PHASE TWO TEST

In 1989, the United States Supreme Court found that law enforcement officers’ use of force
against subjects was a type of seizure, and therefore, under the Constitution had to be
“objectively reasonable.” The case was Graham v. Connor, and it is one of two landmark cases
in law enforcement use of force. Which amendment does law enforcement use of force mostly
pertains to?

Officer Majeed responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a gas station. When the
officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant
from the county. Officer Majeed attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect began
actively resisting, attempting to run away. Officer Majeed performed a classroom model vertical
stun on the suspect, giving the officer enough time to place handcuffs on him. What technique is
this?

Officer Lucky responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at a Walgreens store. When
the officer made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest
warrant for attempted-homicide. Officer Lucky attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but
the suspect became assaultive towards the officer, attempting to punch and bite him. Officer Lucky
pulled out his baton and directed a strike aimed at the suspect’s elbow. The suspect ducked and the
baton strike hit his head instead. What technique is this?

Officer Conner responded to a “suspicious person” calls for service at Walmart. When the officer
made contact and identified the suspect, the suspect came back as having an arrest warrant for
attempted-homicide. Officer Conner attempted to place the suspect under arrest, but the suspect
became assaultive towards the officer, slamming the officer on the ground. The suspect got on top
of the officer and began choking him. Officer Conner was unable to get to his firearm and other
equipment on his duty belt. Officer Conner began losing conscious and feared that he would soon
die. Fearing for his life, Officer Conner pulled out an ink pen from his shirt pocket and directed it
into the suspect eyes. What technique is this?

This level is the best position for escorting a subject. It is also the position you will use to make
contact with a driver in an approach vehicle contact. What level/position is this?

Officer Robillard just graduated the police academy and is responding to his first “shots fired”
call. After arriving on scene, this officer started displaying signs of anxiety, nervousness, confusion,
and indecisiveness. Instead of reverting back to his training that he received from the academy, he
froze. What level of awareness (Color) is this?

When you do this type of talk, you should project a non-threatening presence and speak in a
normal conversational tone. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
 “Hi, I’m Officer Smith, what’s your name?”
 “Do you live around here?”
 “Can I help you find something?”

Your physical presence, your tone of voice, and your words all must convey intensity and
commitment. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control of talk:
 “Drop the knife! Drop the knife or I’ll shoot!”
 “Leave now. If you do not leave, you will be arrested.”

This control talk is more directive. Although you are giving orders, it is assertive rather than
aggressive. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
 “Stop right where you are.”
 “Show me your hands.”
 “Step out of the car.”

This control talk is intended to gain compliance from a subject while still maintaining a
relatively non-threatening tone. What control talk is this?
Examples of this control talk:
 “Sir, would you mind stepping over here?”
 “Ma’am, please come over here and talk to me.”
 “Sir, it would be best if you went on your way now.”

What is an ECD? What does the acronym stand for?

What level should you be in to perform a Secure-the-Head Decentralization?

What level should you be in to perform a Pull-In/Push-Down Decentralization?

In this case, the U.S. Supreme Court established the standard that any law enforcement use of force must be objectively reasonable. In addition, the Court said that reasonableness should be judged under the totality of the circumstances from the perspective of a reasonable officer at the scene with similar training and experience. What case law is this?

What does the acronym GUN stand for?

What position should you be in while conducting a frisk?

Control Alternatives techniques are specifically geared toward overcoming what type of resistance?

Officer Gutieirez conducted a traffic stop on a vehicle operator for speeding. After Officer Gutieirez approached the vehicle, he ordered the operator of the vehicle, Kilbey, to step out. Kilbey refused all verbal orders to step out of his vehicle; however, Kilbey is not fighting or showing any physical threat towards the officer. What type of resistance is this?

This resistance refers to behaviors that physically counteract an officer’s attempt to control a subject and which pose a risk of harm to the officer, subject, and others. Examples of this resistance include attempting to pull away from the officer’s grasp, running away, getting up after being directed to the ground, and so on. What type of resistance is this?

Under Control Alternatives, which one of the following does NOT belong?

What Focused Strike technique would you use to disrupt the actions of the subject’s diaphragm, causing temporary respiratory dysfunction?

The proper way to stabilize a subject on the ground prior to handcuffing is called the _______ position.

You must be able to articulate that, if possible, you attempted to escalate through other modes and tactics, and that all options except deadly force were closed. What is this concept called?

If you have determined that you face a threat that meets the requirements to permit a deadly-force response, and you have decided to shoot, you must still fulfill three target requirements. Which one of the following is NOT a target requirement?

The word imminent means “about to happen.” An imminent threat is an immediate threat. For a subject’s threat to be considered imminent, it must meet three criteria. Which one of the following does NOT belong.

Officer Bong is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 12 feet or greater between Officer Bong and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 6 feet.

Officer Grant is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 4 – 12 feet between Officer Grant and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 3 - 6 feet.

Officer Island is talking with a subject in a Normal Social Setting. There is 1.5 – 4 feet between Officer Island and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 1 - 3 feet

Officer Koscielak is talking with a subject in a Normal Setting. There is 0 – 1.5 feet between Officer Koscielak and the subject. What type of contact is this?
FYI: The Institutional Setting of this contact is 0 -2 feet.

You will use this stance if the subject does not quickly cooperate, or your tactical evaluation dictates it. What stance is this?

If the subject refuses to cooperate with your requests using persuasion and light control talk, or if the distance between you decreases further, you will move to this stance. This stance puts you in a good position in case a physical confrontation occurs. What stance is this?

You will use this stance when initially approaching a subject and your intent is to convey a supportive, non-threatening presence. What stance is this?

Per case law Terry V. Ohio, why would an officer conduct a frisk on a subject?

In this case, an officer shot and killed a fleeing burglary suspect whom the officer believed was unarmed. The court, deciding the case in 1989, said it was not reasonable to use deadly force against an unarmed fleeing felon, unless there is “probable cause to believe that the suspect poses a significant threat of death or serious physical injury to the officers or others.” What case law is this?

Which of the following is TRUE about rifles

You stopped shooting, but the fight may not be over. Assess why the assailant disappeared from your front sight. Scan left, right, up, and down around the suspect’s last location. Maybe your gunfire caused him to fall. Maybe the subject turned away. Maybe the subject ducked down behind cover. You may have missed your assailant, or he or she may be wounded but still able to function. Assess whether continued use of deadly force is appropriate. AFTER assessing your target, and BEFORE communicating with the subject and dispatch, what “actions after combat shooting” needs to be taken?

Break your tunnel vision. Look for the perpetrator’s partners—you may be faced with multiple assailants. Broaden your initial scan of the suspect’s last known location to a full ____ degrees, and ____ degrees up and down.

When you insert a magazine into the rifle, ensure it is in place by using a ____ technique. This technique is used to ensure that the magazine in the rifle is seated properly in the magazine well. This technique eliminates any failure to properly seat a magazine; a common user-induced malfunction.

What part of the pistol should you NOT oil or lube?

What part or piece of the firearm should you NOT oil or lube?

If you fire a number of rounds during a gunfight and there is a lull (pause or break) in the action, you may decide to reload so you have a full magazine in your weapon if the gunfight resumes. There is a round still in the chamber. This type of reload usually occurs while behind cover. What type of reload is this? 

This type of reload occurs after all of the remaining rounds from your magazine and chamber have been fired. After shooting off the last round from the magazine and pistol, the slide stop automatically activates, preventing the slide from closing. The picture below is an image of how a pistol looks after firing the last round from the magazine and pistol (Be advised: The state test will NOT show an image. This is for studying purposes only). What reload type is this?

For a semi-automatic pistol to fire repeatedly, four actions must take place. Which one of the following is NOT apart of the firing cycle?

How many number of officers are required to conduct a high-risk contact properly?

In a 5 – 4 decision, the United States Supreme Court agreed that the search incident to arrest doctrine of automobiles is not an automatic police entitlement and should only be applied when a defendant is still in a position to lunge into the passenger compartment or when the officer reasonably believes that the vehicle has evidence supporting the arrest. Which case law is this?

In an approach vehicle contact, how far away should you park your squad behind the subject vehicle?

In a high-risk traffic stop, how far away should you and other officers position the squads from the subject’s vehicle?

When making contact with the driver of the vehicle, what Basic Contact Model should you follow that you learned in Professional Communication Skills?

If you have already decided what action you are going to take, you should let the driver know at this time. For example, Officer Ward have decided to issue a citation for a red signal violation. What step of OIR is this?
Example:
“Sir, I will be issuing you a citation. Please wait here in your car and I’ll be back with you as soon as I’ve finished the paperwork.”

In the case of a vehicle contact, the beginning consists of you identifying yourself and your agency and explaining the reason for the stop. What step of OIR is this?
Example:
“Good afternoon, Sir. I’m Officer Domagalski of the Milwaukee Police Department. I stopped you because I saw your vehicle go through a red light at Main and First Street

In this phase of the contact, you ask questions to understand the context of the behavior that prompted your stop, to identify the individuals involved, and to fill in any other information you need to get. For a vehicle contact, give the driver the opportunity to explain his or her actions. What step in OIR is this?
Example:
“Sir, was there some reason that you didn’t stop for that red light?”

In this position, the squad car is angled slightly toward the roadway rather than being parallel to the subject vehicle. The angle places a portion of the car (and engine block) between the officer and the subject vehicle. One disadvantage of this position is that the squad car’s headlights may blind oncoming drivers, particularly at night, and especially if the headlights flash between high and low beams. At the same time because the squad car is angled, its emergency lights are less visible from the rear and its headlights and take-down lights are less able to illuminate the subject vehicle. What position is this?

In this position, the subject vehicle is stopped on the shoulder or next to the curb, and the squad car is adjusted to the left so that the left rear corner of the subject vehicle is even with the center of the squad. The purpose for this position rather than parking directly behind the subject vehicle is to provide the officer with a safety lane for walking up to and contacting the driver, if the officer chooses the left-hand approach. The disadvantage of this position is that the squad car does protrude into the traffic lane. That either makes the lane unusable by other traffic, or, if the lane is wide enough, may encourage other traffic to “squeeze by” putting the officer at risk of injury. What position is this?

In this position, the squad car is positioned directly behind the subject vehicle. This position is used only when conditions preclude using one of the preferred positions. An example might be a high-traffic city street at rush hour, when either of the preferred positions would increase congestion by blocking a lane. This position provides no safety lane for the officer using a driver side approach—a passenger side approach. What position is this?

If you have a vehicle with multiple subjects in it, you might choose to interview the driver away from the vehicle to minimize complications from the passengers, or pets. Or if you have stopped a vehicle for an investigative (“Terry”) stop, you may wish to wait for back-up before contacting the driver, since you suspect him or her of criminal activity. What contact is this?

Most vehicle contacts are this type of contact, meaning that the officer gets out of his or her squad car and walks up to the subject vehicle to talk to the driver. This contact is used when your threat assessment suggests that it would be safe. What contact is this?

In this contact, you do not approach the vehicle until all subjects have been ordered out—at gunpoint—and secured. These contacts require multiple officers functioning in a coordinated effort. Certainly, some situations (a vehicle matching the description of the getaway car for armed robbers who just robbed a bank and shot a bank teller) automatically demand to be handled as this contact. What contact is this?

While conducting a traffic stop, what direction/position should your front wheels be turned?

Where should placards be located on the transporting vehicle?

Which one of the following is the most desirable for terrorists to attack to shock the human/public coconscious?

This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals contact the skin and pass into muscle tissue. In many cases, you are not even aware that you have been exposed. This type of exposure can take time and not even be evident until days or weeks after the event. The best defense to this type of exposure is to prevent skin contact with hazardous materials. What exposure is this?

This exposure will cause damage to the skin as it makes its way into your body. A common chemical, which will damage the skin, muscles and organs, is Sulfuric Acid. What exposure is this?

This exposure occurs when hazardous chemicals are eaten or swallowed. Unintentional or accidental consumption occurs when good work practices are not followed, including not washing hands after having been exposed to a hazardous material or by touching your mouth/lips with a contaminated hand/gloved hand during an incident. What exposure is this?

This exposure is the most common form of chemical exposure and can immobilize a subject quickly. This exposure occurs in atmospheres contaminated with a hazardous chemical vapor or dust. What exposure is this?

This exposure occur when a sharp object containing or contaminated with a hazardous chemical that penetrates the skin. Hypodermic syringes are the most common source of risks. This exposure also occurs when cuts are caused by broken glass and other "sharps" contaminated with hazardous chemicals. The object "injects" the contamination as it cuts. What exposure is this?

When placards are required to be displayed on a vehicle or freight container transporting hazardous materials, how many placards should be displayed?

Terrorists frequently use these devices as one of their most common weapons. These devices are popular because they are cheap and easy to produce, adaptable to a variety of uses, and difficult to detect and trace after the event. What category of mass destruction is this?

These agents are organisms or toxins that can kill or incapacitate people, livestock, and crops. The three basic groups of these agents are bacteria, viruses, and toxins. Many of these agents break down quickly when exposed to sunlight and other environmental factors, but others, such as anthrax spore, are very long lived. What category of mass destruction is this?

These agents are poisonous vapors, aerosols, liquids, and solids that have toxic effects on people, animals, or plants. They can be released by bombs or sprayed from aircraft, boats, and vehicles. They can be used as a liquid to create a hazard to people and the environment. Some agents may be odorless and tasteless. They can have an immediate effect (a few seconds to a few minutes) or a delayed effect (2 to 48 hours). While potentially lethal, these agents are difficult to deliver in lethal concentrations. Outdoors, the agents often dissipate rapidly. These agents also are difficult to produce and deliver. What category of mass destruction is this?

This category of mass destruction is an explosion with intense light and heat, a damaging pressure wave, and widespread radioactive material that can contaminate the air, water, and ground surfaces for miles around. The effects of all these devices include blinding light, intense heat (thermal radiation), initial nuclear radiation, blast, fires started by the heat pulse, and secondary fires caused by the destruction. What category of mass destruction is this?

Terrorist use of this device – often called a “dirty nuke” or “dirty bomb” – is considered far more likely than use of a nuclear explosive device. This device combines a conventional explosive device with radioactive material. It is designed to scatter dangerous and sub-lethal amounts of radioactive material over a general area. These devices appeal to terrorists because they require limited technical knowledge to build and deploy compared to a nuclear device. What category of mass destruction is this?

As a First Responder, you should always get ____ and _____ from chemicals. Wind direction and terrain are some key officer safety considerations when arriving on scene at a hazardous materials incident.

This is where the bulk of your driving will take place. You may be patrolling a certain geographic area responding to non-emergency calls or even heading back into the station at the end of your shift. In many ways, this type of driving is similar to the driving you do off duty—but in other ways it is very different. You must be continually alert to your environment and pay attention to the surrounding area as well as the other drivers on the road with you. What law enforcement driving type is this?

This type of driving refers to the sort of driving you will do when responding to situations in which persons or property are in danger. These can include medical emergencies, assaults, motor vehicle accidents with injuries, fires, and so on. In these situations, you need to get to the scene as quickly as possible but without creating a bigger danger in doing so. You may need to use your emergency lights and siren and disregard certain traffic laws—for example, by exceeding the speed limit. What law enforcement driving type is this?

This type of driving represents one of the most dangerous tasks in law enforcement. Both the officer and the fleeing suspect are at risk just from the speeds at which they are driving. In addition, there may be other drivers or pedestrians along the way, and other responding officers who must coordinate their actions with the primary officer’s. What law enforcement driving type is this?

Which of following is true about Pursuit as it relates to law enforcement?

For law enforcement driving, the best position is one that permits you to make rapid changes in direction when needed, is not tiring, and allows easy access to vehicle controls and to your police radio. This hand position is the recommended position for all law enforcement driving (except for backing). Other methods work in some situations, but this hand position works in all conditions, from patrol driving to emergency operation. What hand position is this?

While reversing/backing up in a vehicle, what hand position should you use?

If your vehicle runs off the edge of the roadway, you must be able to perform an off-road recovery while not panicking. Which of the following is NOT true?

Whether non-emergency driving, emergency driving, or in a pursuit, law enforcement officers must show “The degree of care that a reasonably careful person, performing similar duties, and acting under similar circumstances would show.” If this is not exercised for the safety of others, you can be liable under both civil and criminal law. What is this called?

The exception to the requirement of lights and siren during emergency response is the so-called Silent Emergency. A Silent Emergency is a situation in which the officer is either obtaining evidence of a speed violation or responding to a call in which there is a need to avoid alerting a suspect to the officer’s presence. What are some examples of when a Silent Emergency might be needed?

Generally, an agency establishes this policy when it is not set up to engage in high-speed pursuits. An agency with a small number of personnel, limited jurisdiction (for example, campus police), and/or lack of emergency-equipped vehicles may not permit its officers to take part in high-speed pursuits. What policy is this?

This policy generally encourages police officers to conduct pursuits in a safe and efficient manner. However, this policy offers little or vague guidance to an agency’s officers. What policy is this?

This policy severely limits police officers’ discretion in pursuits. It typically calls for the police to initiate or continue a pursuit only in felony circumstances or when a suspect presents a significant and immediate danger to the public. Under this type of policy, a police officer would be expected to pursue a murderer, rapist, robber, or other wanted felon who chose to flee. Under this policy, police typically would not pursue a traffic violator, someone in possession of illicit drugs, or someone involved in a nonviolent crime unless that person represented a tremendous danger to the general public and the person’s identification was unknown (for example, a OWI suspect who takes off after a vehicle vs. pedestrian crash). What policy is this?

This policy provides specific guidelines to officers in departments that grant them authority to initiate and continue pursuits. The overriding goal of this type of policy seeks to balance the needs for the police to apprehend law violators with the requirement that police not unduly jeopardize public safety. What policy is this?

Who can terminate a pursuit?

he goal of a pursuit is to pace the fleeing vehicle, not overtake it. Unless the pursuit is terminated before it concludes, you will simply pace the vehicle until……...

Which of the following situations should you NOT perform a moving roadblock (Boxing in)?

You are approaching a curve, what action should you take?

What should you aim for while approaching a curve? What is the correct term?

Whatever distance is required to stop the vehicle at 30 mph, it will take __ times as much distance to stop at 60 mph.

In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Tire Deflation Devices, Channelization and Barricades tactics” fall under?

In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Ramming and a Roadblock (no escape route)” fall under?

In the Intervention Options for Emergency Vehicle Operation, what mode does “Moving Roadblock (boxing-In) and Roadblock (with escape route)” fall under?

When deciding to change lanes, there should always be a cushion of space in front of your vehicle in your present lane. Because of the impending lane change, your attention will be momentarily diverted, and the more space you have, the more reaction time you have. Therefore, you should have AT LEAST ___ seconds of space when deciding to change lanes?

While performing a moving roadblock (Boxing in) on an intoxicated subject so that he can stop or slow down his vehicle, the suspect displays a firearm. In this technique, the suspect’s vehicle is surrounded by three squad cars—one in front, one in back, and one to the side, just behind the driver door (Somewhat in a 2 ½ position). Out of the three squads, which officer is more in an undesirable position?

During a vehicle inspection, what parts should you check at the beginning of your shift?

While operating your squad car, what is the single most important choice you can make to ensure you have the appropriate amount of reaction time?

In Defensive and Arrest Tactics training, one of the basic principles is that the officer should always maintain a position of advantage, which means that the officer has a better ability to control the suspect. The same principle applies to pursuit driving. What position should you be in behind the suspect’s vehicle while in pursuit?

Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this?
- a laceration that requires stitches, staples, or a tissue adhesive;
- any fracture of a bone;
- a broken nose;
- a burn;
- a petechia [minute colored spot that appears on skin as the result of localized hemorrhage or rupture of blood vessel/capillary];
- a temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing;
- a concussion; or
- a loss or fracture of a tooth

Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this?
- creates a substantial risk of death, or
- causes serious permanent disfigurement, or
- causes a permanent or protracted loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member or organ, or
- other serious bodily injury

Based on the following information below, what degree of bodily harm is this?
- physical pain or injury, illness, or any impairment of physical

Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this?
- physical pain or injury
- illness

Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this?
- substantial risk of death
- serious permanent disfigurement
- permanent or protracted loss of function of any bodily member or organ
- other serious bodily injury

Based on the following information below, what degree of battery is this?
- a laceration requiring stitches, staples, tissue adhesive
- any fracture of a bone
- broken nose
-burn
-temporary loss of consciousness, sight or hearing
-concussion
-loss or fracture of a tooth

For the penalties of a misdemeanor Retail Theft to be increased to a felony, how much must the value of the stolen property be worth?

Schliem pick-pocketed a woman while she was walking down the street. The woman was unaware of the stolen items missing from her pocket until she arrived home. The woman wasn’t injured or physically harmed. What crime is this?

Nielsen observed another individual standing on the bus stop with the newest iPhone in his hand. Nielsen approached the individual and punched him with a closed fist, while also taking the individual’s phone. What crime is this?

Nash approached an individual with his handgun out pointed at the individual, while stating, “You already know what it is, give me everything!” The individual handed everything in his pockets over to Nash. What crime is this?

Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located by the side of the house is considered what?

Trash contents in a garbage can that’s located outside the fence and at the curb is considered what?

Trash contents in a garbage can located in the alleyway by a detached garage is considered what? The detached garage can is not in close proximity of the house.

A vin number on a vehicle that’s parked on the street is considered what?

Which of the following is considered Forcible Entry?

Within how many days does a search warrant have to be executed and served after being signed by the Assistant District Attorney and Judge?

After the execution of a search warrant, it should be returned to the judge within how many hours?

The constitution requires that in most circumstances, an officer must knock and announce before seeking to execute a search warrant. However, there are a few exceptions to the “knock and announce” requirement. Which of the following is/are an exception(s)?

A stolen piano which was listed on the search warrant was found immediately as officers entered the house. However, officers continued to go through the rest of the house searching for other potential contraband. Upstairs in the attic, officers found 100 pounds of cocaine. Is this cocaine evidence admissible in court?

If impounded, why might an inventory search of a suspect’s vehicle be a smart idea?

The authority to open closed containers found within the car is dependent upon whether the department has a specific policy as to closed containers in inventory searches. The policy doesn’t necessarily need to be in writing, although this is certainly preferable, but the policy must be uniformly and consistently applied by all members of the department. In the absence of such a policy, there is no authority to open a closed container in an inventory search. If it is necessary to go into the closed container, and there is no policy permitting this extension of the scope of the inventory, what should be obtained?

Which one of the following is NOT true about body cavity searches?

Which one of the following is NOT true about strip searches?

This category of EDP’s includes people who are chronically ill, meaning they have a mental disorder all the time. Typically, this category of EDP’s cannot function while being off of their medication. Which type is this?

This category of EDP’s includes people who abuse alcohol or other drugs, or both. This category includes chronic abusers as well as those who are temporary under the influence of alcohol or another drug. This category also includes people who are withdrawing from alcohol or other drugs. Which type is this?

This category of EDP’s includes people who are going through an acute mental or emotional crisis, or who are simply very upset for some reason. Such people may be normally rational, but they have been pushed to the limits of their coping abilities by events or circumstances. Generally, the crisis period only lasts for a relatively short time. Which type is this?

The person becomes temporarily out-of-control. He or she may scream, yell or curse, or may wave arms or stamp feet. In this state, a person may become assaultive. Which stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Following the crisis, the person may drop below their normal level of stimulation. This is more likely if the crisis phase was prolonged and/or physical. Typically a person in this stage is quiet, tired and/or withdrawn, and may express regret about his or her actions, include crying. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

There is no crisis yet. The person’s emotional state and mental abilities are at regular levels. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

The person shows obvious signs of distress, including observable physical changes and changes in behaviors. Some examples of these include reddening of the face, tensing of muscles (clenched jaw, clenched fists), talking more or louder, and sometimes becoming quieter or more withdrawn. Also, there may be increased activity, such as pacing or rocking. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

During this stage, the person is back to normal behavior and is once again under control. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

In this phase, there is a gradual decrease in the crisis behaviors. The person remains tense, but is more in control. If provoked, however, the person can go back into crisis. What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

Something happens to cause the person to become excited, upset, active or physically uncomfortable. The cause can be external (something someone said or did, or an environmental factor such as heat, cold or crowed conditions) or internal (physical illness or injury, pain, emotional reaction, or mental illness). What stage of the crisis cycle is this?

The key characteristic of this form of mental illness is mood swings, from depression to mania—from a “low” to a “high.” This illness was previously known as “manic-depressive disorder.” There is, however, wide variation of symptoms between different people with this disorder. Some people have great mood swings, going from extreme manic periods to the depths of depression. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

Another major category of “severe and persistent” mental illness is thought disorders—diseases in which the predominant factor is a disturbance of thinking, rather than primarily of mood. Some of the main symptoms are delusions, hallucinations, visual hallucinations, disordered thinking and speech, unusual realities, and paranoia. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

This disorder is a normal emotion that everyone experiences at one time or another, usually in response to a realistic situation or concern. Feelings of this disorder are, in fact, often a good thing because such feelings motivate us to take positive actions—such as preparing for a test or a presentation or some other event about which we feel anxious. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

This disorder refers to an illness, a disorder of the brain in which a change in the chemical balance of the brain causes serious symptoms. Some common symptoms are deep feelings of helplessness and hopelessness, thoughts and feelings of guilt and self-blaming, diminished feelings of self-worth, lack of energy or ability to do normal activities, etc. What form of “serious and persistent” mental illness is this?

When responding to a person who has schizophrenia or another form of a “thought disorder”, which one of the following is NOT true?

What requirements are needed for a person to meet the statutory definition of an “incapacitated by alcohol”?

In responding to a person who has or may have an intellectual disability or other developmental disability, which of the following would you NOT do?

Domestic violence occurs in intimate relationships. Which one of the following is NOT included as an intimate relationship?

Following a domestic violence crime, within how many days should it be reported to authorities?

Which of the following requires a MANDATORY arrested if violated?

Immediately following a domestic violence arrest, how many hours is the no-contact order?

After responding to a shooting with a suspect armed with a rifle, you observed a wounded blood-covered victim on the front porch of a house. However, the armed suspect is in that same house and his immediate location is unknown. What is the first priority?

What is an officer’s first priority when responding to a high threat environment, such as an active shooter?

This zone is unlikely, but not impossible that danger still exists. For example, if law enforcement contains or stops one active shooter, but has not thoroughly searched the building, another shooter could still be present. Generally, only law enforcement officers or those escorted by law enforcement officers should enter this zone. What zone is this?

This zone is an area with no known hazards. For example, EMS might establish a casualty collection point inside this zone, where they can treat, load, and transport casualties without interference. What zone is this?

This zone is a dangerous location where anyone present is at risk of harm. This zone is the immediate area and location of a subject. What zone is this?

This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “warm zone.” For example, you might have responded to a “shots fired” call in a business, and other officers have contained the suspect in another room. You have cover and concealment from the only known threat, but the building has not been thoroughly searched. During this phase of care, you can render additional medical care to yourself or others. What phase of care is this?

This phase of care occurs when you are inside the “hot zone” and the threat is in close proximity to you. For example, you might be responding to a “shots fired” call inside a building, where the location of the shooter is unknown. Because of the ongoing danger, your primary objective must be stopping the threat. If possible, direct the casualty to move to you or another location of relative safety, and/or to treat himself/herself. What phase of care is this?

During this phase of care, you will provide rapid, secure extraction from the “hot zone” to EMS in the “cold zone,” or extraction directly to an appropriate medical facility. As always, you will continue to maintain officer safety by addressing any suspect threats to life, and by applying and maintaining appropriate medical interventions. What phase of care is this?

After responding to an active shooter at a high school, which is a high threat situation, you observed two causalities located in a classroom. One of the subjects appears to be dead. The other casualty is wounded but conscious. This person can talk and move. Between the two, which causality is more of a priority at this time, in this particular situation?

How should you apply a tourniquet on an extremity?

The shooter has been shot by responding officers. It is unclear whether there are any more threats. The Tactical team is now clearing the building room by room, level by level. In the meantime, you’re in a secured room with casualties, some that have been injured. What should you do?

While metering/slicing the pie during room clearing, how should your eyes and your gun be?

This technique is designed to gain rapid control over a structure to rescue hostages or arrest suspects before they can arm themselves. These types of entry techniques are not without risk—they depend on speed and surprise and do not permit officers as much time to identify risks and clear all angles. What search technique is this?

This search combines “slicing the pie” with good communication with your partner(s). You and your partner “slice” the building’s angles to locate any suspects inside. Move together, slowly and thoroughly. One officer slices new areas while the other partner covers angles the first officer cannot observe. What search technique is this?

In about half of all active shooter incidents, the attack ends before law enforcement even arrives. Which one of the following is the reason why active shooter incidents end before law enforcement even arrives?

When faced with an active shooter, the most prevalent advice for the general public suggests that victims do what?

The guiding principles of every active shooter response should be what?

During the mediation process, what should you use to show good listening skills and to obtain clarification?

What is the next step of the mediation process after person #1 gets finished telling his/her story?

During crisis intervention, what are some strategies that you can use to try and get the person’s attention?

How many people should there be when delivering a death notification?

What should you NOT refer the person killed as?

Which of the following should you NOT do while giving a death notification?

For the Implied Consent law to apply, what must first happen to the driver?

Which one of the following is FALSE?

An intoxicated driver that was arrested for OWI has refused to submit to a chemical/blood test, but later changes his mind. Which one of the following is TRUE?