction between the platelet’s GP IIb/IIIa and vascular collagen
Gamma globulins of IgM class are able to produce immediate agglutination in room temperature

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

What is correct about AB blood type?

Select one or more of the following:

Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of N-acetylgalactosamine onto H-Ag.
Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of D-galactose onto H-Ag.
AB is the most common blood type
Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of fucose forming H-Ag.
AB has no antigens

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

What is true about Agglutination?

Select one or more of the following:

Agglutination of Anti-D Antibody gives Rhesus -
Agglutination by anti-A Antibody, but not Anti-B Antibody gives the blood type A
No agglutination of Anti-D ab, gives Rhesus -
Agglutinins of A-B-O are produced in adulthood
All Ag of the rhesus system are proteins located on membranes of RBC’s.

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

What is true about blood type?

Select one or more of the following:

Agglutination of both Anti-B & Anti-A ab, give blood type AB
No Agglutination of either Anti-A or Anti-B Ab give blood type O
There are 4 blood types
Ag are proteins located only on membranes of RBC

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Hemolysis;

Select one or more of the following:

5% solution of glucose is isotonic will hemolyse RBC
IgG against D-Ag administered to RhD-neg mother after delivery of RhD-pos child, will not hemolyse maternal RBC’s
Hemolysis by hypotonic saline solutions start at 0,45%
Hypertonic solutions hemolyse RBC's

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Turk's solution;

Select one or more of the following:

solution stains RBC
solution shrinks RBC
used in hemocytermeter dilutes blood
hemolyse RBC's
stains organelles of WBC

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Hayem's solution;

Select one or more of the following:

solution stains RBC
solution shrinks RBC
solution dilute blood
stains organelles of WBC
Hemolyse RBC's

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Complement;

Select one or more of the following:

Presenting on the water soluble antigen
Complement have chemotaxis of macrophages & neutrophils
Complements promotes agglutination of invading microbes
Complement have opsonising abilities
degranulation of the eosinophils and monocytes

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

What is correct about diffusion?

Select one or more of the following:

Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.
Facilitated diffusion characterises with infinite rate of transfer of substance defined as maximum saturation.
Simple diffusion - its rate is directly proportionate to the surface area & directly proportionate to the molecular size & thickness of the membrane
Secondary active transport uses potential energy in conc. gradient of some ions created by energy liberated from ATP, such as Na+
Simple diffusion depends on molecules ability to dissolve in lipids
Secondary active transport can transfer co-transported molecules even against conc. gradient.

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

What is correct about blood?

Select one or more of the following:

Sphingosine 1-phosphate (SIP) derived from RBC membrane is a chemoattractant for HSC from bone marrow.
High % of RDW indicates anisocytosis of RBC
D-Ag is the most Ag (strongest) component of the Rh system
ESR decreases with conc of plasma globulins

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Water;

Select one or more of the following:

ICF is 20% of TBW
TBW is 60% of body mass
ICF main cation is K+
ECF main cation is Mg2+

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

Functions of ionised Ca2+

Select one or more of the following:

maintenance of proper function of neurons & myocytes
maintenance of function of cell-memb. (Transport)
Increase blood volume
Factor 4 in blood coagulation

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

B-cells;

Select one or more of the following:

B-cells mediate humeral immunity
B-cells mediate cellular immunity
B-cells work in effect of antigenic stimulation, they form plasma cells which secrete immunoglobulins
B-cells have MHC-2 present on their membranes

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

IgG;

Select one or more of the following:

IgG is a memory immunoglobulin
IgG binds C1 complex of complement to Ag-IgG complex, initiating classical pathway
IgG has only 2 Ag-binding sites
IgG can be found in tears & saliva

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Correct sequence of phagocytosis/inflammatory response;
1. Rolling
2. Chemotaxis
3. Diapedesis
4. Adhesion

Select one or more of the following:

1, 3, 2, 4,
2, 4, 3, 1
1, 4, 3, 2
3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

What is INCORRECT about blood

Select one or more of the following:

Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to Hb, forming carbamino-Hb
Ag’s are found in various tissues in addition to blood
Blood type A has a N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase catalysing its attachment to H-Ag
RBC have MHC-1

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Identify right statements concerning the Bleeding time test

Select one or more of the following:

Its duration is inversely proportional to the number of platelets
it does not depend on concentration and activity of plasma factors of secondary hemostasis
it is prolonged in people treated with heparin
it tests processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Analyze ABO system of a couple: a woman (blood type A) has a father whose blood type is O, and is married to a man whose blood type is B (his mother type is A). What is their child probability of blood type A:

Select one or more of the following:

75%
0%
50%
25%

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Which of the following statements properly concern muscarinic receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

All muscarinic receptors are serpentine G-coupled receptors.
Some of them are ligand-gated ionic channels.
Muscarinic receptors modify activity of adenylyl cyclase of phospholipase C.
Acetylcholine is an antagonist of all muscarinic receptors.

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Find proper sequence of events in signal transduction of the G-Protein coupled receptor;
1. Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates
2. Receptor interacts with G-protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP to GTP
3. Subunits of G-Protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins.
4. Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of beta-subunit of the receptor, beta-subunit
5. ) G-Protein dissociates from the receptor, Subunits of G protein dissociate

Select one or more of the following:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2, 3, 5, 4, 1
1, 2, 5, 3, 4
4, 5, 1, 3, 2

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Which of following statements properly concern gating of channels of a cellular membrane:

Select one or more of the following:

Glycine receptor is an example of chemically-gated channel for Cl- ion
Smooth muscle cells can contract being mechanically stretched. Mediated by stretch-gated channels.
Action potential of excitable cells is usually provoked by outflow of anions through ligand-gated channels
Action potential of excitable cells in usually evoked by entrance of cations through electrically gated channels. (Na+ & K+)

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Which of the following statements concerning water are true:

Select one or more of the following:

Specific Heat of water is low. Because of this reason water is excellent heat conductor
Water is an excellent solvent because of its polar molecule
Water easily passes across cellular membrane via non-gated channels for cations
Adipose tissue is least hydrated tissue

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

Find right sentences concerning erythrocyte sedimentation rate;

Select one or more of the following:

it is a ratio of volume of all erythrocyte to volume of whole blood
It is proportionate to packed cell volume (PCV, Hematocrit)
Proportionate to plasma concentration of globulin
It should not exceed 15mm/h in healthy adults. Is higher in infectious diseases & cancers

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

IgM

Select one or more of the following:

It can easily produce agglutination of erythrocytes in room temperature
It can cross blood placenta barrier
Has 10 binding-sites
it’s a secretory immunoglobulin

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Which of the following statements are true and concern cholinergic receptors:

Select one or more of the following:

All muscarinic receptors are g-protein coupled receptors.
Some of them are ionotropic receptors of postsynaptic membrane of autonomic ganglia (+ CSN)
Activation of muscarinic receptors increases activity of adenylyl cyclase
Some of cholinergic receptors are tyrosine kinase
Only 2 types; N-cholinergic & Muscarinic

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Which of the following receptors are metabotropic:

Select one or more of the following:

PTH receptor
IP3 receptor
IGF receptor
Adrenergic receptor (Epinephrine)

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Which of the following statements properly describes nicotinic receptor:

Select one or more of the following:

it is a ligand-gated sodium channel
Activity of this receptor brings IPSP to postsynaptic membrane of neuromuscular junction
channel for small cations and anions. blocked by nicotine
2 molecules of a natural agonist are bound to alpha-subunits of receptor

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Young adult non-obese female 50 kg was injected intravenously with 1200 mg inulin. Laboratory analysis revealed that plasma C of inulin is 120mg/L. Proper conclusion is:

Select one or more of the following:

Volume of plasma is improper and equals 10 liters, possible reason is overhydration or hypervolemia
Volume of plasma is proper and equals 3.2-3,5 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained
Volume of extracellular fluid is proper and equals 10 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained
Volume of extracellular is improper and equals 10 liters. The possible reason is dehydration

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Identify right statement concerning erythrocytes:

Select one or more of the following:

carboxyhemoglobin is a reduced form
Methb is an oxidised form
Blood carries 97% O2
Blood carries 97% CO2

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

What is correct concerning the intrinsic pathway:

Select one or more of the following:

depends on factor 11-12a, Kallikrein
depends on release of HMWK
depends on factor 3-12
depends on vascular wall
needs calcium ions

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Growth factor is stimulated by;

Select one or more of the following:

hyperglycemia
hypoglycemia
stress and sleep (REM)
physical exercise

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Identify statements characteristic for “0” typed individuals in ABO system:

Select one or more of the following:

They have gene/genes coding for the sequence amino acids of fucosyl-transferase
have no antigens on membranes of erythrocytes
Both anti-A and anti-B immunoglobulins are synthesized after exposition to those antigens
Both anti-A and anti-B hemagglutinins are present in their plasma since their birth

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

Haemolytic Newborn disease can cause:

Select one or more of the following:

Anemia
Hypobilirubinemia
death
edema

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Which of following processes may facilitate agglutination.

Select one or more of the following:

Cooling (decreasing of temp) of in vitro preparation
Administration of Ig against human IgG (Coombs test)
Enzymatic modification of molecules of IgG immunoglobulins
Activation of complement system performed by complexes antigen immunoglobulins IgM/IgG

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

In healthy humans which of following morphological elements of peripheral blood have shortest life span

Select one or more of the following:

Macrophages
Thrombocytes (platelets)
Hematopoietic stem cells
Erythrocytes

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

Which of following statement concerning erythrocytes are true:

Select one or more of the following:

MCV is an erythrocyte index expressing average volume of erythrocytes
RDW (RBC distribution width) is quantitative measure of MCV
Conc. of hemoglobin in blood of healthy adult women ranges 12-16 g/dL
Standard erythrocyte due to its size + shape is not able to pass via capillaries which diameter is lower than 10 micrometer

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT):

Select one or more of the following:

Prolonged in case of low plasma concentration of fibrinogen (Factor 1
Depends on processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation
Depends on platelets count
Depends on state of vascular wall

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Identify proper statement concerning plasma coagulation proteins dependent on vitamin K;

Select one or more of the following:

They can be activated by heparin. substrates for thrombin
Post-translatory modification of molecules of prothrombin factor 2 & 10 in liver, depends on Vit K
Factor 2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S are Vit. K dep.
Activity is inhibited by inhibitors of cyclooxygenase
They are proteolytic enzymes (serine-proteases)
Inhibited by coumarin-derivatives such as dikumarol + warfarin

	Created by Soheila Amri over 2 years ago

Past exams & own question turned notes

Physiology Cycle 1 - BLOOD

Question 1 of 100

Which of following statements properly describes beta-adrenergic (β-adrenergic) receptors?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

Which of following expressions about MHC class I complexes are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

Put following cations of the extracellular fluid (ECF) in proper order. Begin from the most concentrated:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

In Rhesus system of blood:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

Which of following sentences are true?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

Which of following receptors are ionotropic receptor for cations?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

Which of following events don’t match the signal transduction of the G protein coupled receptor.

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

Actions of heparin are:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

Hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left due to:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

Muraminidase:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

Oxytocin:

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

Which of following statements concerning coagulation are proper: