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Masters Pathoanatomy Quiz on Clinical Pathology (301-400) MCQs- Year 4 PMU, created by Med Student on 15/01/2019.

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Clinical Pathology (301-400) MCQs- Year 4 PMU

Question 1 of 100

1

Parenchymal jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stocks, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

What is the common between fibrosis, sclerosis and cirrhosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the common is the increased development of connective tissue in the organ

  • the common is the lipid accumulation in the interstitium of the organ

  • the common is the fibrinoid degeneration of the organ

  • they are different processes and don’t have anything common between them

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

What is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the pancreatic arteroles?

Select one or more of the following:

  • it can cause diabetes mellitus

  • it can cause pancreatic cancer

  • it can cause acute pancreatitis

  • hyalinosis in the pancreas is a physiological process related with ageing

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Which stain is used to prove rheumatism in acute stage in a heart valve?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prussian Blue

  • Toluidin-Blue

  • Congo-Red

  • Perls

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Mucoid swelling can be seen in

Select one or more of the following:

  • Heart valves in rheumatism

  • Basedow’s dermopathy

  • Myxedema

  • All of the listed above

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

The necrosis which develops at the base of an acute or chronic active ulcer in the stomach or duodenum is

Select one or more of the following:

  • coagulative

  • caseous

  • fibrinoid

  • liquefactive

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for nephrosclerosis arteriolosclerotica

Select one or more of the following:

  • it affects microscopically the afferent and efferent arterioles

  • it is a result of prolonged benign hypertention

  • it is a reversible process

  • the process is hyalinosis

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

What are the microscopic changes seen in the brain in benign long-term hypertension?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyalinosis of the vessels’ walls

  • edema around vessels

  • accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the soft brain membranes

  • developments of specific granulomas in the brain tissue

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

The gross description: thick, hard, glassy whitish depositions, non-digestable by enzymes, is indicative for

Select one or more of the following:

  • steatonecrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • hyalinosis

  • fibrinoid deposition

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

The following diseases are examples of amyloid depositions. Find the mistake!

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rheumatoid arthritis - AA amyloid

  • Multiple myeloma - AL amyloid

  • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland - AA amyloid

  • Alzheimer’s disease - A4 amyloid

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

‘Sago spleen and lardaceous spleen’ are

Select one or more of the following:

  • gross appearance of the localized (sago-spleen)and generalized (lardaceous spleen) amyloidosis of the spleen

  • sago spleen is amyloidosis of the spleen, while lardaceous spleen is hyalinosis of the spleen

  • gross appearance of the spleen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma depending on the severity of the process

  • in lardaceous spleen the amyloid is deposited in the white pulp only, while in sago spleen both white and red pulp have amyloid deposition

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

Systemic amyloidosis is proven by a biopsy from?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gingiva

  • heart

  • fat tissue from abdominal wall

  • ileum

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

What type of calcification develops in the complicated atherosclerotic plaques?

Select one or more of the following:

  • metastatic

  • dystrophic

  • metabolic

  • physiological

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Which are the causes for hypocalcaemia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoparathyroidism

  • hyperparathyroidism

  • intoxication with vit. D

  • senile osteoporosis

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

What kind of gout can develop in a patient with leucemia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gout caused by excessive consumption of meat and meat products

  • genetic gout caused by error in the metabolism of uric acid

  • renal injury because kidneys cannot excrete the excessive amount of uric acid

  • patients with leucosis never develop gout

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Which of the following microscopic descriptions most likely suggest kidney amyloidosis? The stain is H-E in all the described specimens

Select one or more of the following:

  • highly enlarged glomeruli, the capillary tufts filled almost all of the capsular space, capillary lumens are obliterated; pink homogeous substance is deposited also in the mesangium, in the basement membranes of the tubules and in the walls of the blood vessels

  • afferent and efferent arterioles have homogenously thick walls stained in pink, some of the glomeruli look smaller, with totally effaced structure and homogenously pink in color, while others may look normal in size, or even with compensatory hypertrophy

  • the interstitium shows chronic inflammatory reaction, the main change is seen in the kidney tubules which look dilated and filled with pinkish substance (these tubules look like thyroid follicles)

  • many glomeruli show crescent proliferations, encompassing 2/3 f the Bowman's space; the process ends with global sclerosis of the gomerulus

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Which of the following stain(s) is used to prove amyloidosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Perls

  • Congo-Red

  • Van Gieson

  • Methyl violet

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Mark the correct statement(s) for kidney alymoidosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • small, shrunken kidneys with granular surface and difficult decapsulation

  • enlarged pale kidneys with waxy texture

  • amyloidosis affects only one of the kidneys and doesn’t lead to chronic renal failure

  • kidney amyloidosis is reversible after the treatment of the primary disease and has very good prognosis

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Granulomatous structures, consisting of uric acid crystals, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts and giant multinucleated cells type “foreign body” are characteristic for which disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • gout

  • brucellosis

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Calcification of the aorta characterizes with

Select one or more of the following:

  • hard, rigid wall of the aorta

  • soft, elastic wall of the aorta

  • can be complicated with mural thrombosis and aneurysm

  • is a result of metabolic calcification

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

Renal complications of gout include

Select one or more of the following:

  • Uric crystals nephrolithiasis

  • Uric-acid infarction

  • Urate nephropathy

  • All of the listed above

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

  • steatonecrosis

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

Which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ramolicio cerebri

  • encephalomalacia

  • infarctus anemicus cerebri

  • hydrocephalus

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the pancreas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • steatonecrosis/fat necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

  • steatonecrosis

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is a process of disordered cellular development

  • it can develop in soft tissues

  • it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin

  • it is an adaptive process

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the glands of uterine mucosa

  • the glands of prostate

  • the kidney’s convoluted tubules

  • the follicles of thyroid gland

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

How does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly?

Select one or more of the following:

  • enlarged in size

  • smaller in size

  • papillary muscles are hypertrophic

  • increased heart weight

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Hyperplasia of the endometrium can be

Select one or more of the following:

  • direct and indirect

  • typical and atypical

  • with formation of cysts or with formation of pseudo-cysts

  • diffuse and localized

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

What are the complications of prostate hyperplasia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • urinary retention, frequent urinary tract infections

  • sexual dysfunction

  • transitional cell carcinoma

  • hydronephrosis

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

Which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelium?

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous carcinoma of the bronchus

  • chronic bronchitis

  • small-cell carcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

Epistaxis and melena are examples for

Select one or more of the following:

  • edema

  • exudate

  • haemorrhages

  • venous congestion

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

What is hemascos?

Select one or more of the following:

  • blood in the urine

  • blood in the peritoneal cavity

  • blood in the excrement

  • blood vomiting

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

What is hematemesis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • blood vomiting

  • blood in the excrements

  • nose bleeding

  • bleeding from the lungs

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

What is hemoptoe

Select one or more of the following:

  • bleeding from the nose

  • bleeding from the lungs

  • blood vomiting

  • blood in the pleural cavity

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Which of the following liver changes is reversible?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liver cirrhosis

  • liver cyanosis

  • nutmeg liver

  • liver amyloidosis

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Pin-point hemorrhages in the brain have usually the following pathogenesis

Select one or more of the following:

  • per diapedesin

  • per rhexin

  • per diabrosin

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Can thrombosis develop after death?

Select one or more of the following:

  • yes, this is why we can see blood clots in the vessels after death

  • no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime

  • it can develop both during life and after death

  • it develops in the agony preceding death

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

What is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot?

Select one or more of the following:

  • dry, crumbly, layered structure

  • moist, homogenous structure

  • attached to the vessel’s wall

  • unattached to the vessel’s wall

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus

Select one or more of the following:

  • gas, air, amniotic

  • thromboembolism, fat embolism

  • arterial, venous

  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxal

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow

Select one or more of the following:

  • gas, air, thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, parasite

  • orthograde, retrograde

  • arterial, venous

  • paradoxical

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel

Select one or more of the following:

  • thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, gas, air embolism

  • arterial

  • venous

  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Is it possible to prevent embolism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • no, it is something we cannot control or prevent

  • yes, by using anticoagulants

  • yes, by exercise in bed ridden patient and early getting up from bed after operation

  • yes, by staying in bed without moving after operation

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

In which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • in organs with nutritive and functional blood circulation

  • in organs with nutritive circulation only

  • in organs with many anastomoses

  • hemorrhagic infarction can develop in any organ

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible

Select one or more of the following:

  • liver

  • heart

  • lung

  • intestine

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

How can we prove amniotic embolism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the left heart ventricle

  • grossly, by finding amniotic fluid in the right heart ventricle

  • microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs

  • grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Why does gas embolism develop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially azotic oxide, caused by fast decompression

  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially type caused by fast compression

  • because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

  • because the positive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

What is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction the lung?

Select one or more of the following:

  • double circulation of the lung

  • thrombosis of a branch of a. broncialis

  • thrombosis of a branch of a. pulmonalis

  • chronic venous stagnation

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

What is the most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri posterior

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

What is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • fresh liquefactive necrosis

  • brain cyst

  • brain pseudocyst

  • irregular red-coloured area

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statements

Select one or more of the following:

  • gangrene of the appendix and gangrenous appendicitis are synonyms of one same disease

  • severe inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis leads to necrosis, while in gangrene of the appendix the necrosis is ischemic

  • gangrene of the appendix means necrosis of the appendix while gangrenous appendicitis means severe purulent inflammation of the appendix without necrosis

  • inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis is a primary process, while in gangrene the inflammation is secondary after the necrosis

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

The gross appearance “Ribbon-like fibrin deposits on the pericardium” describes

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic pericarditis

  • fibrinous myocarditis

  • fibrinous pericarditis

  • acute pericarditis

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

Which are the cells that infiltrate the whole thickness of the appendix in phlegmonous appendicitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • basophils

  • neutrophils

  • giant multinucleated cells

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

What is typical for purulent lepto-meningitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by lymphocytes

  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by neutrophils

  • yellow-green exudate seen usually on the convex side of the brain

  • clear cerebro-spinal fluid

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

Hydatid cysts affect most commonly

Select one or more of the following:

  • the brain

  • the heart

  • the spleen

  • the liver

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

Which is the second most commonly affected organ by hydatid cysts?

Select one or more of the following:

  • brain

  • liver

  • lung

  • kidney

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

The following description indicates: Focal aggregates in the form of nodules of cells with phagocytic ability. The diameter of these nodules is no more than 1-2mm, in many cases they are seen only microscopically

Select one or more of the following:

  • granulomas

  • metastases

  • polyps

  • granulation tissue

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the tuberculous granuloma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • caseous necrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • fibrinoid necrosis

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Which of the following cells are seen in tuberculomas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Giant cells type Langhans

  • Epitheloid cells

  • Tuton giant cells

  • Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

The giant cells type Langhans are derived from

Select one or more of the following:

  • macrophages

  • epitheloid cells

  • lymphocytes

  • monocytes

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

Which giant cells have specific peripheral arrangement of the nuclei like horse-shoe?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tuton giant cells

  • Foreign body giant cells

  • Langhans giant cells

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

In which stage of syphilis do the specific luetic granulomas develop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • first

  • second

  • third

  • they develop in all stages

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in luetic granulomas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • clay-like

  • caseus

  • liquefactive

  • coagulative

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the cat-scratch disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • caseous

  • coagulative

  • liquefactive

  • gummous

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Mark the correct answer(s) about actinomycosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • has three stages of development

  • has cervical, abdominal and thoracic forms

  • grossly, granular substance might be seen in the pus

  • grossly, rubbery lesions with central necrosis are seen in the affected organs

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma.
Lack of necrosis, abundance of epitheloid cell, Langhans cells, collagen fibres, Shaumann bodies

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • rheumatism

  • syphilis

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a grauloma:
Gummous necrosis, surrounded by epitheloid cells, single Langhans cells, abundance of plasma cells, less lymphocytes, fibroblasts

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • rheumatism

  • syphilis

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

The sulfur granule is characteristic for

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • felinosis

  • actinomycosis

  • leprosy

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Fibrinoid necrosis, surrouned by abundant lymphocytes, plasma cells, many cells of Anichkov and pathognomonic cells of Aschoff

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • rheumatoid arthritis

  • syphilis

  • rheumatism

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

What histological changes could be seen in thyroid in Hashimoto thyroiditis

Select one or more of the following:

  • unchanged

  • infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • fibrosis

  • formation of lymph follicles

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

The histological changes in Hashimoto thyroiditis affect

Select one of the following:

  • entire thyroid gland

  • markedly focal

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

The thyroid follicles in Hashimoto thyroiditis are

Select one or more of the following:

  • unchanged

  • dilated

  • polymorphous

  • smaller

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

What is hyper-granulation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • mature connective tissue

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix/scar

  • greater amount of granulation tissue

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

What Is a scar?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertrophic granulation tissue

  • mature connective tissue

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

What is a keloid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix

  • mature connective tissue

  • greater amount of granulation tissue

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

Which stain can be used to prove of scarring (cicatrix) of the heart?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Van Gieson

  • Perls

  • Congo Red

  • PAS

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Which of the following could not be seen in rheumatoid nodules?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Fibrinoid necrosis

  • Epitheloid cells

  • Langhans cells

  • Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for the polyarteriitis nodosa

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is an autoimmune disease

  • it affects mostly the elastic arteries

  • there is accumulation of glucosaminoglycans in the vessel walls which can be demonstrated with metachromasia with Toluidin Bleu

  • the branches of the pulmonary arteries are affected

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions are related to

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hemolytic anemia

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

  • Allergic rhinitis

  • Bronchial asthma

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reactions are related to

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

  • Hemolytic anemia

  • Allergic rhinitis

  • Nodosal poyarteriitis

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Immune complexes mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to

Select one or more of the following:

  • polyartheriitis nodosa

  • rheumatoid arthritis

  • hemolytic anemia

  • tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tuberculosis

  • Polyarteriitis nodosa

  • Bronchial asthma

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

Which is the most common way of metastasizing of epithelial tumors?

Select one or more of the following:

  • by lymphatics (lymphogenic metastases)

  • with blood (hematogenic metastases)

  • by cerebrospinal fluid

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What is papilloma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor of the covering epithelium

  • benign tumor of glandular epithelium

  • benign tumor of cover type epithelium

  • benign soft tissue tumor

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

Indicate the correct characteristic(s) for papilloma

Select one or more of the following:

  • it has tree-like stroma covered by differentiated stratified squamous epithelium

  • it has tree-like stroma covered by undifferentiated squamous epithelium with signs of cell atypia

  • stroma and parenchyma are difficult to distinguish

  • it doesn’t have a capsule

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

What is the term used for malignant tumors of cover type epithelium?

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma

  • papilloma

  • carcinoma

  • sarcoma

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

What is the term used for malignant tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • adenocarcinoma

  • adenoma

  • carcinoma

  • carcino-adenoma

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

What is the term used for benign tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • papilloma

  • adenoma

  • teratoma

  • adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

Point the correct statement(s) about basal cell carcinoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • it develops only on the skin

  • it can develop at any place with squamous epithelium

  • it characterizes with early lymphogenic and hematogenic metastases

  • very often it recurs at the same place after surgery

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

Keratinized squamous cell carcinoma

Select one or more of the following:

  • develops only on the skin

  • can develop at any place with squamous epithelium

  • is highly undifferenciated malignant tumor

  • is a tumor composed of more differenciated cells with keratin production

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

What kind of structures are the cancer perls?

Select one or more of the following:

  • accumulation of keratin produced by more differentiated malignant cells originating from squamous epithelium

  • pink-coloured homogenous substance located in the centre of the tumor nests

  • accumulation of mucus produced by highly undifferentiated malignant cells located in the centre of the tumor nests

  • pink homogenous substance that accumulates in the stroma of the tumor

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

The gross appearance of which tumor is called “ulcus rodens”?

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous cell carcinoma

  • melanoma

  • basal cell carcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Squamous cell carcinoma develops in the lung after

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute bronchitis

  • chronic bronchitis accompanied by metaplasia

  • bronchial asthma

  • inhalaton of a foreign body

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Papillary carcinoma of the urinary bladder arises from

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous epithelium

  • transitional epithelium

  • glandular epithelium

  • smooth musculature

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

What is carcinoma in situ?

Select one or more of the following:

  • malignant tumor limited to the epithelium above the basal membrane

  • malignant tumor destroying the basal membrane but spreading no more than 5mm below it

  • benign tumor limited to the basal membrane

  • benign tumor of a great size compressing the surrounding tissues

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Which staining is used for proving mucus production from gelatinous adenocarcinoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Congo red

  • Toluidin bleu, metachromasia is demonstrated

  • PAS reaction with amylase control

  • Van Gieson

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

Pericanalicular and intracanalicular are types of

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ductal carcinoma of the breast

  • Paget’s disease

  • Renal cell carcinoma

  • Fibroadenoma

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

Kruckenberg tumors are

Select one or more of the following:

  • metastases from colon adenocarcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from pancreatic adenocarcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from gastric carcinoma in the ovaries

  • metastases from hepatocellular carcinoma in the ovaries

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

Pleomorphic adenoma could be seen mainly

Select one or more of the following:

  • in the parotid gland

  • in the minor salivary glands

  • in the stomach

  • in the thyroid gland

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statements about fibroadenoma of the breast

Select one or more of the following:

  • capsulated and lobulated tumor

  • non-capsulated malignant tumor with invasive growth

  • microscopically it has two types - intracanalicular and pericanalicular

  • seen in older women

Explanation

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