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Surgical Technology, Clinical Orientation, Unit7-8(proctored practice)

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Surgical Technology, Clinical Orientation, Unit7-8(proctored practice)

Question 1 of 45

1

If a frozen section is indicated, the specimen must be
____.

Select one of the following:

  • preserved in a fixative

  • submerged in formalin

  • moistened with sterile water

  • sent to pathology dry

Explanation

Question 2 of 45

1

Proper care of the specimen is the responsibility of whom?

Select one of the following:

  • Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals- JCAHO

  • CST

  • Circulator

  • The Operating Room Team

Explanation

Question 3 of 45

1

When prepping the abdomen for a laparotomy, which of the following areas is prepped first?

Select one of the following:

  • Incision Site

  • Bedside

  • Stoma

  • Umbilicus

Explanation

Question 4 of 45

1

All instruments and items must be removed from a specimen before it is sent to the pathology lab. Which of the following specimens is the exception to this rule, where an item will purposefully be left in the specimen as a reference point?

Select one of the following:

  • Needle Localization

  • Muscle Biopsy

  • Products of Conception

  • Amputated Limb

Explanation

Question 5 of 45

1

Prepping of the surgical patient occurs right before which of the following tasks?

Select one of the following:

  • Anesthesia Administration

  • Urethral Catheterization

  • Positioning

  • Draping

Explanation

Question 6 of 45

1

Which of the following types of specimens CAN be submerged in formalin?

Select one of the following:

  • Frozen Section

  • Culture and Sensitivity

  • Bronchial Washings

  • Permanent Section

Explanation

Question 7 of 45

1

Breast tissue removed during a breast reduction for breast hypertrophy will be processed as which of the following types of specimens?

Select one of the following:

  • Amputation

  • Frozen Section

  • Permanent Section

  • Needle Localization

Explanation

Question 8 of 45

1

When is the best time for the CST to hand the specimen off the sterile field to the circulating nurse?

Select one of the following:

  • Whenever the CST has time

  • As soon as all of the specimen is excised and the surgeon gives permission to have the specimen handed off the field

  • A.S.A.P.

  • Following the completion of the procedure

Explanation

Question 9 of 45

1

Who generally accepts responsibility for prepping traumatic wounds?

Select one of the following:

  • Circulator

  • Surgical Technologist

  • Surgical Assistant

  • surgeon

Explanation

Question 10 of 45

1

For which of the following prepping agents must the applicator be removed from the operating room following application of the prep?

Select one of the following:

  • Betadine Paint Sticks

  • Duraprep

  • Hibiclense Scrub Sponges

  • Exidine Scrub Sponges

Explanation

Question 11 of 45

1

A surgeon sends a specimen for frozen section and the results come back from the pathologist stating that the “margins are not clear”. What does this mean and how does it affect you as the 1st scrub on the procedure?

Select one of the following:

  • It means that cancerous tissue still remains in the patient and more tissue needs to be excised to leave only healthy tissue behind

  • It means that cancerous tissue still remains in the patient and no more tissue needs to be excised

Explanation

Question 12 of 45

1

Describe the anatomical areas that are prepped for vaginal surgery.

Select one of the following:

  • prep starts at pubic area. Inner thighs preped next, sponge stick used for vagina, dried with sponge stick. Painting applied to all areas except vaginal canal. seperate sticks used for pubic area.

  • painting applied first then area dried with stick sponge.

Explanation

Question 13 of 45

1

Check the boxes of pieces of information to be included on a label to identify a specimen.

Select one or more of the following:

  • patients name

  • patient address

  • what the specimen is

  • where the specimen came from anatomically

  • hospital of where surgical procedure is being performed

Explanation

Question 14 of 45

1

The basic rule of prepping is to proceed from what to what?

Select one of the following:

  • clean to dirty

  • dirty to clean

Explanation

Question 15 of 45

1

Check the boxes that list duties of the CST in the first scrub role while caring and handling surgical specimens.

Select one or more of the following:

  • obtain specimen from surgeon

  • clean specimen with sterile water only if needed

  • place specimen in basin or telfa

  • notify surgeon of specimen dimensions and structure if needed

  • if not sending specimen fresh, we can keep specimen in saline

  • ask surgeon before handing specimen off to circulator

Explanation

Question 16 of 45

1

What is the minimum amount of time Duraprep solution must be allowed to dry on hairless skin prior to the application of the surgical drapes? How long can it take to dry in hair?

Select one of the following:

  • 2 minutes minimum

  • 3 minutes minimum

  • 5 minutes minimum

  • 10 minutes minimum

Explanation

Question 17 of 45

1

Describe the anatomical areas that are prepped for a knee arthroscopy. BE DESCRIPTIVE!

Select one of the following:

  • lower hip down around the entire leg, not the foot though

  • lower hip down around the entire leg, including the foot

  • upper hip down around the entire leg, not the foot though

Explanation

Question 18 of 45

1

Describe what a surgeon may do to a specimen to assist the pathologist in identifying how the specimen was oriented when it was in the patient’s body.

Select one of the following:

  • surgeon may mark edges with suture on the specimen. Then surgeon will communicate with Circulator what the marks mean anatomically. Their needs to be clear margins for the pathologist.

  • surgeon may tell the ST where the edges are on the specimen. Then surgeon will communicate with Circulator what the marks mean anatomically. Their needs to be clear margins for the pathologist.

Explanation

Question 19 of 45

1

Identify the purpose of performing a prep on a surgical patient.

Select one of the following:

  • Transient flora are reduced that live on the skin and resident flora that live underneeth the skin which make their way to the surface are reduced.
    It reduces/prevents infection from occuring as a result of the procedure.

  • none.

Explanation

Question 20 of 45

1

What is the difference between a permanent section and a frozen section?

Select one of the following:

  • permanent sections are sections taken that are not diagnosed intra-operativly and can be sent offgrounds for further analysis in formalin.
    Frozen sections are diagnosed intra-operatively and are sent to patholgy fresh and dry.

  • frozen sections can be sent off grounds for further analysis, permanent sections are diagnosed intra-operatively

Explanation

Question 21 of 45

1

Duraprep can be very dangerous and pose a fire risk to the patient if not utilized properly. Identify two safety techniques that are utilized to minimize the risk posed by duraprep.

Select one of the following:

  • avoid pooling and allow prep solution to dry completely.

  • if pooling occurs its ok if you allow it to dry all the way

Explanation

Question 22 of 45

1

When should hair be removed from the surgical site to minimize the risk associated with hair removal?

Select one of the following:

  • As close as possible to the planned start and right before the prep is applied.

  • As close as possible to the planned start of the procedure but not in the OR

Explanation

Question 23 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

A separate consent form is required for this type of specimen related to cultural concerns that may need to be addressed.

Select one of the following:

  • chromosomal studues

  • amputated limb

  • culture and sensitivity

Explanation

Question 24 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

Patients will go to the radiology department prior to coming to surgery to have this type of specimen excised.

Select one of the following:

  • chromosomal studies

  • culture and sensitivity

  • needle localization

Explanation

Question 25 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

This type of test will be performed on the products of conception for patients who have had multiple miscarriages.

Select one of the following:

  • chromosomal studies

  • culture ad sensitivity

  • muscle biopsy

Explanation

Question 26 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

An infected wound would often require this type of test.

Select one of the following:

  • needle localization

  • culture and sensitivity

  • muscle biopsy

Explanation

Question 27 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

The gallbladder that is removed during a Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy for cholecystitis will have this type of examine performed on it.

Select one of the following:

  • culture sensitivity

  • routine/permanent section

  • muscle biopsy

Explanation

Question 28 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

The lab must be notified at least 24hrs in advance prior to harvesting this type of specimen.

Select one of the following:

  • muscle biopsy

  • culture sensitivty

  • needle localization

Explanation

Question 29 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

A luki tube is often utilized to obtain this type of specimen.

Select one of the following:

  • bronchial washings

  • frozen section

  • muscle biopsy

Explanation

Question 30 of 45

1

Match the specimen type to the correct description.

Excision of a melanoma from the scalp would have this type of study performed on the specimen where the results would be reported intraoperatively.

Select one of the following:

  • frozen section

  • permanent section

  • needle localization

Explanation

Question 31 of 45

1

check the boxes of types of cultures

Select one or more of the following:

  • biological culture

  • anaerobic culture

  • aerobic culture

  • micro flora

  • transient flora

Explanation

Question 32 of 45

1

Check the boxes of the combination of what duraprep is made of?

Select one or more of the following:

  • iodine

  • bedadine

  • isopropyl

  • hibiclense

Explanation

Question 33 of 45

1

Check the boxes of he reasons why the prep solution must not be allowed to pool under the patient.

Select one or more of the following:

  • fire hazard

  • strike through contamination

  • infection

  • irritant to skin

Explanation

Question 34 of 45

1

Chlorhexidine Gluconate is commonly known as?

Select one of the following:

  • hibiclense

  • duraprep

  • betadine

  • sodium chloride

Explanation

Question 35 of 45

1

Name the best method to remove hair without skin injury.

Select one of the following:

  • scissors

  • sharp blade that protects skin

  • surgically prepared razer

  • clippers

Explanation

Question 36 of 45

1

When performing the prep for a pelviscopy procedure during which the abdomen and the perineal area must both be prepped, which area is prepped first? Why?

Select one of the following:

  • perineum is prepped first, then the abdomen from under breast to thighs. Genital contamination can spray to the cleaned area. if prepped the other way around.

  • perineum is prepped last, the abdomen first because we always prep from clean to dirt

Explanation

Question 37 of 45

1

Identify two contaminated areas that need special consideration when performing the surgical skin prep. When during the prepping procedure are these areas prepped (first, last, middle, etc.)?

Select one of the following:

  • The vagina is prepped first so that contamination does not occure through spray to the abdomen.

    The anus is considered the dirtiest and sponges need to be discarded once touched.

  • The vagina is prepped last since we always prep clean to dirty.
    The anus is considered the dirtiest and sponges need to be discarded once touched.

Explanation

Question 38 of 45

1

Match the prepping agent with its proper description.

Agent most commonly utilized to degrease the patient’s skin prior to the application of the prepping solution.

Select one of the following:

  • isopropyl alcohol

  • exidine

  • chloraprep

Explanation

Question 39 of 45

1

Match the prepping agent with its proper description.

This type of prep solution only works through a cumulative action through multiple uses and only offers bacteriostatic action against microbes.

Select one of the following:

  • phisohex/phisoderm

  • isopropyl alcohol

  • actiprep

Explanation

Question 40 of 45

1

Match the prepping agent with its proper description.

This type of prep solution is ototoxic and neurotoxic and cannot be utilized for facial preps.

Select one of the following:

  • isopropyl alcohol

  • betadine

  • hibiclense/chlorahexadine gluconate

Explanation

Question 41 of 45

1

This prep is a good alternative to use on a patient who has an iodine allergy for a surgeon whose normal preference is to use Duraprep.

Select one of the following:

  • exidine

  • chloraprep

  • actiprep

Explanation

Question 42 of 45

1

If a patient is to be scrubbed and painted this type of prep solution will be utilized.

Select one of the following:

  • provodone-betadine/iiodine

  • chloraprep

  • actiprep

Explanation

Question 43 of 45

1

This type of prep solution is applied by scrubbing the prep area for 2 minutes, drying, and then scrubbing the area for another 2 minutes

Select one of the following:

  • exidine

  • actiprep

  • duraprep

Explanation

Question 44 of 45

1

The active ingredients in this type of prep solution are Trizenol and alcohol – It is effective against multi-drug resistant microorganisms

Select one of the following:

  • isopropyl alcohol

  • duraprep

  • actiprep

Explanation

Question 45 of 45

1

This prep solution contains a patented sticky substance, which prevents the solution from being removed during the procedure prolonging its effectiveness and requiring a special remover to take it off the skin.

Select one of the following:

  • actiprep

  • duraprep

  • exidine

Explanation

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