Microbiology/Pathology III

Question 1 of 50

1

Although primary tumors of the heart are quite rare, which of the following is the MOST common primary tumor of the heart in adults and is frequently located in the left atrium?

Select one of the following:

A) Myxoma
B) Papillary fibroelastoma
C) Rhabdomyoma
D) Chordoma
E) Leiomyoma

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

1

B-cell proliferation for the secondary humoral immune response takes place in

Select one of the following:

A) Bone marrow sites
B) Corticomedullary junctions in the thymus
C) Primary follicles of the lymph nodes and of the spleen
D) Germinal centers of the lymph nodes and of the spleen
E) Paracortex of the lymph nodes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheath of the spleen

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

1

Which of the following usually gains entry by inhalation of spores where it then invades the walls of blood vessels leading to necrosis, thrombosis and infarction in the lumen and is characteristic for broad nonseptate hyphae?

Select one of the following:

A) Blastomyces dermatitidis
B) Coccidioides immitis
C) Sporothrix schenckii
D) Rhizopus spp.
E) Histoplasma capsulatum

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

1

The only acceptable plastic that can be used for steam sterilization or autoclave is

Select one of the following:

A) polypropylene
B) polyvinyl chloride
C) polystyrene
D) polyethylene
E) polyurethane

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

1

The induction of B-cells switching to IgE is stimulated by

Select one of the following:

A) Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
B) Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
C) Interleukin-3 (IL-3)
D) Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
E) Interleukin-5 (IL-5)

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

1

Mutations, often inflicted by exposure to mutagens, viruses or radiation, involve aberrant changes made to the genetic material that may affect the structure and function of its coded protein product. If a mutation alters a codon which encodes for an amino acid to a stop codon, then this modification would be considered a

Select one of the following:

A) Silent mutation
B) Missense mutation
C) Point mutation
D) Nonsense mutation
E) Frameshift mutation

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

1

Which of the following is the only double stranded RNA virus?

Select one of the following:

A) Retrovirus
B) Togavirus
C) Orthomyxovirus
D) Reovirus
E) Rhabdovirus

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

1

Which of the following antibiotics blocks the transfer of peptidoglycan subunits to the existing cell wall peptidoglycan?

Select one of the following:

A) D-cycloserine
B) Bacitracin
C) Clindamycin
D) Penicillin
E) Tetracycline

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

1

A ”bright field” microscope is regularly used for cytological tests. When using a ”bright field” microscope, the resolution is dependent on the

Select one of the following:

A) magnification by the ocular lens and the wavelength of the light
B) numerical aperture
C) numerical aperture and the wavelength of the light
D) level of magnification by the ocular lens
E) wavelength of light

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

1

Which of the following sites is where respiration takes place in bacteria?

Select one of the following:

A) Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Cytoplasmic membrane
C) Nuclear membrane
D) Golgi bodies
E) Mitochondria

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

1

A patient has recently undergone renal allograft transplantation. He complains that he urinates less frequently, his blood pressure has increased and that serum creatinine concentration has increased since his transplantation. Which of the following are responsible for these clinical manifestations?

Select one of the following:

A) T lymphocytes
B) Basophils
C) Natural killer cells
D) B lymphocytes
E) Preformed antibodies

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

1

Which of the following is a cytokine that is capable of decreasing inflammation?

Select one of the following:

A) Interleukin 1 (IL-1)
B) Interleukin 6 (IL-6)
C) Interleukin 8 (IL-8)
D) Transforming Growth Factor - beta (TGF-beta)
E) Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

1

Which of the following bacteria can form endospores?

Select one of the following:

A) Clostridium and Staphylococcus
B) Clostridium and Bacillus
C) Mycoplasma and Bordetella
D) Streptococcus and Mycoplasma
E) Mycoplasma and Bacillus

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

1

Each of the following is a killed vaccine EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Select one of the following:

A) Salk polio vaccine
B) Hepatitis B vaccine
C) Yellow fever vaccine
D) Thyphoid vaccine
E) Cholera vaccine

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

1

Which of the following molecules is necessary to ”present” antigen to a T helper cell?

Select one of the following:

A) MHC-class I
B) MHC-class II
C) MHC-class III
D) CD4
E) CD8

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

1

Negri bodies is diagnostic of

Select one of the following:

A) cytomegalovirus
B) rabies
C) measles
D) Leprosy
E) poliomyelitis

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

1

Alpha hemolytic streptococci is the major cause of

Select one of the following:

A) rheumatic mitral valve disease
B) calcific aortic stenosis
C) infective endocarditis
D) mitral valve prolapse
E) chronic cor pulmonale

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

1

Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is a cystic hygroma MOST commonly associated with?

Select one of the following:

A) Cri-du-chat syndrome
B) Down's syndrome
C) Klinefelter's syndrome
D) Turner's syndrome
E) Edward's syndrome

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

1

Which of the following concerns a ”compound” microscope?

Select one of the following:

A) It magnifies in two steps
B) It has two specimen stages
C) It produces its resolution in two steps
D) It can be adjusted to either to polarize or not to polarize light
E) It produces both magnification and resolution

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

1

Which of the following events occurs only in apoptosis and NOT necrosis?

Select one of the following:

A) Presence of Eosinophils
B) Peripheral aggregation of chromatin
C) Inflammation
D) Disaggregation of polyribosome
E) Karyolysis

Explanation

Question 21 of 50

1

Your patient has swelling of the parotid glands. Which of the following viruses would show this clinical manifestation?

Select one of the following:

A) Measles virus
B) Mumps virus
C) Rubella virus
D) Respiratory synctial virus
E) Parainfluenza virus

Explanation

Question 22 of 50

1

Which of the following can NOT cause a congenital infection?

Select one of the following:

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Toxoplasma gondii
C) Mumps
D) Cytomegalovirus
E) Rubella virus

Explanation

Question 23 of 50

1

Which of the following is NOT a serious sequelae of an acute myocardial infarction?

Select one of the following:

A) Mitral valve dysfunction
B) Cardiac rupture
C) Ventricular aneurysm
D) Pericarditis
E) Mural thrombosis with embolus

Explanation

Question 24 of 50

1

Rheumatic arthritis and Glomerular Nephritis are examples of which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions?

Select one of the following:

A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

Explanation

Question 25 of 50

1

Which one of the following toxins is encoded on a plasmid?

Select one of the following:

A) Tetanus toxin
B) Shiga-like toxin
C) TSST-1
D) Cholera toxin
E) Pertussis toxin

Explanation

Question 26 of 50

1

Syphilis, leprosy, trachoma, and tuberculosis are several human infections that reside in human tissues for long periods of time thus provoking a long drawn-out battle between the microorganism and the defenses of the host. This is called microbial

Select one of the following:

A) persistence
B) latency
C) tolerance
D) virulence
E) opportunism

Explanation

Question 27 of 50

1

Which of the following conditions will NOT cause the formation of an aneurysm?

Select one of the following:

A) Syphilis
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Thromboangiitis obliterans
D) Kawasaki's disease
E) Polyarteritis nodosa

Explanation

Question 28 of 50

1

The presence of Koplik spots is an indication of a person infected with mumps. Koplik spots are small irregular red, white and blue colored spots seen in the oral cavity opposite to the maxillary molars.

Select one of the following:

A) Both statements are TRUE.
B) Both statements are FALSE.
C) The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE.
D) The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.

Explanation

Question 29 of 50

1

Each of the following are correct statements about Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Select one of the following:

A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa has peritrichous flagella while Escherichia coli has polar flagella
B) Escherichia coli can ferment lactose while Pseudomonas aeruginosa cannot
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces exotoxin A while Escherichia coli does not
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa can synthesize pyocyanin while Escherichia coli cannot
E) Both Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Escherichia coli have cytochromes in their electron transport chains

Explanation

Question 30 of 50

1

Which of the following is the genetic cause for the most common lysosomal storage disease causing mental retardation?

Select one of the following:

A) Homocystinuria
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Spina bifida
D) Down syndrome
E) Phenylketonuria

Explanation

Question 31 of 50

1

The relative percent 3-year survival from common neoplasms is the highest for

Select one of the following:

A) thyroid
B) ovary
C) breast
D) pancreas
E) colon

Explanation

Question 32 of 50

1

American Burkitt’s lymphoma is described by which of the following statements?

Select one of the following:

A) At initial presentation, the central nervous system is almost invariably involved
B) An older age group is involved in African than American Burkitt's lymphoma
C) Usually does not occur in children older than five years of age
D) Bone marrow involvement is less frequent in American than African Burkitt's lymphoma
E) Isolated jaw involvement is more common in African than American Burkitt's lymphoma

Explanation

Question 33 of 50

1

Aphthous ulcers typically do NOT occur in the

Select one of the following:

A) buccal mucosa
C) soft palate
D) lateral border of the tongue
E) floor of mouth

Explanation

Question 34 of 50

1

Large numbers of inflammatory cells such as lymphocytes are found in the loose connective tissue of the

Select one of the following:

A) gastrointestinal tract and respiratory system
B) respiratory system and urothelial
C) skin and gastrointestinal tract
D) respiratory and vascular systems
E) liver and skin

Explanation

Question 35 of 50

1

Collagen synthesis as measured by prolyl hydroxylase activity is

Select one of the following:

A) significantly higher in keloids
B) highest in normal skin
C) significantly lower in hypertrophic scars
D) significantly lower in keloids
E) significantly higher in hypertrophic scars than keloids

Explanation

Question 36 of 50

1

A patient contracts polio and is prescribed a polio vaccine to decrease the polio infection. The difference of the Sabin polio vaccine compared to the Salk polio vaccine is:

Select one of the following:

A) Salk polio vaccine induces IgA whereas Sabin polio vaccine does not
B) Sabin polio vaccine requires only one administration whereas Salk polio vaccine requires three administrations
C) Sabin polio vaccine induces cytotoxic T cells whereas Salk polio vaccine does not
D) Sabin polio vaccine is safer because it is an inactivated vaccine where Salk polio vaccine is an attenuated live virus
E) Sabin polio vaccine is administered through an intramuscular injection whereas Salk polio vaccine is administered orally

Explanation

Question 37 of 50

1

Which of the following can NOT cause chronic lymphadenitis?

Select one of the following:

A) Dilantin (diphenylhydantoin)
B) HIV infection
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Rubeola
E) Syphilis

Explanation

Question 38 of 50

1

The mode of action of diphtheria toxin is through

Select one of the following:

A) activation of adenylate cyclase
B) cleavage of 28S ribosomal RNA
C) inactivation of elongation factor-2
D) activation of guanylate cyclase
E) inactivation of DNA polymerase I

Explanation

Question 39 of 50

1

Which of the following describes viruses?

Select one of the following:

A) Viruses can not make their own protein or energy
B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
C) Viruses do not reproduce by binary fission or division
D) Viruses are free living saprophytes
E) Viruses can be often destroyed by antibiotics

Explanation

Question 40 of 50

1

The patient presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back. He also claims he is a heavy alcohol drinker. The MOST likely diagnosis of the patient is

Select one of the following:

A) acute diverticulitis
B) acute pancreatitis
C) acute cholangitis
D) acute proctitis
E) acute appendicitis

Explanation

Question 41 of 50

1

The dentist speculates that the patient presents with Sj_gren’s syndrome. Which of the following types of tumors arise from the onset of Sj_gren’s syndrome, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis or Heliobacter pylori infection of the stomach?

Select one of the following:

A) Hodgkin's disease
B) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma)
C) Mantle cell lymphoma
D) Mycosis fungoides
E) Small lymphocytic lymphoma

Explanation

Question 42 of 50

1

The patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. Parkinson’s disease is the result of neuronal deficiency in the

Select one of the following:

A) Substantia nigra
B) Caudate
C) Globus pallidus
D) Amygdale
E) Red nucleus

Explanation

Question 43 of 50

1

The patient is taking prescription medicines such as Fosamax to help reverse bone loss. Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are elevated in each of the following conditions EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Select one of the following:

A) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
B) Osteoporosis
C) Rickets
D) Osteosarcoma
E) Paget's disease of the bone

Explanation

Question 44 of 50

1

The dentist makes a complete denture set for the patient but the patient returns complaining that the denture has caused numerous soft, raised, red, surface bumps. Papillary hyperplasia MOST frequently is found in which of the following areas?

Select one of the following:

A) anterior gingival tissue
B) hard palate
C) posterior gingival tissue
D) soft palate

Explanation

Question 45 of 50

1

The dentist asks the patient if he has received this year’s flu shot. The patient believes that last year’s shot has given him life-long immunity. If the influenza A virus isolated in 2007 is H3N2 and those isolated in 2006 are also H3N2 but slightly different from the 2007 strain, therefore requiring a new viral strain for the 2007 vaccine, this would be an example of:

Select one of the following:

A) antigenic stabilization
B) antigenic shift
C) antigenic inactivation
D) antigenic drift
E) antigenic denaturation

Explanation

Question 46 of 50

1

During the medical history, the sexually active patient reports to the dentist that she contracted with a urinary tract infection last month. Which of the following Staphylococci is MOST responsible for causing this urinary tract infection?

Select one of the following:

A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
C) Staphylococcus haemolyticus
D) Staphylococcus hominis
E) Staphylococcus aureus

Explanation

Question 47 of 50

1

The dentist examines the tongue of the patient and spots oral hairy leukoplakia. The lesions seen in oral hairy leukoplakia are NOT

Select one of the following:

A) characterized by epithelial dysplasia
B) characterized by little or no associated inflammation
C) most commonly seen on the lateral borders of the tongue
D) typically asymptomatic
E) commonly associated with candidal organisms in the parakeratin

Explanation

Question 48 of 50

1

Because the patient is sexually active and has unprotected sex, the patient believes she might be infected with Hepatitis B. She has not been vaccinated and wishes to take a blood test. Since the patient may be in the window period, clearance of which of the following serological markers indicates the start of the window period and confirms a possible HBV infection?

Select one of the following:

A) Anti-HBeAg
B) HBcAg
C) HBsAg
D) Anti-HBs
E) Anti-HBc

Explanation

Question 49 of 50

1

The patient also opts to take an HIV test. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of infections caused by human immunodeficiency virus?

Select one of the following:

A) Human immunodeficiency virus infects monocytes
B) CD4 to CD8 ratio is increased
C) GP120 protein on the viral envelope binds to CD4 protein receptor on target cell
D) Human immunodeficiency virus causes functional inactivation and lysis of helper T cells
E) Human immunodeficiency virus can be acquired via sexual contact and blood products

Explanation

Question 50 of 50

1

The patient recently overcame a Salmonella infection from eating raw eggs. However, the patient may be in a carrier state as Salmonella organisms have been known to persist for years in which of the following organs?

Select one of the following:

A) Gall bladder
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas
E) Kidney

	Created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE almost 3 years ago

Praxis Tests: Microbiology & Pathology Quiz on Microbiology/Pathology III, created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE on 03/11/2021.

Microbiology/Pathology III

Microbiology/Pathology III

Question 1 of 50

Although primary tumors of the heart are quite rare, which of the following is the MOST common primary tumor of the heart in adults and is frequently located in the left atrium?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 50

B-cell proliferation for the secondary humoral immune response takes place in

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 50

Which of the following usually gains entry by inhalation of spores where it then invades the walls of blood vessels leading to necrosis, thrombosis and infarction in the lumen and is characteristic for broad nonseptate hyphae?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 50

The only acceptable plastic that can be used for steam sterilization or autoclave is

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 50

The induction of B-cells switching to IgE is stimulated by

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 50

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 50

Which of the following is the only double stranded RNA virus?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 50

Which of the following antibiotics blocks the transfer of peptidoglycan subunits to the existing cell wall peptidoglycan?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 50

A ”bright field” microscope is regularly used for cytological tests. When using a ”bright field” microscope, the resolution is dependent on the

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 50

Which of the following sites is where respiration takes place in bacteria?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 50

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 50

Which of the following is a cytokine that is capable of decreasing inflammation?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 50

Which of the following bacteria can form endospores?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 50

Each of the following is a killed vaccine EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 50

Which of the following molecules is necessary to ”present” antigen to a T helper cell?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 50

Negri bodies is diagnostic of

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 50

Alpha hemolytic streptococci is the major cause of

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 50

Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities is a cystic hygroma MOST commonly associated with?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 50

Which of the following concerns a ”compound” microscope?

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 50

Which of the following events occurs only in apoptosis and NOT necrosis?

Select one of the following: