Jose Antonio Vazquez
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Tema 1 Performances Quiz on 2. Performance, created by Jose Antonio Vazquez on 01/11/2018.

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Jose Antonio Vazquez
Created by Jose Antonio Vazquez over 5 years ago
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2. Performance

Question 1 of 22

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87) The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet

Select one of the following:

  • limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.

  • can be reduced by increasing the load factor.

  • exists only above MMO.

  • has to be considered at take-off and landing.

Explanation

Question 2 of 22

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76) Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx

  • Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx

  • Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed

  • Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed

Explanation

Question 3 of 22

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77) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is

Select one of the following:

  • unchanged.

  • only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

  • lower.

  • higher.

Explanation

Question 4 of 22

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78) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:

Select one of the following:

  • it is dark.

  • the runway is wet.

  • obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.

  • the runway is contaminated.

Explanation

Question 5 of 22

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79) Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?

Select one of the following:

  • The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various weights and altitudes.

  • The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.

  • The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings.

  • The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.

Explanation

Question 6 of 22

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80) With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:

Select one of the following:

  • equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio.

  • equal to that maximum endurance.

  • equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag.

  • lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio.

Explanation

Question 7 of 22

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81) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as

Select one of the following:

  • take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.

  • lift off speed.

  • take-off decision speed.

  • critical engine failure speed.

Explanation

Question 8 of 22

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82) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance:

Select one of the following:

  • a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

  • a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

  • an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

  • an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

Explanation

Question 9 of 22

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83) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest at

Select one of the following:

  • VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)

  • VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)

  • VMO (maximum operating limit speed)

  • VA (design manoeuvring speed)

Explanation

Question 10 of 22

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84) On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.

The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:

Select one of the following:

  • inferior to 95 kts

  • is between 95 and 125 kt

  • equal to 125 kt

  • equal to 95 kt

Explanation

Question 11 of 22

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98) Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?

Select one of the following:

  • the field limited take-off mass.

  • the obstacle limited take-off mass.

  • the take-off run.

  • the climb limited take-off mass.

Explanation

Question 12 of 22

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86) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by: (T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)

Select one of the following:

  • T + D = - W sin GAMMA

  • T + W sin GAMMA = D

  • T - W sin GAMMA = D

  • T - D = W sin GAMMA

Explanation

Question 13 of 22

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88) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.

If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:

Select one of the following:

  • less than 4 000 m.

  • unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.

  • only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.

  • higher than 4 000 m.

Explanation

Question 14 of 22

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89) Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the origin, the point of contact determines the speed of:

Select one of the following:

  • critical angle of attack.

  • maximum endurance.

  • minimum power.

  • maximum specific range.

Explanation

Question 15 of 22

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90) Which of the following statements is correct ?

Select one of the following:

  • If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.

  • A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.

  • An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.

  • A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.

Explanation

Question 16 of 22

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91) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds?
The slope

Select one of the following:

  • has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

  • decreases the take-off speed V1.

  • decreases the TAS for take-off.

  • increases the IAS for take-off.

Explanation

Question 17 of 22

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92) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on

Select one of the following:

  • the radius of the turn and the bank angle.

  • the true airspeed and the bank angle.

  • the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

  • the bank angle only.

Explanation

Question 18 of 22

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93) Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?

Select one of the following:

  • Aerodynamics.

  • Theoretical ceiling.

  • Service ceiling.

  • Economy.

Explanation

Question 19 of 22

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95) What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?

Select one of the following:

  • The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

  • The speed is unstable.

  • The aeroplane will not stall.

  • The altitude cannot be maintained.

Explanation

Question 20 of 22

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121) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?
(No compressibility effects.)

Select one of the following:

  • The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

  • The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.

  • Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

  • The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.

Explanation

Question 21 of 22

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85) How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?

Select one of the following:

  • TAS increases.

  • TAS is constant.

  • TAS is not related to Mach Number.

  • TAS decreases.

Explanation

Question 22 of 22

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155) The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration:

Select one of the following:

  • 15%

  • 20%

  • 10%

  • 30%

Explanation