Hattie ,,
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Covers all units from this exam, including infection control, care plans, health and safety etc.

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Hattie ,,
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Infection control/care plans/health and safety - Veterinary Nursing Exam

Question 1 of 30

1

According to the Orem model of nursing, needs that vary as a result of the patients age/life stage are:

Select one of the following:

  • Developmental self-care requisites

  • Universal self-care requisites

  • Health deviation requisites

  • Self-care deficits

Explanation

Question 2 of 30

1

Which of the following best describes a politico-economic factor affecting the activities of living?

Select one of the following:

  • Injury or disease

  • The patient being insured

  • Patient separation anxiety

  • Owner views on preventative health care

Explanation

Question 3 of 30

1

Which of the following is not a universal care requisite according to Orem?

Select one of the following:

  • Air

  • Water

  • Dying

  • Activity and rest

Explanation

Question 4 of 30

1

Pain which has gone beyond the normal response of tissues to that which involves the central nervous system is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Acute

  • Adaptive

  • Chronic

  • Maladaptive

Explanation

Question 5 of 30

1

Which of the following best describes diastolic blood pressure?

Select one of the following:

  • Pressure when the heart is contracting

  • Pressure when the heart is relaxed

  • Maximum pressure in the arteries

  • Maximum pressure in the veins

Explanation

Question 6 of 30

1

Which of the following may benefit from the placement of a wound drain as part of the postoperative management?

Select one of the following:

  • Removal of a large subcutaneous mass

  • Aural haemotoma repair

  • Removal of a closed pyometra

  • Repair of an incised wound

Explanation

Question 7 of 30

1

Which of the following would represent an ideal body condition score characteristic?

Select one of the following:

  • Ribs, spine and pelvic bone visible

  • No palpable fat on chest

  • Obvious waist

  • No abdominal fat

  • Spine not palpable

Explanation

Question 8 of 30

1

Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of hydrotherapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Obesity

  • Pulmonary disease

  • Neurological dysfunction

  • Improvement of physical well-being

Explanation

Question 9 of 30

1

Which of the following feeding tubes would be indicated for use in a patient with a megaoesophagus?

Select one of the following:

  • Naso-oesophageal

  • Oesophagostomy

  • Gastrostomy

  • Jejunostomy

Explanation

Question 10 of 30

1

Which of the following is an enteral route of drug administration?

Select one of the following:

  • Intraperitoneal

  • Intraosseous

  • Intravenous

  • Intraoral

Explanation

Question 11 of 30

1

Which of the following should be avoided when administering an intramuscular injection?

Select one of the following:

  • Lumbar

  • Bicep femoris

  • Quadriceps

  • Triceps

  • Cervical dorsal

Explanation

Question 12 of 30

1

Which type of bandage can be stretched, released, and will revert back to its original condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Cohesive

  • Adhesive

  • Non-conforming

  • Conforming

Explanation

Question 13 of 30

1

Which type of bandage is:

Vet wrap =
WOW bandage =
Bandesive =
Orthoband =
Knit-fix =

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Cohesive
    Non-conforming
    Adhesive
    Padding
    Conforming

Explanation

Question 14 of 30

1

Which of the following dressings would be the best for a malodorous wound?

Select one of the following:

  • Charcoal

  • Hydrocolloid

  • Paraffin gauze

  • Calcium-alginate

Explanation

Question 15 of 30

1

What would be an ideal temperature for an adult dog hospitalised in isolation?

Select one of the following:

  • 9-15 °C

  • 21-26 °C

  • 18-21 °C

  • 10-15 °C

  • 15-18 °C

Explanation

Question 16 of 30

1

What is the definition of reverse barrier nursing?

Select one of the following:

  • The isolation of immunocompromised patients for their own protection

  • The protocol followed when a patient can be re-introduced to the normal hospital environment following isolation

  • The discharge of a patient following hospitalisation in isolation

  • Routine nursing of a non-infectious patient

Explanation

Question 17 of 30

1

Which of the following species may exhibit crib biting when hospitalised?

Select one of the following:

  • Cat

  • Dog

  • Horse

  • Ferret

Explanation

Question 18 of 30

1

Which of the following represents the correct order of the stages within the nursing process?

Select one of the following:

  • APIE

  • PIEA

  • IPAE

  • EAPI

  • APEI

Explanation

Question 19 of 30

1

How many air volume changes per hour should there be in an isolation facility?

Select one of the following:

  • 4

  • 6

  • 10

  • 12

  • 21

Explanation

Question 20 of 30

1

What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to dog kennels?

Select one of the following:

  • 1:10

  • 1:30

  • 1:50

  • 1:70

Explanation

Question 21 of 30

1

What is the recommended minimum ratio of isolation kennels to cat kennels?

Select one of the following:

  • 1:10

  • 1:30

  • 1:50

  • 1:70

Explanation

Question 22 of 30

1

What colour would the mucous membranes be in a patient with hypoxaemia?

Select one of the following:

  • Red

  • Yellow

  • Blue

  • White

Explanation

Question 23 of 30

1

Which of the following would be a common early clinical sign of dehydration?

Select one of the following:

  • Prolonged CRT

  • Sunken eyes

  • Skin changes

  • Dry mucous membranes

Explanation

Question 24 of 30

1

Which of the following is a method of respiratory physiotherapy?

Select one of the following:

  • Tapotement

  • Coupage

  • Effleurage

  • Petrissage

Explanation

Question 25 of 30

1

Which of these types of bandage would be used to reduce oedema in an equine patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Conforming

  • Pressage

  • Ehmer

  • Velpeau

Explanation

Question 26 of 30

1

Which of the following would be at the highest risk of myopathy?

Select one of the following:

  • Cat

  • Great dane

  • Shih tzu

  • Horse

  • Bearded dragon

Explanation

Question 27 of 30

1

Which of the following categories of debridement would the use of a wet to dry dressing come under?

Select one of the following:

  • Autolytic

  • Chemical

  • Mechanical

  • Surgical

Explanation

Question 28 of 30

1

Which of the following would benefit from a sand bath whilst hospitalised?

Select one of the following:

  • Chinchilla

  • Horse

  • Rabbit

  • Mouse

Explanation

Question 29 of 30

1

Which of the following patients would you place in a kennel measuring 91cm high x 152cm wide x 72cm deep?

Select one of the following:

  • Labrador

  • Miniature schnauzer

  • Basset hound

  • Spinone

Explanation

Question 30 of 30

1

Which of the following would be secured using a Chinese finger trap suture?

Select one of the following:

  • Oesophagostomy tube

  • Foley catheter

  • Over the needle cannula

  • Stomach tube

Explanation

Question 31 of 30

1

Which of the following is the minimum recommended clearance above a horse's ears in a stable?

Select one of the following:

  • 30cm

  • 60cm

  • 100cm

  • 120cm

Explanation

Question 32 of 30

1

What would be the minimum expected urinary output for a patient over a 6 hour period?

Select one of the following:

  • 1ml

  • 6ml

  • 12ml

  • 30ml

Explanation

Question 33 of 30

1

Which of the following is a direct method of monitoring blood pressure?

Select one of the following:

  • Doppler

  • Oscillometric

  • Sphygmomanometry

  • Central venous pressure

Explanation

Question 34 of 30

1

A fluctuating temperature with two differing levels is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Pyrexia

  • Diphasic

  • Hyperthermia

  • Temperature deficit

Explanation

Question 35 of 30

1

Which of the following pulse points would NOT be appropriate for use in a conscious patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Digital

  • Femoral

  • Coccygeal

  • Sub-lingual

Explanation

Question 36 of 30

1

Orthopnea describes breathing which:

Select one of the following:

  • Is with an open mouth

  • Is deep for a short time, then slight

  • Is eased by the patient standing or upright

  • Causes the chest to move in an opposite motion

Explanation

Question 37 of 30

1

Flail chest is breathing which:

Select one of the following:

  • Is with an open mouth

  • Is eased by the patient standing or upright

  • Is deep for a short time, then slight

  • Causes the chest to move in an opposite motion

Explanation

Question 38 of 30

1

Pulse which naturally alters by increasing on inspiration and decreasing on expiration is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Sinus arrhythmia

  • Water hammer

  • Pulse deficit

  • Hypokinetic

Explanation

Question 39 of 30

1

A delay from heart rate to pulse is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Sinus arrhythmia

  • Pulse deficit

  • Water hammer

  • Hypokinetic

Explanation

Question 40 of 30

1

A patient suffering from congestion would have which of the following mucous membrane colours?

Select one of the following:

  • Brick red

  • Yellow

  • White

  • Blue

Explanation

Question 41 of 30

1

The expected minimum urinary output for a 20kg patient over an 8 hour period would be:

Select one of the following:

  • 50ml

  • 160ml

  • 320ml

  • 420ml

Explanation

Question 42 of 30

1

Paralysis occurring on only one side of the body is known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Quadriplegia

  • Tetraplegia

  • Paraplegia

  • Hemiplegia

Explanation

Question 43 of 30

1

The term for decreased respiratory rate is:

Select one of the following:

  • Orthopnea

  • Tachypnoea

  • Bradypnoea

  • Dyspnoea

Explanation

Question 44 of 30

1

Which of the following patients would be a cause for concern when monitoring their vital signs?

Select one of the following:

  • A cat with a pulse rate of 140bpm

  • A rabbit with a temperature of 40°C

  • A dog with a respiratory rate of 25bpm

  • A guinea pig with a CRT of 2 seconds

Explanation

Question 45 of 30

1

Who must veterinary practices be registered with before they can supply veterinary medicines?

Select one of the following:

  • RCVS

  • VMD

  • DEFRA

  • AMTRA

Explanation

Question 46 of 30

1

What common group of drugs are known for causing reactions such as anaphylaxis?

Select one of the following:

  • NSAIDS

  • Antibiotics

  • Opioids

  • Steroids

Explanation

Question 47 of 30

1

Which drugs cannot be ordered electronically?

Select one of the following:

  • Schedule 2

  • Schedule 2 + 3

  • Schedule 5

  • POM-V

Explanation

Question 48 of 30

1

Pharmacy records should be retained for how long?

Select one of the following:

  • 3 years

  • 5 years

  • 2 years

  • Indefinitely

Explanation

Question 49 of 30

1

Which items should be unpacked first from an order?

Select one of the following:

  • Fridge items + controlled drugs

  • Fridge items + liquids

  • Controlled drugs + special order items

  • Liquids + vials

Explanation

Question 50 of 30

1

How long should a controlled drugs register be retained for following the last dated entry (minimum)?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 years

  • 3 years

  • 5 years

  • 6 years

Explanation

Question 51 of 30

1

The misuse of drugs act 1971 controls all dangerous drugs

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 30

1

The misuse of drugs regulations 1985 is NOT concerned with controlled drugs.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 53 of 30

1

Which legislation classifies the controlled drugs into 5 schedules?

Select one of the following:

  • The misuse of drugs regulations 1985

  • The misuse of drugs act 1971

  • The veterinary medicine regulations 2002

  • The cascade prescribing system

Explanation

Question 54 of 30

1

Which drugs must have their destruction witnessed by a police officer?

Select one of the following:

  • Schedule 1

  • Schedule 2

  • Schedule 3

  • Schedule 2 + 3

Explanation

Question 55 of 30

1

What is the minimum/maximum temperature range for the pharmacy?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-8°C

  • 8-25°C

  • 11-30°C

  • 5-28°C

Explanation

Question 56 of 30

1

is single use, snap to open
can be single or multi use

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    An ampoule
    A vial

Explanation

Question 57 of 30

1

Which type of bin would a denaturing kit go into after it has been used?

Select one of the following:

  • General waste

  • Pharmaceutical waste

  • Hazardous waste

  • Infectious waste

Explanation

Question 58 of 30

1

If not otherwise specified by the manufacturer, how long should open vials be kept for before disposal?

Select one of the following:

  • 14 days

  • 7 days

  • 28 days

  • 3 months

Explanation

Question 59 of 30

1

How long are written prescriptions for controlled drugs valid for?

Select one of the following:

  • 14 days

  • 28 days

  • 3 months

  • 6 months

Explanation

Question 60 of 30

1

How long are written prescriptions for POM-V drugs valid for?

Select one of the following:

  • 14 days

  • 28 days

  • Up to 3 months

  • Up to 6 months

Explanation

Question 61 of 30

1

POM-V medications can be prescribed by all veterinary staff

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 62 of 30

1

POM-VPS drugs can be prescribed by SQPs

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 63 of 30

1

Which organisation is responsible for training and CPD for SQPs?

Select one of the following:

  • AMTRA

  • RCVS

  • VMD

  • VMR

Explanation

Question 64 of 30

1

Within what time scale should controlled drugs be entered into the register?

Select one of the following:

  • Before leaving the practice that day

  • Within 24 hours

  • Within 48 hours

  • Within a week

Explanation

Question 65 of 30

1

What is the acceptable temperature range for a fridge?

Select one of the following:

  • 2-8°C

  • 0-5°C

  • 2-10°C

  • 4-10°C

Explanation

Question 66 of 30

1

What is the minimum time that invoices for controlled drugs should be retained?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 year

  • 2 years

  • 3 years

  • 5 years

Explanation

Question 67 of 30

1

Which regulations require practices to assess risk to health and safety from veterinary medicines?

Select one of the following:

  • COSHH

  • RIDDOR

  • HSAWA

  • VMR

Explanation

Question 68 of 30

1

What is the SARSS scheme for?

Select one of the following:

  • Adverse reactions

  • Training SQPs

  • Controlled drugs

  • Categorising medications

Explanation

Question 69 of 30

1

Which of the following is an act of veterinary surgery and should only be carried out by a veterinary surgeon?

Select one of the following:

  • First aid on wildlife

  • Euthanasia of a rabbit

  • Extraction of teeth from a cat

  • Urinary catheterisation of a dog

Explanation

Question 70 of 30

1

The safe use and control of x-ray chemicals within practice is primarily governed by which of the following regulations?

Select one of the following:

  • The health and safety at work act

  • The control of pollutants act

  • The ionising radiation regulations

  • Control of substances hazardous to health

Explanation

Question 71 of 30

1

Which piece of equipment involves the process of cavitation?

Select one of the following:

  • Ultrasound scanner

  • Ultrasonic bath

  • Ethylene oxide

  • Autoclave

Explanation

Question 72 of 30

1

Which of the following is the recommended screen break time?

Select one of the following:

  • 5-10 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time

  • 15 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time

  • 15-20 mins break after 50-60 mins continuous screen time

  • 30 mins break after 2 hours continuous screen time

Explanation

Question 73 of 30

1

How much mandatory CPD does a RVN have to do?

Select one of the following:

  • 35 hours per year

  • 15 hours over 3 years

  • 45 hours over 3 years

  • 45 hours per year

Explanation

Question 74 of 30

1

Monitoring general anaesthesia during a procedure is ultimately the responsibility of:

Select one of the following:

  • The anaesthetic nurse present during the procedure

  • The veterinary surgeon performing the procedure

  • The senior RVN present at the time

  • The senior partner of the practice

Explanation

Question 75 of 30

1

Who should an adverse suspected drug reaction be reported to via the SARSS scheme?

Select one of the following:

  • Animal medicines training regulatory authority

  • Royal college of veterinary surgeons

  • Veterinary medicines directorate

  • Royal pharmaceutical society

  • DEFRA

Explanation

Question 76 of 30

1

Which of the following cannot be performed by lay staff?

Select one of the following:

  • Giving an intramuscular injection

  • Monitoring anaesthesia

  • Clipping a dog's nails in a nurse clinic

  • Dispensing an AVM-GSL medication

Explanation

Question 77 of 30

1

Which of the following would permit a nurse to induce anaesthesia?

Select one of the following:

  • The anaesthesia is given to effect by an RVN

  • The anaesthesia is given incrementally by an RVN

  • The anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under direction

  • The anaesthesia is given as a specific quantity by a SVN under supervision

Explanation

Question 78 of 30

1

Which of the following cannot be performed by an RVN?

Select one of the following:

  • Minor surgery

  • Medical treatment

  • Nursing diagnosis

  • Medical diagnosis

Explanation

Question 79 of 30

1

Which of the following is the second stage of a risk assessment?

Select one of the following:

  • Identify the hazards

  • Record the findings

  • Decide who might be harmed and how

  • Evaluate the risks and decide on the precautions to be taken

Explanation

Question 80 of 30

1

Accidents and near misses at work should be reported under the RIDDOR scheme if it results in the person having more than:

Select one of the following:

  • 3 days off work

  • 7 days off work including a weekend

  • 7 days off work excluding a weekend

  • 10 days off work

Explanation

Question 81 of 30

1

The daily consecutive rest period for each adult worker in each 24 hour period should be:

Select one of the following:

  • 8 hours

  • 9 hours

  • 10 hours

  • 11 hours

Explanation

Question 82 of 30

1

A 17 year old SVN employed at the practice should have a break of 30 minutes after they have worked for:

Select one of the following:

  • 4.5 hours

  • 6 hours

  • 6.5 hours

  • 8 hours

Explanation

Question 83 of 30

1

What thickness of lead equivalent should be contained in gloves used as small animal radiographic protective equipment?

Select one of the following:

  • 0.25mm

  • 0.35mm

  • 0.5mm

  • 1mm

Explanation

Question 84 of 30

1

Adult workers have a maximum permissible dose of 100 msV over a 5 year period. What is the maximum dose in any single year within the 5 year period, which they can receive?

Select one of the following:

  • 20 msV

  • 25 msV

  • 50 msV

  • 100 msV

Explanation

Question 85 of 30

1

The Ionising Radiation Regulations 1999 (Medical Use) govern the use of radiography in practice. Who issues these regulations?

Select one of the following:

  • HSE

  • VDS

  • RCVS

  • NRPB

Explanation

Question 86 of 30

1

The most suitable way to move a 42kg anaesthetised Italian Spinone from the prep room to the operating theatre would be with a:

Select one of the following:

  • Slide

  • Stretcher

  • Hoist

  • 2 people manually supporting the patient

Explanation

Question 87 of 30

1

Controlled drugs should be disposed of by:

Select one of the following:

  • Direct disposal into a blue bin

  • Direct disposal into a yellow bin

  • Denaturing and disposal into a blue container

  • Denaturing and disposal into an orange container

Explanation

Question 88 of 30

1

Which piece of equipment needs pressurised leak testing?

Select one of the following:

  • Autoclave

  • Endoscope

  • Suction equipment

  • Anaesthetic vaporiser

Explanation

Question 89 of 30

1

Place the following in the correct sequence representing the order in which they should be carried out, when using clippers.
1=site the blades
2=snap down the blades
3=switch on the clippers
4=switch on at plug

Select one of the following:

  • 4 3 2 1

  • 1 2 3 4

  • 4 1 3 2

  • 1 4 2 3

Explanation

Question 90 of 30

1

What piece of equipment would you be dealing with, if the routine maintenance involved cleaning the specula, checking the bulb, and ensuring the batteries are fully charged?

Select one of the following:

  • Otoscope

  • Endoscope

  • Laparoscope

  • Ophthalmoscope

Explanation

Question 91 of 30

1

Prior to use, a refractometer should be calibrated using:

Select one of the following:

  • Tap water

  • Saline

  • Chlorhexidine

  • Distilled water

Explanation

Question 92 of 30

1

Which of the following is not true regarding PAT testing?

Select one of the following:

  • Testing is not required by law

  • It should be done on a yearly basis

  • A qualified electrician is not required to perform the test

  • Frequency of testing is based on the type of equipment and place of use

Explanation

Question 93 of 30

1

On a prescription for controlled drugs, which of the following must be written in both text and numerical form?

Select one of the following:

  • Client's address

  • The strength of the medication

  • The total quantity to be dispensed

  • The length of time the prescription is valid for

Explanation

Question 94 of 30

1

Practices who have less than 5 employees do not require a

Select one of the following:

  • Radiation protection supervisor

  • Written health and safety policy

  • Radiation protection advisor

  • Appointed first aider

Explanation

Question 95 of 30

1

Which of the following pieces of legislation is RIDDOR part of?

Select one of the following:

  • The health and safety at work act

  • The health and safety first aid regulations

  • Control of substances hazardous to health

  • Workplace (health, safety and welfare) regulations 2002

Explanation

Question 96 of 30

1

A licence from the Veterinary Medicines Directorate would be required under the cascade system for which of the following circumstances?
A drug was used which

Select one of the following:

  • treats the same condition in a different species

  • treats the same species but for a different condition

  • needs to be imported from overseas

  • is primarily intended for human use

Explanation

Question 97 of 30

1

The active ingredient which poses a health and safety risk in x-ray developer is

Select one of the following:

  • Phenidone Hydroquinone

  • Barium fluorohalide

  • Ammonium Thiosulphate

  • Lithium fluoride

Explanation

Question 98 of 30

1

Which of the following would be the correct disposal of a needle contaminated with medication?

Select one of the following:

  • Re-sheath, remove by hand and place into a yellow sharps container

  • Re-sheath, remove by hand and place into an orange sharps container

  • Remove needle using the facility in the top of a yellow sharps container without re-sheathing

  • Remove needle using the facility in the top of an orange sharps container without re-sheathing

Explanation

Question 99 of 30

1

Accident book records must be retained r=for

Select one of the following:

  • 2 years

  • 3 years

  • 5 years

  • 7 years

Explanation

Question 100 of 30

1

Which of the following defines a micro-organism which can synthesise its own food?

Select one of the following:

  • Heterotroph

  • Autotroph

  • Paratenic

  • Obligate

Explanation

Question 101 of 30

1

Most bacteria are defined as:

Select one of the following:

  • Heterotrophs

  • Autotrophs

  • Paratenic

  • Eukaryotic

Explanation

Question 102 of 30

1

Commensal microorganisms normally live on the body without causing harm or disease.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 103 of 30

1

Which of the following microorganisms is responsible for the majority of dermatophyte cases in cats?

Select one of the following:

  • Trichophyton Equinum

  • Linognathus setosus

  • Microsporum canis

  • Escherichia coli

Explanation

Question 104 of 30

1

Which of the following is the common process of asexual bacterial replication?

Select one of the following:

  • Mitosis

  • Budding

  • Conjugation

  • Binary fission

Explanation

Question 105 of 30

1

Donor cells will result from

Select one of the following:

  • Mitosis

  • Meiosis

  • Binary fission

  • Conjugation

Explanation

Question 106 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Which bacteria is composed of a single circle?

Explanation

Question 107 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Which bacteria is composed of two circles?

Explanation

Question 108 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Which bacteria is rod-shaped?

Explanation

Question 109 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Which bacteria is shaped like a chain of cocci?

Explanation

Question 110 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Which bacteria is shaped like a bunch of grapes?

Explanation

Question 111 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

Which bacteria is spiral shaped?

Explanation

Question 112 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

What type of bacteria causes strangles?

Explanation

Question 113 of 30

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

What type of bacteria causes leptospirosis and lyme disease?

Explanation

Question 114 of 30

1

Which of the following terms is associated with an Endotoxin?

Select one of the following:

  • The toxin is secreted from a live bacterial cell

  • Responsible for causing laminitis in horses

  • Produced by gram positive bacteria

  • Favour dry conditions

Explanation

Question 115 of 30

1

Which of the following is not a bacterial disease in horses?

Select one of the following:

  • Rhodococcus equi

  • Streptococcus equi equi

  • Taylorella equigenitalis

  • Trichophyton mentagrophyte

Explanation

Question 116 of 30

1

Which of the following neuro-toxic bacterial infections is a potential health risk for veterinary staff, for which vaccination is offered?

Select one of the following:

  • Toxoplasma gondii

  • Clostridium tetani

  • Escherichia coli

  • Rabies

Explanation

Question 117 of 30

1

Within how many days must a report be received by the HSE following a dangerous occurrence?

Select one of the following:

  • 7

  • 8

  • 10

  • 14

Explanation

Question 118 of 30

1

How many stages does a risk assessment contain?

Select one of the following:

  • 3

  • 4

  • 5

  • 6

Explanation

Question 119 of 30

1

What is the maximum time frame advised between PAT testing equipment in a veterinary practice?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 months

  • 1 year

  • 3 years

  • 2 years

Explanation

Question 120 of 30

1

Sharps which have been contaminated with medications need to be disposed of in which of the following containers?

Select one of the following:

  • Yellow with an orange lid

  • Plain yellow

  • Yellow with a purple lid

  • Yellow with a blue lid

Explanation

Question 121 of 30

1

Mask and gloves used as PPE during a dental procedure should be disposed of in:

Select one of the following:

  • A yellow bag with a black vertical stripe

  • A yellow bag with a purple stripe

  • A plain yellow bag

  • An orange bag

Explanation

Question 122 of 30

1

What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation which a 17 year old SVN in practice can receive per annum?

Select one of the following:

  • 1 msV

  • 6msV

  • 20 msV

  • 50 msV

Explanation

Question 123 of 30

1

The active ingredient which poses an H+S risk in x-ray fixer is

Select one of the following:

  • Phenidone hydroquinone

  • Barium fluorohalide

  • Ammonium thiosulphate

  • Lithium fluoride

Explanation

Question 124 of 30

1

During a diastolic blood pressure reading, pressure would be:

Select one of the following:

  • Higher in the veins

  • Higher in the arteries

  • Lower in the veins

  • Equal in both arteries and veins

Explanation

Question 125 of 30

1

The radiographic controlled area should be a minimum of what distance away from the tube head?

Select one of the following:

  • 1m

  • 2m

  • 5m

  • 7m

Explanation

Question 126 of 30

1

What is the expected rest period for an adult worker in a 7 day period according to the Working Time Regulations?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 hours

  • 8 hours

  • 11 hours

  • 24 hours

Explanation

Question 127 of 30

1

Which of the following types of fire extinguisher would be used on an electrical fire?

Select one of the following:

  • Carbon dioxide

  • Dry powder

  • Water

  • Foam

Explanation

Question 128 of 30

1

Which of the following would not under any circumstances be reportable under RIDDOR?

Select one of the following:

  • Autoclave explosion

  • Exposure to soda lime

  • Outbreak of parvovirus

  • Excessive radiation from the x-ray machine

Explanation

Question 129 of 30

1

Which of the following statements is true regarding anaesthesia equipment safety?

Select one of the following:

  • Refill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen

  • Refill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it 6 monthly, and disconnect the oxygen first, then the nitrous

  • Refill the vapouriser at the start of the day, service it bi-annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen

  • Refill the vapouriser at the end of the day, service it annually, and disconnect the nitrous first, then the oxygen

Explanation

Question 130 of 30

1

Which of the following is true regarding the controlled drugs register?

Select one of the following:

  • A computerised back up must be kept of the written records

  • Entries must be made within 48 hours

  • All entries must be made in red indelible ink

  • It must be a bound book

Explanation

Question 131 of 30

1

How much CPD must a vet complete over a 3 year period?

Select one of the following:

  • 105 hrs

  • 100 hrs

  • 50 hrs

  • 45 hrs

Explanation

Question 132 of 30

1

Which of the following types of surgical equipment would you store unsterilised?

Select one of the following:

  • Orthopaedic implants

  • Artery forceps

  • Retractors

  • Scissors

Explanation

Question 133 of 30

1

Which of the following disinfectants would emit a dangerous gas if in contact with urine?

Select one of the following:

  • Phenols

  • Alcohol

  • Biguanides

  • Hypochlorites

Explanation

Question 134 of 30

1

Which of the following disinfectant categories is toxic to cats?

Select one of the following:

  • Aldehydes

  • Iodophors

  • Biguanides

  • Phenols

Explanation

Question 135 of 30

1

If an autoclave is required to sterilise an item in under 5 minutes and the pressure is set at 30psi what temperature setting should be selected?

Select one of the following:

  • 121°C

  • 126°C

  • 134°C

  • 137°C

Explanation

Question 136 of 30

1

Which of the following describes ethylene oxide indicator tape?

Select one of the following:

  • Green background, yellow to red colour change of stripes

  • Cream background, self-colour to brown change of stripes

  • Yellow background, green to purple change of stripes

  • White background, yellow to blue colour change of stripes

Explanation

Question 137 of 30

1

Which of the following diseases is caused by bacilli bacteria?

Select one of the following:

  • Escherichia coli

  • Leptospirosis

  • Strangles

  • MRSA

Explanation

Question 138 of 30

1

Which of the following would be a vector for the spread of bartonella henselae?

Select one of the following:

  • Ticks

  • Urine

  • Cat faeces

  • Cat scratch

Explanation

Question 139 of 30

1

Which of the following describes a disease that can be passed from humans to animals?

Select one of the following:

  • Anthroponosis

  • Notifiable

  • Zoonosis

  • Virulent

Explanation

Question 140 of 30

1

Differential diagnosis of disease forms part of which process within the SOAP patient assessment method

Select one of the following:

  • Subjective

  • Objective

  • Assessment

  • Planning

Explanation

Question 141 of 30

1

Which of the following describes the RLT model of nursing vs the Orem model?

Select one of the following:

  • Animal's abilities vs activities of living

  • Activities of living vs self care

  • Disease focus vs animal's abilities

  • Universal care requisites vs self-care

Explanation

Question 142 of 30

1

Clinical signs associated with dehydration emerge when the patient is experiencing what level of dehydration?

Select one of the following:

  • Less than 5%

  • 5-6%

  • 6-8%

  • 12-15%

Explanation

Question 143 of 30

1

Which of the following ventilation methods would be best for use in isolation facilities?

Select one of the following:

  • Passive

  • Air conditioning

  • Positive pressure

  • Negative pressure

Explanation

Question 144 of 30

1

Which of the following should be placed in a hospital stable which measures 4.25m x 4.25m?

Select one of the following:

  • Ponies up to 14.2hh

  • Horses up to 16.2 hh

  • Horses over 16.2 hh

  • A foaling mare

Explanation

Question 145 of 30

1

Which of the following categories does chlorhexidine fall under?

Select one of the following:

  • Iodophors

  • Phenolics

  • Biguanides

  • Halogenated tertiary amines

Explanation

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