CERTIFICACION

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Question 1 of 286

Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.

Explanation

Question 2 of 286

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.

Explanation

Question 3 of 286

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one or more of the following:

transport
network
presentation
session
application

Explanation

Question 4 of 286

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
A modem terminates an analog local loop.
A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

Explanation

Question 5 of 286

Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 286

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

Select one or more of the following:

application
presentation
transport
session
internet
data link

Explanation

Question 7 of 286

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

Select one or more of the following:

Exhibit A
Exhibit B
Exhibit C
Exhibit D
Exhibit E
Exhibit F

Explanation

Question 8 of 286

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

Select one or more of the following:

This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.

Explanation

Question 9 of 286

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

Select one or more of the following:

session
transport
network
data link
physical

Explanation

Question 10 of 286

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.

Explanation

Question 11 of 286

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

Select one or more of the following:

the MAC address of router interface e0
the MAC address of router interface e1
the MAC address of the server network interface
the MAC address of host A

Explanation

Question 12 of 286

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The number of collision domains would remain the same.
The number of collision domains would decrease.
The number of collision domains would increase.
The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
The number of broadcast domains would increase.

Explanation

Question 13 of 286

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.

Explanation

Question 14 of 286

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

Select one or more of the following:

application
internet
network
transport

Explanation

Question 15 of 286

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

the IP address of Switch 1
the MAC address of Switch 1
the IP address of Host C
the MAC address of Host C
the IP address of the router's E0 interface
the MAC address of the router's E0 interface

Explanation

Question 16 of 286

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
to allow communication with devices on a different network
to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
to allow communication between different devices on the same network
to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

Explanation

Question 17 of 286

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Select one or more of the following:

Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
Switch D, because it has the highest priority

Explanation

Question 18 of 286

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

There are two broadcast domains in the network.
There are four broadcast domains in the network.
There are six broadcast domains in the network.
There are four collision domains in the network.
There are five collision domains in the network.
There are seven collision domains in the network.

Explanation

Question 19 of 286

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

when they receive a special token
when there is a carrier
when they detect no other devices are sending
when the medium is idle
when the server grants access

Explanation

Question 20 of 286

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Select one or more of the following:

Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

Explanation

Question 21 of 286

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.
Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.
Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached.
Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.
Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
Router C will send a Source Quench message type.

Explanation

Question 22 of 286

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

Select one or more of the following:

A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line.
A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line.
A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

Explanation

Question 23 of 286

Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

Select one or more of the following:

VLANs have not been created yet.
An IP address must be configured for the port.
The port is currently configured for access mode.
The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
The "no shutdown" command has not been entered for the port.

Explanation

Question 24 of 286

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

Select one or more of the following:

learning
listening
discarding
forwarding

Explanation

Question 25 of 286

VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?

Select one or more of the following:

The command is rejected.
The port turns amber.
The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Explanation

Question 26 of 286

What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?

Select one or more of the following:

path cost
lowest port MAC address
VTP revision number
highest port priority number
port priority number and MAC address

Explanation

Question 27 of 286

In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?

Select one or more of the following:

the operation of VTP
a method of VLAN trunking
an approach to wireless LAN communication
the process for root bridge selection
VLAN pruning

Explanation

Question 28 of 286

Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?

Select one or more of the following:

Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.

Explanation

Question 29 of 286

What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

Select one or more of the following:

It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Explanation

Question 30 of 286

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

802.1d
802.1q
VTP
SAP
STP

Explanation

Question 31 of 286

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

Select one or more of the following:

32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Explanation

Question 32 of 286

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

Select one or more of the following:

More collision domains will be created.
IP address utilization will be more efficient.
More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Explanation

Question 33 of 286

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.
Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.
VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.
Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Explanation

Question 34 of 286

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

Select one or more of the following:

802.3ad
802.1w
802.1D
802.1Q

Explanation

Question 35 of 286

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

They increase the size of collision domains.
They allow logical grouping of users by function.
They can enhance network security.
They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
They simplify switch administration.

Explanation

Question 36 of 286

A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

Select one or more of the following:

SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Explanation

Question 37 of 286

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

discarding
listening
learning
forwarding
disabled

Explanation

Question 38 of 286

Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

show interface trunk
show interface interface
show ip interface brief
show interface vlan
show interface switchport

Explanation

Question 39 of 286

Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

Select one or more of the following:

spanning-tree uplinkfast
spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
spanning-tree backbonefast
spanning-tree mode mst

Explanation

Question 40 of 286

All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Explanation

Question 41 of 286

Which WAN protocol is being used?

Select one or more of the following:

ATM
HDLC
Frame Relay
PPP

Explanation

Question 42 of 286

Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

Select one or more of the following:

This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Explanation

Question 43 of 286

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

Select one or more of the following:

Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Explanation

Question 44 of 286

Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

Select one or more of the following:

It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Explanation

Question 45 of 286

Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

VTP
802.1q
IGP
ISL
802.3u

Explanation

Question 46 of 286

Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

Select one or more of the following:

1 through 1001
2 through 1001
1 through 1002
2 through 1005

Explanation

Question 47 of 286

Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

Select one or more of the following:

When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC address and the MAC address table.
Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Explanation

Question 48 of 286

Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Switch A - Fa0/0
Switch A - Fa0/1
Switch B - Fa0/0
Switch B - Fa0/1
Switch C - Fa0/0
Switch C - Fa0/1

Explanation

Question 49 of 286

How should the FastEthernet0/1 ports on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?

Select one or more of the following:

The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
SwitchX(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)# switchport trunk vlan 20

Explanation

Question 50 of 286

A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2.
What causes this behavior?

Select one or more of the following:

trunk mode mismatches
allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination
native VLAN mismatches
VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

Explanation

Question 51 of 286

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Explanation

Question 52 of 286

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

Select one or more of the following:

physical
data link
network
transport

Explanation

Question 53 of 286

What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?

Select one or more of the following:

source MAC address
source IP address
source switch port
destination IP address
destination port address
destination MAC address

Explanation

Question 54 of 286

Which statement is true?

Select one or more of the following:

The Fa0/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.

Explanation

Question 55 of 286

Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

dedicated bandwidth
added security
provides segmentation
allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
contains collisions

Explanation

Question 56 of 286

Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?

Select one or more of the following:

ping address
tracert address
traceroute address
arp address

Explanation

Question 57 of 286

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

routing loops, hold down timers
switching loops, split horizon
routing loops, split horizon
switching loops, VTP
routing loops, STP
switching loops, STP

Explanation

Question 58 of 286

Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.

Explanation

Question 59 of 286

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It is used exclusively for tagging VLAN frames and does not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes.
It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.

Explanation

Question 60 of 286

Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Explanation

Question 61 of 286

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

Select one or more of the following:

Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
The switch interface connected to the router is down.
Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.
The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

Explanation

Question 62 of 286

Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

Select one or more of the following:

Switch1
Switch2
Switch3
Switch4

Explanation

Question 63 of 286

What is one benefit of PVST+?

Select one or more of the following:

PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Explanation

Question 64 of 286

Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

transparent
auto
on
desirable
blocking
forwarding

Explanation

Question 65 of 286

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

Select one or more of the following:

one
two
six
twelve

Explanation

Question 66 of 286

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Explanation

Question 67 of 286

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Explanation

Question 68 of 286

At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

Select one or more of the following:

Switch3, port fa0/1
Switch3, port fa0/12
Switch4, port fa0/11
Switch4, port fa0/2
Switch3, port Gi0/1
Switch3, port Gi0/2

Explanation

Question 69 of 286

Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or fowarding state?

Select one or more of the following:

converged
redundant
provisioned
spanned

Explanation

Question 70 of 286

What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

transparent
auto
desirable
client
forwarding
on

Explanation

Question 71 of 286

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
RSTP defines new port roles.
RSTP defines no new port states.
RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Explanation

Question 72 of 286

Which two statements are true of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1.
A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5.
FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards.
FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled.

Explanation

Question 73 of 286

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?

Select one or more of the following:

the switch with the highest MAC address
the switch with the lowest MAC address
the switch with the highest IP address
the switch with the lowest IP address

Explanation

Question 74 of 286

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.

Explanation

Question 75 of 286

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified.
What will happen in this scenario?

Select one or more of the following:

802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.

Explanation

Question 76 of 286

A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?

Select one or more of the following:

This design will function as intended.
Spanning-tree will need to be used.
The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
The connection between switches should be a trunk.
The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Explanation

Question 77 of 286

A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and 15 on Sw11 are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Sw12. Hosts in the Admin VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches. What could be the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The Fa0/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
The link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
At least one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to communicate.
Port FastEthernet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
A router is required for hosts on SW11 in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN on Sw12.

Explanation

Question 78 of 286

Given this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?

Select one or more of the following:

Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
Check the duplex mode for SwitchC's fa0/1 port.
Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.

Explanation

Question 79 of 286

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?

Select one or more of the following:

192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 80 of 286

Given an IP address 172.16.28.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

Select one or more of the following:

172.16.16.0
172.16.0.0
172.16.24.0
172.16.28.0

Explanation

Question 81 of 286

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?

Select one or more of the following:

::1
::
2000::/3
0::/10

Explanation

Question 82 of 286

You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23. You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as many as 30 hosts each. Which IP address range meets these requirements?

Select one or more of the following:

10.188.31.0/26
10.188.31.0/25
10.188.31.0/28
10.188.31.0/27
10.188.31.0/29

Explanation

Question 83 of 286

What are three features of the IPv6 protocol?

Select one or more of the following:

optional IPsec
autoconfiguration
no broadcasts
complicated header
plug-and-play
checksums

Explanation

Question 84 of 286

Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

Select one or more of the following:

ipv6 local
ipv6 host
ipv6 unicast-routing
ipv6 neighbor

Explanation

Question 85 of 286

What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?

Select one or more of the following:

global unicast
anycast
multicast
unspecified address

Explanation

Question 86 of 286

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 87 of 286

Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?

Select one or more of the following:

255.255.255.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.248.0

Explanation

Question 88 of 286

What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

Select one or more of the following:

10.0.0.0 /21
10.0.0.0 /22
10.0.0.0 /23
10.0.0.0 /24

Explanation

Question 89 of 286

Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

anycast
broadcast
multicast
podcast
allcast

Explanation

Question 90 of 286

Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.

Explanation

Question 91 of 286

A new subnet with 60 hosts has been added to the network. Which subnet address should this network use to provide enough usable addresses while wasting the fewest addresses?

Select one or more of the following:

192.168.1.56/26
192.168.1.56/27
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.64/27

Explanation

Question 92 of 286

All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Network A - 172.16.3.48/26
Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
Network A - 172.16.3.192/26
Link A - 172.16.3.0/30
Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
Link A - 172.16.3.112/30

Explanation

Question 93 of 286

The network administrator needs to address seven LANs. RIP version 1 is the only routing protocol in use on the network and subnet 0 is not being used. What is the maximum number of usable IP addresses that can be supported on each LAN if the organization is using one class C address block?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 94 of 286

What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?

Select one or more of the following:

Addresses in a private range will be not be routed on the Internet backbone.
Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
A conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.

Explanation

Question 95 of 286

Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

reduces routing table entries
auto-negotiation of media rates
efficient utilization of MAC addresses
dedicated communications between devices
ease of management and troubleshooting

Explanation

Question 96 of 286

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?

Select one or more of the following:

B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72
B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72
B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

Explanation

Question 97 of 286

All hosts have connectivity with one another. Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192.
The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.
The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.

Explanation

Question 98 of 286

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

Explanation

Question 99 of 286

The network administrator has been asked to give reasons for moving from IPv4 to IPv6. What are two valid reasons for adopting IPv6 over IPv4? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

no broadcast
change of source address in the IPv6 header
change of destination address in the IPv6 header
Telnet access does not require a password
autoconfiguration
NAT

Explanation

Question 100 of 286

An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?

Select one or more of the following:

IP address: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
IP address: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
IP address: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25

Explanation

Question 101 of 286

Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?

Select one or more of the following:

0.0.0.240
255.255.255.252
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

Explanation

Question 102 of 286

How many bits are contained in each field of an IPv6 address?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 103 of 286

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

enable dual-stack routing
configure IPv6 directly
configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses

Explanation

Question 104 of 286

In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?

Select one or more of the following:

172.16.0.0 /16
172.16.0.0 /20
172.16.0.0 /24
172.32.0.0 /16
172.32.0.0 /17
172.64.0.0 /16

Explanation

Question 105 of 286

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

Select one or more of the following:

by appending 0xFF to the MAC address
by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE
by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address
by prefixing the MAC address with 0xF and inserting 0xF after each of its first three bytes

Explanation

Question 106 of 286

What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

Select one or more of the following:

172.1.0.0/22
172.1.0.0/21
172.1.4.0/22
172.1.4.0/24
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24
172.1.4.0/25
172.1.4.128/25
172.1.5.0/24
172.1.6.0/24
172.1.7.0/24

Explanation

Question 107 of 286

Which option is a valid IPv6 address?

Select one or more of the following:

2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
2004:1:25A4:886F::1

Explanation

Question 108 of 286

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

one-to-many communication model
one-to-nearest communication model
any-to-many communication model
a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group
the same address for multiple devices in the group
delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

Explanation

Question 109 of 286

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.252.0
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.192
255.255.248.0

Explanation

Question 110 of 286

A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
host B IP address: 192.168.1.190

Explanation

Question 111 of 286

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group?

Select one or more of the following:

FF02::1
FF02::2
FF02::3
FF02::4

Explanation

Question 112 of 286

Which address range efficiently summarizes the routing table of the addresses for router Main?

Select one or more of the following:

172.16.0.0./21
172.16.0.0./20
172.16.0.0./16
172.16.0.0/18

Explanation

Question 113 of 286

Which IPv6 address is valid?

Select one or more of the following:

2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B
2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B
2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B
2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

Explanation

Question 114 of 286

Which command can you use to manually assign a static IPv6 address to a router interface?

Select one or more of the following:

ipv6 autoconfig 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
ipv6 address 2001:db8:2222:7272::72/64
ipv6 address PREFIX_1 ::1/64
ipv6 autoconfig

Explanation

Question 115 of 286

Which of these represents an IPv6 link-local address?

Select one or more of the following:

FE80::380e:611a:e14f:3d69
FE81::280f:512b:e14f:3d69
FEFE:0345:5f1b::e14d:3d69
FE08::280e:611:a:f14f:3d69

Explanation

Question 116 of 286

The network administrator is asked to configure 113 point-to-point links. Which IP addressing scheme defines the address range and subnet mask that meet the requirement and waste the fewest subnet and host addresses?

Select one or more of the following:

10.10.0.0/16 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.0.0/18 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.1.0/24 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.0.0/23 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252
10.10.1.0/25 subnetted with mask 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 117 of 286

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

Select one or more of the following:

Bandwidth
Bandwidth and Delay
Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Explanation

Question 118 of 286

Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
to reduce routing overhead
to speed up convergence
to confine network instability to single areas of the network
to reduce the complexity of router configuration
to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches

Explanation

Question 119 of 286

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?

Select one or more of the following:

Router# service password-encryption
Router(config)# password-encryption
Router(config)# service password-encryption
Router# password-encryption

Explanation

Question 120 of 286

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.
Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Explanation

Question 121 of 286

A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task

Select one or more of the following:

service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
access-class 1
enable password secret
line vty 0
login
password cisco
C. service password
service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco

Explanation

Question 122 of 286

The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?

Select one or more of the following:

ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2

Explanation

Question 123 of 286

The network administrator must establish a route by which London workstations can forward traffic to the Manchester workstations. What is the simplest way to accomplish this?

Select one or more of the following:

Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise all routes to Manchester.
Configure a dynamic routing protocol on London to advertise summarized routes to Manchester.
Configure a dynamic routing protocol on Manchester to advertise a default route to the London router.
Configure a static default route on London with a next hop of 10.1.1.1.
Configure a static route on London to direct all traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/22 to 10.1.1.2.
Configure Manchester to advertise a static default route to London.

Explanation

Question 124 of 286

The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the network administrator? (Choose two)

Select one or more of the following:

a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.
a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.

Explanation

Question 125 of 286

What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?

Select one or more of the following:

Only the enable password will be encrypted.
Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

Explanation

Question 126 of 286

What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

Select one or more of the following:

It configures SSH globally for all logins.
It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.

Explanation

Question 127 of 286

What is the reason that the interface status is "administratively down, line protocol down"?

Select one or more of the following:

There is no encapsulation type configured.
There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.

Explanation

Question 128 of 286

When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

Select one or more of the following:

The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.

Explanation

Question 129 of 286

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

Select one or more of the following:

the OSPF route
the EIGRP route
the RIPv2 route
all three routes
the OSPF and RIPv2 routes

Explanation

Question 130 of 286

The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

Select one or more of the following:

The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.

Explanation

Question 131 of 286

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?

Select one or more of the following:

Router# show ip eigrp adjacency
Router# show ip eigrp topology
Router# show ip eigrp interfaces
Router# show ip eigrp neighbors

Explanation

Question 132 of 286

R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

Explanation

Question 133 of 286

What is a global command?

Select one or more of the following:

a command that is set once and affects the entire router
a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status
a command that can be entered in any configuration mode

Explanation

Question 134 of 286

When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

Select one or more of the following:

AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C
Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Explanation

Question 135 of 286

A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

Select one or more of the following:

It checks the configuration register.
It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
It loads the first image file in flash memory.
It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.

Explanation

Question 136 of 286

What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

Select one or more of the following:

The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Explanation

Question 137 of 286

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?

Select one or more of the following:

a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

Explanation

Question 138 of 286

Which command displays CPU utilization?

Select one or more of the following:

show protocols
show process
show system
show version

Explanation

Question 139 of 286

What two things will a router do when running a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Send periodic updates regardless of topology changes.
Send entire routing table to all routers in the routing domain.
Use the shortest-path algorithm to the determine best path.
Update the routing table based on updates from their neighbors.
Maintain the topology of the entire network in its database.

Explanation

Question 140 of 286

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?

Select one or more of the following:

show ip ospf link-state
show ip ospf lsa database
show ip ospf neighbors
show ip ospf database

Explanation

Question 141 of 286

The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?

Select one or more of the following:

3 MB
4 MB
5 MB
7 MB
8 MB

Explanation

Question 142 of 286

The two exhibited devices are the only Cisco devices on the network. The serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. Given the output that is shown, what three statements are true of these devices? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1.
The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.2.
The London router is a Cisco 2610.
The Manchester router is a Cisco 2610.
The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.
The CDP information was sent by port Serial0/0 of the London router.

Explanation

Question 143 of 286

If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
ip default-network 0.0.0.0
ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1

Explanation

Question 144 of 286

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

Select one or more of the following:

hop count
administrative distance
link bandwidth
link delay
link cost

Explanation

Question 145 of 286

Refer to the exhibit.

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces
shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

FastEthernet0 /0
FastEthernet0 /1
Serial0/0
Serial0/1.102
Serial0/1.103
Serial0/1.104

Explanation

Question 146 of 286

The Lakeside Company has the internetwork in the exhibit. The administrator would like to reduce the size of the routing table on the Central
router. Which partial routing table entry in the Central router represents a route summary that represents the LANs in Phoenix but no additional
subnets?

Select one or more of the following:

10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.0.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.2.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.2.2.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.4.0.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
10.0.0.0/28 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.4.4.0 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1
10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.4.4.4 [90/20514560] via 10.2.0.2, 6w0d, Serial0/1

Explanation

Question 147 of 286

A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0

Explanation

Question 148 of 286

Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this
information? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

the amount of available ROM
the amount of available flash and RAM memory
the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
show version
show processes
show running-config

Explanation

Question 149 of 286

Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?

Select one or more of the following:

show reload
show boot
show running-config
show version

Explanation

Question 150 of 286

Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?

Select one or more of the following:

tracert address
traceroute address
telnet address
ssh address

Explanation

Question 151 of 286

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

hello packets
SAP messages sent by other routers
LSAs from other routers
beacons received on point-to-point links
routing tables received from other link-state routers
TTL packets from designated routers

Explanation

Question 152 of 286

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

It supports VLSM.
It is used to route between autonomous systems.
It confines network instability to one area of the network.
It increases routing overhead on the network.
It allows extensive control of routing updates.
It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

Explanation

Question 153 of 286

A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network
administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters the system configuration dialog as
shown. What is the cause of the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
The router is configured with the boot system startup command.

Explanation

Question 154 of 286

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 155 of 286

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

provides common view of entire topology
exchanges routing tables with neighbors
calculates shortest path
utilizes event-triggered updates
utilizes frequent periodic updates

Explanation

Question 156 of 286

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?

Select one or more of the following:

The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
The router will forward packets from R3 to R1

Explanation

Question 157 of 286

C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is
operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?

Select one or more of the following:

These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
No further routing configuration is required.

Explanation

Question 158 of 286

Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?

Select one or more of the following:

The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.
Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.

Explanation

Question 159 of 286

Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?

Select one or more of the following:

enable cdp
cdp enable
cdp run
run cdp

Explanation

Question 160 of 286

According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?

Select one or more of the following:

10.1.1.2
10.1.2.2
10.1.3.3
10.1.4.4

Explanation

Question 161 of 286

Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

Select one or more of the following:

192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240
192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252
192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252
192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240
192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

Explanation

Question 162 of 286

Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output
shown?

Select one or more of the following:

One interface has a problem.
Two interfaces have problems.
The interfaces are functioning correctly.
The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.

Explanation

Question 163 of 286

Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

RAM
NVRAM
flash memory
HTTP server
TFTP server
Telnet server

Explanation

Question 164 of 286

Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?

Select one or more of the following:

10.1.1.2
10.154.154.1
172.16.5.1
192.168.5.3

Explanation

Question 165 of 286

What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config-if)# no shut down
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# no shut down
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 20
Router(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config)# router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.20.0
Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
Switch1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

Explanation

Question 166 of 286

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1

Select one or more of the following:

All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
Only one process number can be used on the same router.
Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Explanation

Question 167 of 286

For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location that is shown? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router1 has specific boot system commands that instruct it to load IOS from a TFTP server.
Router1 is acting as a TFTP server for other routers.
Router1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory.
Router1 defaulted to ROMMON mode and loaded the IOS image from a TFTP server.
Cisco routers will first attempt to load an image from TFTP for management purposes.

Explanation

Question 168 of 286

What can be determined about the router from the console output?

Select one or more of the following:

No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
No configuration file was found in flash.
No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.

Explanation

Question 169 of 286

Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

one physical interface for each subinterface
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
a management domain for each subinterface
subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
one subinterface per VLAN
subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags

Explanation

Question 170 of 286

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network 192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Router(config)# router ospf 0
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config)# router ospf area 0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

Explanation

Question 171 of 286

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information
about the path to that network?

Select one or more of the following:

a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24
a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop

Explanation

Question 172 of 286

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

Select one or more of the following:

2
8
16
unlimited

Explanation

Question 173 of 286

Which command shows your active Telnet connections?

Select one or more of the following:

show cdp neigbors
show session
show users
show vty logins

Explanation

Question 174 of 286

Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?

Select one or more of the following:

a backup route, stored in the routing table
a primary route, stored in the routing table
a backup route, stored in the topology table
a primary route, stored in the topology table

Explanation

Question 175 of 286

The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0
of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following
commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?

Select one or more of the following:

Switch1(config)# line con0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)#login
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Explanation

Question 176 of 286

Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?

Select one or more of the following:

As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.

Explanation

Question 177 of 286

Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta
router is known to have the correct configuration.

Given the partial configurations, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the lack of connectivity.

Select one or more of the following:

incompatible IP address
insufficient bandwidth
incorrect subnet mask
incompatible encapsulation
link reliability too low
IPCP closed

Explanation

Question 178 of 286

Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router
Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server.

Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?

Select one or more of the following:

The network has not fully converged.
IP routing is not enabled.
A static route is configured incorrectly.
The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
The routing table on Coffee has not updated

Explanation

Question 179 of 286

A network administrator is trying to add a new router into an established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in
the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing
this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0

Select one or more of the following:

The process id is configured improperly.
The OSPF area is configured improperly.
The network wildcard mask is configured improperly.
The network number is configured improperly.
The AS is configured improperly.
The network subnet mask is configured improperly.

Explanation

Question 180 of 286

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Select one or more of the following:

A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.
A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
If an address conflict is de0tected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator.
If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.

Explanation

Question 181 of 286

What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

Select one or more of the following:

The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are
supported.
Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown.
The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.
ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.

Explanation

Question 182 of 286

Which statement describes the process of dynamically assigning IP addresses by the DHCP server?

Select one or more of the following:

Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
Addresses are permanently assigned so that the hosts uses the same address at all times.
Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time, at the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made.
Addresses are leased to hosts, which periodically contact the DHCP server to renew the lease.

Explanation

Question 183 of 286

What are two benefits of using NAT? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

NAT facilitates end-to-end communication when IPsec is enabled.
NAT eliminates the need to re-address all hosts that require external access.
NAT conserves addresses through host MAC-level multiplexing.
Dynamic NAT facilitates connections from the outside of the network.
NAT accelerates the routing process because no modifications are made on the packets.
NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised.

Explanation

Question 184 of 286

On which options are standard access lists based?

Select one or more of the following:

destination address and wildcard mask
destination address and subnet mask
source address and subnet mask
source address and wildcard mask

Explanation

Question 185 of 286

A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the
entire network over the Internet. Which ACL can be used?

Select one or more of the following:

standard
extended
dynamic
reflexive

Explanation

Question 186 of 286

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

Select one or more of the following:

Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made, and another address is
then assigned.
Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.
Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.

Explanation

Question 187 of 286

Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?

Select one or more of the following:

The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

Explanation

Question 188 of 286

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
The passwords do not match on the two routers.
CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
Answer: B

Explanation

Question 189 of 286

Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.

Explanation

Question 190 of 286

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

network or subnetwork IP address
broadcast address on the network
IP address leased to the LAN
IP address used by the interfaces
manually assigned address to the clients
designated IP address to the DHCP server

Explanation

Question 191 of 286

Which two statements about static NAT translations are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

They allow connections to be initiated from the outside.
They require no inside or outside interface markings because addresses are statically defined.
They are always present in the NAT table.
They can be configured with access lists, to allow two or more connections to be initiated from the outside.

Explanation

Question 192 of 286

A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports.
The network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
The network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure MAC addresses in the voice VLAN.

Explanation

Question 193 of 286

A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network
through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested
it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands.
Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Port security needs to be globally enabled.
Port security needs to be enabled on the interface.
Port security needs to be configured to shut down the interface in the event of a violation.
Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
Port security interface counters need to be cleared before using the show command.
The port security configuration needs to be saved to NVRAM before it can become active.

Explanation

Question 194 of 286

Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?

Select one or more of the following:

switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
switch(config-if)#switchport mode access
switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Explanation

Question 195 of 286

How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?

Select one or more of the following:

by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router

Explanation

Question 196 of 286

Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except
those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet 172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict
anyone from the network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?

Select one or more of the following:

ACDB
BADC
DBAC
CDBA

Explanation

Question 197 of 286

An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL
102?

Select one or more of the following:

no ip access-class 102 in
no ip access-class 102 out
no ip access-group 102 in
no ip access-group 102 out
no ip access-list 102 in

Explanation

Question 198 of 286

Which Cisco Catalyst feature automatically disables the port in an operational PortFast upon receipt of a BPDU?

Select one or more of the following:

BackboneFast
UplinkFast
Root Guard
BPDU Guard
BPDU Filter

Explanation

Question 199 of 286

When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify which interfaces are affected by the ACL?

Select one or more of the following:

show ip access-lists
show access-lists
show interface
show ip interface
list ip interface

Explanation

Question 200 of 286

A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?

Select one or more of the following:

A Level 5 password is not set.
An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
The vty password is missing.
The console password is missing.

Explanation

Question 201 of 286

Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?

Select one or more of the following:

You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
You can apply only one access list on any interface.
You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Explanation

Question 202 of 286

Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

Select one or more of the following:

access-list 110 permit ip any any
access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Explanation

Question 203 of 286

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0,
192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Explanation

Question 204 of 286

Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?

Select one or more of the following:

You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface.
You can apply only one access list on any interface.
You can configure one access list, per direction, per Layer 3 protocol.
You can apply multiple access lists with the same protocol or in different directions.

Explanation

Question 205 of 286

Which item represents the standard IP ACL?

Select one or more of the following:

access-list 110 permit ip any any
access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
access list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22

Explanation

Question 206 of 286

A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0,
192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0

Explanation

Question 207 of 286

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Administratively shut down the interface.
Physically secure the interface.
Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.

Explanation

Question 208 of 286

Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

SW1#show port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
SW1#show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12
SW1#show running-config
SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
SW1#show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12

Explanation

Question 209 of 286

The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1

The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose
two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.
This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.
All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1.
Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.

Explanation

Question 210 of 286

What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

Select one or more of the following:

A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received
Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.

Explanation

Question 211 of 286

A network administrator attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the results that are shown. What is the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The link between Host1 and Switch1 is down.
TCP/IP is not functioning on Host1
The link between Router1 and Router2 is down.
The default gateway on Host1 is incorrect.
Interface Fa0/0 on Router1 is shutdown.
The link between Switch1 and Router1 is down.

Explanation

Question 212 of 286

Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. Based on the output from RouterA, what are two possible reasons for the failure? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

The cable that is connected to S0/0 on RouterA is faulty.
Interface S0/0 on RouterB is administratively down.
Interface S0/0 on RouterA is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB is not in the correct subnet.
Interface S0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterB does not match the encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.

Explanation

Question 213 of 286

An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

data link layer
application layer
access layer
session layer
network layer

Explanation

Question 214 of 286

The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer
problem? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
Ensure the switch has power.
Reboot all of the devices.
Reseat all cables.

Explanation

Question 215 of 286

The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1.
Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254.
Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2.
Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224.
Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240.

Explanation

Question 216 of 286

A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected.
What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?

Select one or more of the following:

Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.

Explanation

Question 217 of 286

HostA cannot ping HostB. Assuming routing is properly configured, what is the cause of this problem?

Select one or more of the following:

HostA is not on the same subnet as its default gateway.
The address of SwitchA is a subnet address.
The Fa0/0 interface on RouterA is on a subnet that can't be used.
The serial interfaces of the routers are not on the same subnet.
The Fa0/0 interface on RouterB is using a broadcast address.

Explanation

Question 218 of 286

Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

ping
tracert
ipconfig
show ip route
winipcfg
F. show interfaces

Explanation

Question 219 of 286

A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship
on their common Ethernet link.

The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is
the cause of this problem?

Select one or more of the following:

The OSPF area is not configured properly.
The priority on R1 should be set higher.
The cost on R1 should be set higher.
The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

Explanation

Question 220 of 286

In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?

Select one or more of the following:

during high traffic periods
after broken links are re-established
when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
in an improperly implemented redundant topology
when a dual ring topology is in use

Explanation

Question 221 of 286

In the Frame Relay network, which IP addresses would be assigned to the interfaces with point-to- point PVCs?

Select one or more of the following:

DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.10.3 /24
DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.12.1 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.13.1 /24
DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.11.1 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.10.2 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.11.2 /24
DLCI 16: 192.168.10.1 /24
DLCI 17: 192.168.10.2 /24
DLCI 99: 192.168.10.3 /24
DLCI 28: 192.168.10.4 /24

Explanation

Question 222 of 286

Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication, with PAP as the fallback method, on a serial interface?

Select one or more of the following:

Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
Router(config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
Router(config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap

Explanation

Question 223 of 286

Which protocol is an open standard protocol framework that is commonly used in VPNs, to provide secure end-to-end communications?

Select one or more of the following:

RSA
L2TP
IPsec
PPTP

Explanation

Question 224 of 286

At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?

Select one or more of the following:

Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5

Explanation

Question 225 of 286

The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this
command?

Select one or more of the following:

This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

Explanation

Question 226 of 286

Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

PPP
WAP
DSL
L2TPv3
Ethernet

Explanation

Question 227 of 286

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?

Select one or more of the following:

HDLC
PPP
X.25
Frame Relay

Explanation

Question 228 of 286

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

Select one or more of the following:

IETF
ANSI Annex D
Q9333-A Annex A
HDLC

Explanation

Question 229 of 286

RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.

After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?

Select one or more of the following:

incorrect bandwidth configuration
incorrect LMI configuration
incorrect map statement
incorrect IP address

Explanation

Question 230 of 286

What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?

Select one or more of the following:

The Serial0/0 interface is passing traffic.
The DLCI 100 was dynamically allocated by the router.
The Serial0/0 interface acquired the IP address of 172.16.3.1 from a DHCP server.
The DLCI 100 will be dynamically changed as required to adapt to changes in the Frame Relay cloud.
The mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through Inverse ARP.

Explanation

Question 231 of 286

A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a
non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?

Select one or more of the following:

Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut

Explanation

Question 232 of 286

What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of
point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

reduced cost
better throughput
broadband incompatibility
increased security
scalability
reduced latency

Explanation

Question 233 of 286

Which two statistics appear in show frame-relay map output? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

the number of BECN packets that are received by the router
the value of the local DLCI
the number of FECN packets that are received by the router
the status of the PVC that is configured on the router
the IP address of the local router

Explanation

Question 234 of 286

Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded.
Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?

Select one or more of the following:

DLCI = 100
last time PVC status changed 00:25:40
in BECN packets 192
in FECN packets 147
in DE packets 0

Explanation

Question 235 of 286

Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type (CISCO or IETF) for a Frame Relay link?

Select one or more of the following:

show frame-relay lmi
show frame-relay map
show frame-relay pvc
show interfaces serial

Explanation

Question 236 of 286

It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following procedures are required to accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Remove the IP address from the physical interface.
Encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP.
Create the virtual interfaces with the interface command.
Configure each subinterface with its own IP address.
Disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
Configure static Frame Relay map entries for each subinterface network.

Explanation

Question 237 of 286

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?

Select one or more of the following:

All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent
All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Explanation

Question 238 of 286

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Explanation

Question 239 of 286

Which statement describes DLCI 17?

Select one or more of the following:

DLCI 17 describes the ISDN circuit between R2 and R3.
DLCI 17 describes a PVC on R2. It cannot be used on R3 or R1.
DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.
DLCI 17 describes the dial-up circuit from R2 and R3 to the service provider.

Explanation

Question 240 of 286

What is the result of issuing the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.2 202 broadcast command?

Select one or more of the following:

defines the destination IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
defines the source IP address that is used in all broadcast packets on DCLI 202
defines the DLCI on which packets from the 192.168.1.2 IP address are received
defines the DLCI that is used for all packets that are sent to the 192.168.1.2 IP address

Explanation

Question 241 of 286

Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

Select one or more of the following:

NCP
ISDN
SLIP
LCP
DLCI

Explanation

Question 242 of 286

What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

They create split-horizon issues.
They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
They emulate leased lines
They are ideal for full-mesh topologies
They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

Explanation

Question 243 of 286

What command is used to verify the DLCI destination address in a Frame Relay static configuration?

Select one or more of the following:

show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay lmi
show frame-relay map
show frame relay end-to-end

Explanation

Question 244 of 286

What is the purpose of Inverse ARP?

Select one or more of the following:

to map a known IP address to a MAC address
to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
to map a known MAC address to an IP address
to map a known DLCI to an IP address
to map a known IP address to a SPID
to map a known SPID to a MAC address

Explanation

Question 245 of 286

What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

Select one or more of the following:

0000.5E00.01A3
0007.B400.AE01
0000.0C07.AC15
0007.5E00.B301

Explanation

Question 246 of 286

In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?

Select one or more of the following:

The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses
All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address
The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses

Explanation

Question 247 of 286

Which statement describes VRRP object tracking?

Select one or more of the following:

It monitors traffic flow and link utilization.
It ensures the best VRRP router is the virtual router master for the group
It causes traffic to dynamically move to higher bandwidth links.
It thwarts man-in-the-middle attacks

Explanation

Question 248 of 286

What are three benefits of GLBP? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

GLBP supports up to eight virtual forwarders per GLBP group
GLBP supports clear text and MD5 password authentication between GLBP group members
GLBP is an open source standardized protocol that can be used with multiple vendors
GLBP supports up to 1024 virtual routers
GLBP can load share traffic across a maximum of four routers
GLBP elects two AVGs and two standby AVGs for redundancy

Explanation

Question 249 of 286

Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

The virtual IP address and virtual MA+K44C address are active on the HSRP Master router
The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval.
HSRP supports only clear-text authentication
The HSRP virtual IP address must be on a different subnet than the routers' interfaces on the same LAN
The HSRP virtual IP address must be the same as one of the router's interface addresses on the LAN
HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing

Explanation

Question 250 of 286

Which three statements about Syslog utilization are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Utilizing Syslog improves network performance
The Syslog server automatically notifies the network administrator of network problems
A Syslog server provides the storage space necessary to store log files without using router disk space
There are more Syslog messages available within Cisco IOS than there are comparable SNMP trap messages
Enabling Syslog on a router automatically enables NTP for accurate time stamping
A Syslog server helps in aggregation of logs and alerts

Explanation

Question 251 of 286

A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

informational
emergency
warning
critical
debug
error

Explanation

Question 252 of 286

What is the default Syslog facility level?

Select one or more of the following:

local4
local5
local6
local7

Explanation

Question 253 of 286

What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?

Select one or more of the following:

service timestamps log datetime localtime
service timestamps debug datetime msec
service timestamps debug datetime localtime
service timestamps log datetime msec

Explanation

Question 254 of 286

What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?

Select one or more of the following:

The EIGRP neighbor on Fa0/1 went down due to a failed link
The EIGRP neighbor connected to Fa0/1 is participating in a different EIGRP process, causing the adjacency to go down.
A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down
Interface Fa0/1 has become error disabled, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down

Explanation

Question 255 of 286

What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

MIB
agent
set
AES
supervisor
manager

Explanation

Question 256 of 286

What SNMP message alerts the manager to a condition on the network?

Select one or more of the following:

response
get
trap
capture

Explanation

Question 257 of 286

What authentication type is used by SNMPv2?

Select one or more of the following:

HMAC-MD5
HMAC-SHA
CBC-DES
community strings

Explanation

Question 258 of 286

Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features
SNMPv3 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP
SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP.
SNMPv3 added the GetBulk protocol messages to SNMP
SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP
SNMPv2 added the GetNext protocol message to SNMP

Explanation

Question 259 of 286

What are three reasons to collect Netflow data on a company network? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

To identify applications causing congestion
To authorize user network access
To report and alert link up / down instances
To diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs, and bandwidth utilization
To detect suboptimal routing in the network.
To confirm the appropriate amount of bandwidth that has been allocated to each Class of Service

Explanation

Question 260 of 286

What Netflow component can be applied to an interface to track IPv4 traffic?

Select one or more of the following:

flow monitor
flow record
flow sampler
flow exporter

Explanation

Question 261 of 286

What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?

Select one or more of the following:

SNMP
Netflow
WCCP
IP SLA

Explanation

Question 262 of 286

What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

Select one or more of the following:

show ip flow export
show ip flow top-talkers
show ip cache flow
show mls sampling
show mls netflow ip

Explanation

Question 263 of 286

What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

source IP address
source MAC address
egress interface
ingress interface
destination IP address
IP next-hop

Explanation

Question 264 of 286

What are three factors a network administrator must consider before implementing Netflow in the network? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

CPU utilization
where Netflow data will be sent
number of devices exporting Netflow data
port availability
SNMP version
WAN encapsulation

Explanation

Question 265 of 286

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?

Select one or more of the following:

interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

Explanation

Question 266 of 286

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA
It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID
It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface

Explanation

Question 267 of 286

What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?

Select one or more of the following:

speed
DTP negotiation settings
trunk encapsulation
duplex

Explanation

Question 268 of 286

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area
It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated
It removes the need for virtual links
It increases LSA response times
It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies

Explanation

Question 269 of 286

What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given output?

Select one or more of the following:

interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode on
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk

Explanation

Question 270 of 286

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

It requires the use of ARP.
It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link
It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link
It routes over links rather than over networks

Explanation

Question 271 of 286

If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?

Select one or more of the following:

SW1's Fa0/1 interface is administratively shut down
There is an encapsulation mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
There is an MTU mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces
There is a speed mismatch between SW1's Fa0/1 and SW2's Fa0/1 interfaces

Explanation

Question 272 of 286

When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?

Select one or more of the following:

exstart state > loading state > exchange state > full state
exstart state > exchange state > loading state > full state
exstart state > full state > loading state > exchange state
loading state > exchange state > full state > exstart state

Explanation

Question 273 of 286

A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

Select one or more of the following:

the port-channel 1 interface
the highest number member interface
all member interfaces
the lowest number member interface

Explanation

Question 274 of 286

What command sequence will configure a router to run OSPF and add network 10.1.1.0 /24 to area 0?

Select one or more of the following:

router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
router ospf area 0
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
router ospf
network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
router ospf 1
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255

Explanation

Question 275 of 286

If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?

Select one or more of the following:

192.168.1.1
172.16.1.1
1.1.1.1
2.2.2.2

Explanation

Question 276 of 286

What OSPF command, when configured, will include all interfaces into area 0?

Select one or more of the following:

network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
network 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0
network all-interfaces area 0

Explanation

Question 277 of 286

Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

Select one or more of the following:

It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number
It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database
It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas
It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area

Explanation

Question 278 of 286

Which three are the components of SNMP? (Choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

MIB
SNMP Manager
SysLog Server
SNMP Agent
Set

Explanation

Question 279 of 286

What are the Popular destinations for syslog messages to be saved?

Select one or more of the following:

Flash
The logging buffer .RAM
The console terminal
Other terminals
Syslog server

Explanation

Question 280 of 286

Syslog was configured with a level 3 trap. Which 3 types of logs would be generated (choose three)

Select one or more of the following:

Emergencies
Alerts
Critical
Errors
Warnings

Explanation

Question 281 of 286

What are the benefit of using Netflow? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Network, Application & User Monitoring
Network Planning
Security Analysis
Accounting/Billing

Explanation

Question 282 of 286

Which protocol can cause overload on a CPU of a managed device?

Select one or more of the following:

Netflow
WCCP
IP SLA
SNMP

Explanation

Question 283 of 286

What are the three things that the Netflow uses to consider the traffic to be in a same flow?

Select one or more of the following:

IP address
Interface name
Port numbers
L3 protocol type
MAC address

Explanation

Question 284 of 286

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

Select one or more of the following:

TRAP
INFORM
GET
SET

Explanation

Question 285 of 286

Which three features are added in SNMPv3 over SNMPv2?

Select one or more of the following:

Message Integrity
Compression
Authentication
Encryption
Error Detection

Explanation

Question 286 of 286

In a GLBP network, who is responsible for the arp request?

Select one or more of the following:

AVF
AVG
Active Router
Standby Router

Explanation

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	Created by llballadaresdeat almost 10 years ago

Electronica CERTIFICACION Quiz on CERTIFICACION, created by llballadaresdeat on 27/11/2014.

CERTIFICACION

Question 1 of 286

Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 2 of 286

What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 3 of 286

Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 4 of 286

Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 5 of 286

Host A pings interface S0/0 on router 3. What is the TTL value for that ping?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 6 of 286

A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 7 of 286

After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 8 of 286

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 9 of 286

A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 10 of 286

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 11 of 286

Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 12 of 286

What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 13 of 286

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 14 of 286

Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 15 of 286

Which destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 16 of 286

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 17 of 286

Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why?

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 18 of 286

Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 19 of 286

In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

Select one or more of the following:

Explanation

Question 20 of 286

A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.
Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)