Exam Part 1 of Nursing 112 FInal GBCC

Question 1 of 60

1

Informed consent prior to surgery is obtained by the...

Select one of the following:

Scrub Nurse
Surgeon
Surgical Tech
Circulating Nurse

Explanation

Question 2 of 60

1

Select all of the following that are commonly used induction drugs for general anesthesia

Select one or more of the following:

Mirtazapine (Remeron)
Versed (Midozalem)
Sublimaze (fentanyl)
valium (lorazipam)

Explanation

Question 3 of 60

1

A child is being put to sleep and while the medications are being administered he suddenly starts moving uncontrollably. What stage of induction is being shown by these symptoms....

Select one of the following:

analgesia
excitment
medullary paralysis
surgical anesthesia
movement

Explanation

Question 4 of 60

1

Which pt. is going to have the hardest time excreting anesthesia postoperatively

Select one of the following:

Small child, never had surgery before
Thin 70 year old adult, with glaucoma
Slightly overweight 30 year old with hernia
76 year old obese male w/ trunk fat

Explanation

Question 5 of 60

1

Epinephrine can be dangerous when given on an appendage because it may...

Select one of the following:

often causes a rash
cause circulation to be compromised due to vasodilation
May cause bleeding due to it's interference with Factor 8
cause circulation to be compromised due to vasoconstriction

Explanation

Question 6 of 60

1

Fully reactive pts in the PACU should be placed in which position to promote respiratory expansion

Select one of the following:

semifowlers (head of bed at 45 degrees)
placed on side
supine and head of bed completely flat

Explanation

Question 7 of 60

1

A pt. in the PACU weighs 100kg and has a urine output of 200 mg/ an hour. The nurse notes that this is...

Select one of the following:

Below satisfactory output
above satisfactory output
Just meeting the criteria of satisfactory output

Explanation

Question 8 of 60

1

A pt. who is allergic to NSAIDs could safely be given Ketorolac (Toradol) for pain management postoperatively

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 9 of 60

1

You have a pt. that is seen at the wound clinic. The wound has begun healing and has been left open and the base of the wound is undergoing treatment... This wound is healing by

Select one of the following:

Primary intention
Secondary intention
tertiary intention

Explanation

Question 10 of 60

1

An appropriate diagnosis for a pt. who has had psychotic symptoms for 4 months would be...

Select one of the following:

Psychosis NOS
Schizophrenia
Schizoaffective disorder
Schizophreniform disorder

Explanation

Question 11 of 60

1

Mr. J has came on to the psych unit and is speaking with the nurse. He denies any Auditory or visual hallucinations. When speaking to Mr. J the nurse notes that he only speaks when prompted to and seems to never smile.... These symptoms are...

Select one of the following:

The negative symptoms of apathy and anhedonia
The positive symptoms of alogia and apathy
The negative symptoms of alogia and affective blunting
the positive symptoms of asociality and avolition

Explanation

Question 12 of 60

1

The difference between delusions and illusions are ...

Select one of the following:

delusions have a relationship to real life
illusions are misinterpretations of real stimulus
delusions are misinterpretations of real stimulus
delusions are always violent

Explanation

Question 13 of 60

1

You greet Camille on the unit in the morning and ask "How are you?"; Camille responds "good, should, could, would". This response is a symptom associated with schizophrenia known as...

Select one of the following:

Disordered Behavior: Anergia
Disordered thought: mutism
Delusion: echopraxia
Disordered Thought: Clang association

Explanation

Question 14 of 60

1

When designating the task of taking vitals to an LNA; The nurse must make sure the LNA is careful when positioning the following pt.

Select one of the following:

Schizophrenic pt. with perseveration
Schizophrenic pt. with associative looseness
Schizophrenic pt. with waxy flexibility
Schizoaffective pt. with delusions of thought broadcasting

Explanation

Question 15 of 60

1

Interventions for Delusions: In the statement by the nurse "I understand that you are hearing a man talking to you, I don't hear a man. This must be scary for you, why don't we take a walk down to the kitchen and get a snack. "... When the nurse says "this must be scary for you" she is implementing which intervention for delusions ?

Select one of the following:

Acknowledge
empathize
sympathy
redirect

Explanation

Question 16 of 60

1

The main differences between normal grief and depression include the following

Select one or more of the following:

In depression feelings of hopelessness prevail
In grief the pt is able to accept comfort and support from others
In depression physical complaints are not usually present
In depression anhedonia is prevalent
Grief is characterized by overwhelming hopelessness and guilt

Explanation

Question 17 of 60

1

Which of the following loved ones would be at risk for complicated/dysfunctional grief?

Select one or more of the following:

A parent who lost a child from SIDS
A man who lives with his daughters and who's wife died in his arms after a long battle with cancer.
A man who lost his best friend to homocide
A women who lost her husband while he was a soldier in Iraq and the body could not be recovered
A young women who lost her elderly father to Alzheimer's Disease after 6 months on hospice care.
A daughter who's alcoholic father passed away from liver disease before they could reconcile

Explanation

Question 18 of 60

1

On an I and O sheet, the nurse should expect a healthy pt.'s flow sheet to balance out after...

Select one or more of the following:

4 hours
14 hours
48 hours
72 hours

Explanation

Question 19 of 60

1

Hypotonic solutions have a lower osmalarity than serum (<240) : Select all the characteristics associated with this type of fluid

Select one or more of the following:

Cause fluid to shift out of blood vessels into cells and interstitial spaces
Cause fluid to shift out of cells increasing circulating volume
The fluid to hydrates cells while reducing fluid in circulatory system
Can increase a hypotensive state
Are a good choice for a pt. experiencing fluid volume excess

Explanation

Question 20 of 60

1

Select all the hypertonic solutions:

Select one or more of the following:

TPN & PPN
5% DNS
NS
LR
D5W
D10W

Explanation

Question 21 of 60

1

A pt. presents in the emergency room with the following
Heart rate (110), BP (96/56), Temp (36.7); he feels dizzy when he stands
Labs: Sodium (150), Potassium (5.4), H&H is high
What medical language would MOST appropriately describe this pt's conditon

Select one or more of the following:

Dehydration, Hyponatremia
Dehydration, hypernatremia, hyperkalemia
Hypovolemia, hypokalemia
Hypovolemia, hyperkalemia

Explanation

Question 22 of 60

1

A pt. who has 3rd spacing can have both excessive fluid and dehydration

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 23 of 60

1

A pt. has a specific gravity of 1.040 and asks you what this means you reply.

Select one of the following:

"This means your NS iv fluids have done there job re-hydrating you"
"This means you need to drink less water and watch your sodium intake"
"This means your body is putting out very concentrated urine."
"This means your body is putting out too much dilute urine"
" This is a normal lab value."

Explanation

Question 24 of 60

1

Hypotonic overhydration can be caused by:

Select one or more of the following:

Tap water enemas
.9% NS at a rate of 100ml/hour
TPN
overuse of .45%NS
inappropriate formula for children
using a water bottle as a pacifier
Saline enemas

Explanation

Question 25 of 60

1

The most important assessment for a pt at risk for CHF or volume excess is...

Select one of the following:

Respiratory rate
daily weights
Blood pressure
Pain level on exertion

Explanation

Question 26 of 60

1

Hydrochlorothiazide, HCTZ (Hydrodiuril) is a

Select one of the following:

Thiazaide diuretic & antihypertensive
Mild
blocks absorption of water in distal tubule
Loop diuretic; exerts action of loop of henle
loose water and potassium
Potassium sparing and conserving (avoid K+ rich foods)
Inhibits action of aldosterone in distal tubule
Very Powerful osmotic diuretic
used to decrease intracranial pressure and cerebral edema

Explanation

Question 27 of 60

1

Spironolactone (aldactone) is a

Select one of the following:

Loop diuretic; exerts action of loop of henle
loose water and potassium
Very Powerful osmotic diuretic
used to decrease intracranial pressure and cerebral edema
Potassium sparing and conserving (avoid K+ rich foods)
Inhibits action of aldosterone in distal tubule
Thiazaide diuretic & antihypertensive
Mild
blocks absorption of water in distal tubule

Explanation

Question 28 of 60

1

Mannitol (osmitrol) is a

Select one of the following:

Thiazaide diuretic & antihypertensive
Mild
blocks absorption of water in distal tubule
Very Powerful osmotic diuretic
used to decrease intracranial pressure and cerebral edema
Loop diuretic; exerts action of loop of henle
loose water and potassium
Potassium sparing and conserving (avoid K+ rich foods)
Inhibits action of aldosterone in distal tubule

Explanation

Question 29 of 60

1

A pt. on Furosemide (lasix) should be counseled on eating foods rich in which nutrient

Select one of the following:

Sodium
Phosphorous
Potassium
Calcium

Explanation

Question 30 of 60

1

Ideal age of fetus when mother goes into labour

Select one of the following:

24-28wks
35-36wks
38-42wks

Explanation

Question 31 of 60

1

Progesterone levels are to maintaining a pregnancy as _____________ levels are to maintaining labor

Select one of the following:

Aldosterone
Estrogen
LH
oxytocin

Explanation

Question 32 of 60

1

Identify the 4 p's of labour

Select one or more of the following:

Passage
Pulmonary
Passenger
Powers
Psyche
Physcian
Portal

Explanation

Question 33 of 60

1

A baby with a station of 0 is considered engaged

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 34 of 60

1

The most favorable positions for the baby to be in at the start of labor Include:

Select one or more of the following:

Longitudinal lie
transverse lie
Attitude: flexion
Attitude: extension
Cephalic presentation: vertex
Cephalic Presentation: Brow

Explanation

Question 35 of 60

1

With breech presentation the concern is _ and with shoulder presentation the concern is _.

Select one or more of the following:

Cord compression
airway obstruction
Meconium
head entrapment

Explanation

Question 36 of 60

1

This baby would be documented as in which position

Select one of the following:

RSA
LSA
LOP
LMA

Explanation

Question 37 of 60

1

What would you document the fetal position as? Is this a good position for labor?

Select one of the following:

LMA, no
LOA, yes
ROA
RSA

Explanation

Question 38 of 60

1

The nurse in this picture is performing?

Select one of the following:

Leopald's maneuvers
Chicovstky signs
Pavlov maneuver
Gestational age

Explanation

Question 39 of 60

1

When does fetal o2 and waste exchange occur during the contraction cycle

Select one of the following:

acme
increment
Interval

Explanation

Question 40 of 60

1

Effacement is to thinning and shortening (%) as Dilation is to _____________ (_)

Select one of the following:

drawing up (mm)
Opening (cm)
Relaxing (%)
shortening (cm)

Explanation

Question 41 of 60

1

Primary powers are involuntary and cause effacement and dilation; Secondary powers are voluntary pushing

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 42 of 60

1

Estrogen; Progesterone _

Select one of the following:

Evacuate, Preserve
eliminate, power

Explanation

Question 43 of 60

1

Signs of impending labor include

Select one or more of the following:

Pain in abdomen
bloody show
lightening
Braxton Hicks Contractions
Cervical changes
Resting/Bath decrease contractions
Weight loss (1-3lb)
ROM
Backache, pain in sacrum

Explanation

Question 44 of 60

1

Most appropriate precautions to take when A mother had a rupture of membranes but did not go into labor.

Select one or more of the following:

Decrease the vaginal exams to only once an hour.
Check the fetal heart rate and d/c vaginal exams
Check vaginally to see if the baby is engaged at a station of +1
Give oxytocin and wait for the doctor

Explanation

Question 45 of 60

1

Latent (early) Labour is characterized by

Select one or more of the following:

Cervix opens 0-3cm
mild-moderate contractions, mild discomfort (may go unnoticed)
uterus easily indented when contracting
behavior changes increased concentration
ctx about 3-30min apart; 20-40 sec duration by end
ctx 2-5 min apart, duration 40-60sec by end
cervix 8cm to fully dilated

Explanation

Question 46 of 60

1

1 stage: Active labor is characterized by:

Select one or more of the following:

3-7 cm dilated
0-3 cm dilated
effacement complete
internal rotation begins; descent of fetus into pelvis
fetus ballotable, unengaged
contractions 2-5 min apart, duration 40-60 sec; mod-strong
behavior changes: anxious, helpless, unsocial
social, excited, cooperative

Explanation

Question 47 of 60

1

1st Stage of Labor: Transition Phase characterized by

Select one or more of the following:

8cm to full dilation (10cm)
short intense
ctx. 2-5 min apart duration 40-60 sec
ctx. strong, 1.5-2 min apart, duration 60-90 sec
no epidural= most difficult stage
wants to push, must resist urge to push
Rn should encourage good strong pushes and adequate rest periods

Explanation

Question 48 of 60

1

Second Stage of Labour begins with _ and full __ and ends with birth of the baby.

Select one or more of the following:

complete dilation (10cm) and 100% effacement
3 cm dilation and 25 % effacement
6 cm dilation and 50 % effacement
40-50 sec frequency and full dilation

Explanation

Question 49 of 60

1

Cardinal Movements of Labor in Order

Select one or more of the following:

Flexion, Rotation, extension, expulsion
Engagement, eternal rotation (shoulder), extension, internal rotation, flexion, expulsion
Engagement, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, External Rotation (shoulder, expulsion
Engagement, Flexion, external roation, extension, internal rotation, expulsion

Explanation

Question 50 of 60

1

Third Stage of Labor is all about the...

Select one or more of the following:

crowning
placenta
cardinal movements
meconium

Explanation

Question 51 of 60

1

Shiny Schultze_ side; Dirty Duncan: __side

Select one or more of the following:

Baby, Mom
Mom, Baby

Explanation

Question 52 of 60

1

Normal Fetal heart Rate (Bradycardia has to persist for at least _____ min for diagnosis)

Select one of the following:

90-120; 30 min
120-190; 5 min
110-160; 10 min

Explanation

Question 53 of 60

1

A fetal heart rate monitor is showing:
HR: 140; presence of variability, accelerations with movement at 155 lasting 14 seconds, and a deceleration to 130 following the contraction end.
Identify the non-reassuring result.

Select one of the following:

HR of 140
Presence of variability
accelerations with movement at 155 lasting 14 seconds
Deceleration to 130 following the contraction end

Explanation

Question 54 of 60

1

Accelerations are good things! Indicates intact CNS and fetal well being; shown by a 15x15 patter for older than 32 weeks and a 10x10 patter for younger than 32 weeks.
Accelerations can be caused by all but what?

Select one of the following:

movement
vaginal exam
baby sleeping
vibro-acoustic stimulation

Explanation

Question 55 of 60

1

Early Deceleration are associated with head compression which causes vagus nerve to slow HR but they are not associated with fetal compromise. Rate at lowest point usually above 100 bpm. Begin near onset + return to baseline by end of ctx.

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 56 of 60

1

In terms of _______________ it is okay to be early but never to be late.

Select one of the following:

accelerations
deccelerations
variability

Explanation

Question 57 of 60

1

A nurse taking care of a pt. whose baby is experiencing late decelerations is documenting her interventions. She notes that she gave pain medication, administered o2, performed a vaginal exam to assess head station and cord, decreased the pt's Oxytocin and increased the IV fluid infusion, placed pt on her side, checked the mother's vital signs and offered a warm compress. Which interventions were directly related to improving placental blood flow?

Select one or more of the following:

administering pain meds
administering oxygen
vaginal exam to assess head station and cord
Decreasing oxytocin infusion and increasing IV fluids
Placing pt. on her side
Vital signs
Giving the pt. a warm compress

Explanation

Question 58 of 60

1

VEAL: CHOP
Variable: Cord (no uniform patter)
Early: Head Compression (occuring during ctx)
Accelerations: Optimal
Late: Placental Dysfunction (begin after peak of contraction and rate returns to baseline after contraction ends)

Select one of the following:

True
False

Explanation

Question 59 of 60

1

Re-positioning to hands and knees position or side to side and amnioinfusion are interventions for...

Select one of the following:

early decelerations
variable decelerations
late decelerations
prolonged decelerations

Explanation

Question 60 of 60

1

Epidural Blocks are associated with the following possible side effects

Select one or more of the following:

maternal hypotension
Fetal hypotension
bladder distension
accelerations
prolonged second stage of labor
Spinal headache
catheter migrations

	Created by Tess Nicholson almost 10 years ago

Nursing exam final 112

Exam Part 1 of Nursing 112 FInal GBCC

Question 1 of 60

Informed consent prior to surgery is obtained by the...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 60

Select all of the following that are commonly used induction drugs for general anesthesia

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 60

A child is being put to sleep and while the medications are being administered he suddenly starts moving uncontrollably. What stage of induction is being shown by these symptoms....

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 60

Which pt. is going to have the hardest time excreting anesthesia postoperatively

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 60

Epinephrine can be dangerous when given on an appendage because it may...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 60

Fully reactive pts in the PACU should be placed in which position to promote respiratory expansion

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 60

A pt. in the PACU weighs 100kg and has a urine output of 200 mg/ an hour. The nurse notes that this is...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 60

A pt. who is allergic to NSAIDs could safely be given Ketorolac (Toradol) for pain management postoperatively

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 60

You have a pt. that is seen at the wound clinic. The wound has begun healing and has been left open and the base of the wound is undergoing treatment... This wound is healing by

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 60

An appropriate diagnosis for a pt. who has had psychotic symptoms for 4 months would be...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 60

Mr. J has came on to the psych unit and is speaking with the nurse. He denies any Auditory or visual hallucinations. When speaking to Mr. J the nurse notes that he only speaks when prompted to and seems to never smile.... These symptoms are...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 60

The difference between delusions and illusions are ...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 60

You greet Camille on the unit in the morning and ask "How are you?"; Camille responds "good, should, could, would". This response is a symptom associated with schizophrenia known as...

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 60

When designating the task of taking vitals to an LNA; The nurse must make sure the LNA is careful when positioning the following pt.

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 60

Select one of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 60

The main differences between normal grief and depression include the following

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 60

Which of the following loved ones would be at risk for complicated/dysfunctional grief?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 60

On an I and O sheet, the nurse should expect a healthy pt.'s flow sheet to balance out after...

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 60

Hypotonic solutions have a lower osmalarity than serum (<240) : Select all the characteristics associated with this type of fluid

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 60

Select all the hypertonic solutions:

Select one or more of the following:

A pt. presents in the emergency room with the following
Heart rate (110), BP (96/56), Temp (36.7); he feels dizzy when he stands
Labs: Sodium (150), Potassium (5.4), H&H is high
What medical language would MOST appropriately describe this pt's conditon

With breech presentation the concern is _ and with shoulder presentation the concern is _.