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Cardiovascular System- Internal Medicine 3rd Year PMU

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Cardiovascular System- Internal Medicine 3rd Year PMU

Question 1 of 55

1

The upper relative heart border is found

Select one of the following:

  • Along the lower margin of I rib

  • Along the lower margin of II rib

  • Along the lower margin of III rib

Explanation

Question 2 of 55

1

The right absolute heart border is found

Select one of the following:

  • Along the right sternal margin

  • Along the left sternal margin

  • Along linea mediana anterior

Explanation

Question 3 of 55

1

Which are the components of S1

Select one of the following:

  • Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves, isometric ventricular contraction, vibrations of chordae tendineae

  • Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves

  • Opening of mitral and tricuspid valves

Explanation

Question 4 of 55

1

Which statements, referring to SI and 52 are correct

Select one or more of the following:

  • S1 is systolic and is louder on the apex, S2 is diastolic and is louder on the basis of the heart

  • S2 coincides with the beginning of the carotid pulse wave

  • Simultaneous weakening of 5 1 and 52 is found in myocarditis andexudative pericarditis

Explanation

Question 5 of 55

1

Which statements, referring Io the gallop rhythm are correct

Select one or more of the following:

  • S3 is a protodiastolic gallop rhythm

  • S4 is presystolic

  • S4 might be heart in children i n and young people till 30 years of age

Explanation

Question 6 of 55

1

Features of pericardial friction rub are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Heard best on the basis of the heart, does not vanish during apnoea

  • Auscultated best over the absolute heart dullness, it is not influenced by respiration and does not vanish during apnoea

  • Auscultated during systole and diastole, stronger in systole

Explanation

Question 7 of 55

1

Pericardial friction rub is heard

Select one of the following:

  • During systole

  • During diastole

  • During both phases

Explanation

Question 8 of 55

1

Pulsus defitiens is established in

Select one of the following:

  • Peripheral vasculitis

  • High frequent atrial fibrillation

  • Shock

Explanation

Question 9 of 55

1

Pulsus celer is defected in

Select one or more of the following:

  • Graves' disease

  • Mitral regurgitation

  • Aortic regurgitation

Explanation

Question 10 of 55

1

Pulsus parvus, tardus et rarus is detected

Select one of the following:

  • Aortic stenosis

  • Aortic regurgitation

  • Mitral stenosis

Explanation

Question 11 of 55

1

Pulsus celer, altus, magnus et frequens is met in

Select one of the following:

  • Aortic stenosis

  • Aortic regurgitation

  • Mitral regurgitation

Explanation

Question 12 of 55

1

Which statements, referring to atrial fibrillation are correct

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pulse deficit might be palpated

  • Ectopic atrial rhythm is concerned, atrial systole rate 350-600/min. ECG criteria: lack of p waves, absolute irregular RR intervals, f waves are replacing the isoline

  • Atrial ectopic regular rhythm with atrial rate 250-350/min. ECG criteria lack of p waves, regular RR intervals, F saw-like waves, replacing the isoline

Explanation

Question 13 of 55

1

In atrial fibrillation the auscultated heart activity is

Select one of the following:

  • Rhythmic

  • Arrhythmic

  • Variable, depending on the presence of a constant or transitory AV block

Explanation

Question 14 of 55

1

Which are the typical physical findings in a patient with mitral stenosis

Select one of the following:

  • On inspection facies hectica is observed

  • Apex cordis is shifted to the left in V intercostals space, due to dilated right ventricle; accentuated S1 and diastolic rolling murmur are heard on auscultation

  • Weak S1 and a systolic murmur are auscultated

Explanation

Question 15 of 55

1

In which valve disease diastolic fremissement is palpated

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Mitral regurgitation

  • Aortic stenosis

Explanation

Question 16 of 55

1

In mitral stenosis on the apex one can auscultate

Select one of the following:

  • Diastolic rolling murmur, propagating to the left armpit

  • Diastolic rolling: murmur that does not propagate

  • Systolic murmur

Explanation

Question 17 of 55

1

In mitral regurgitation on the apex one can auscultate

Select one of the following:

  • Diastolic rolling murmur without any propagation

  • Pansystolic murmur, propagating to the left armpit

  • Presystolic murmur

Explanation

Question 18 of 55

1

Sound of mitral opening is typical for

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Mitral regurgitation

  • Aortic stenosis

Explanation

Question 19 of 55

1

Mitral stenosis is accepted when the mitral valve orifice is under

Select one of the following:

  • 5 cm

  • 3 cm

  • 1 cm

Explanation

Question 20 of 55

1

Ictus cordis is dilated to left and downwards (in V1 or VII intercostals) in

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Mitral regurgitation

  • Exudative pleuritis

Explanation

Question 21 of 55

1

Which heart disease is presented by a functional diastolic murmur in the left intercostals (Graham-Steel murmur)

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Chronic constrictive pericarditis

  • Aortic regurgitation

Explanation

Question 22 of 55

1

Auscultatory findings in mitral regurgitation are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Weaker S1

  • Systolic murmur on the apex with axilar propagation

  • Diastolic murmur on the apex without propagation

Explanation

Question 23 of 55

1

Austin-Flint murmur is

Select one of the following:

  • Functional diastolic, due to relative mitral stenosis in organic aortic regurgitation

  • Functional systolic, due to relative mitral regurgitation in organic aortic regurgitation

  • Organic diastolic in aortic regurgitation

Explanation

Question 24 of 55

1

The continuous (systolic-diastolic) Duroziers murmur over the femoral artery is auscultated i

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Aortic stenosis

  • Aortic regurgitation

Explanation

Question 25 of 55

1

Carey-Coombs murmur is

Select one of the following:

  • Systolic in relative mitral stenosis

  • Middiaatolic in relative mitral stenosis

  • Diastolic in organic mitral stenosis

Explanation

Question 26 of 55

1

Which are the typical physical findings in patients with aortic stenosis

Select one of the following:

  • Ictus cordis is shifted to the left ; diastolic murmur on the apex

  • Systolic murmur on the apex, propagating to the left armpit

  • Ictus cordis is dilated to left and downwards, systolic rough murmur on aortic valve, propagating to the carotids

Explanation

Question 27 of 55

1

Where is punctum maximum of the diastolic murmur in aortic regurgitation

Select one of the following:

  • Aortic place-II right intercostals

  • Botkin-Erb point

  • Ictus cordis

Explanation

Question 28 of 55

1

Which valve disease is presented by a rough systolic murmur with p. max. In II right intercostals, propagating to the carotids

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral regurgitation

  • Aortic regurgitation

  • Aortic stenosis

Explanation

Question 29 of 55

1

In aortic regurgitation is auscultated

Select one of the following:

  • Accentuated S2, systolic murmur on aortic place

  • Weak A2, diastolic murmur with p. max. on Erb point

  • Apical systolic murmur

Explanation

Question 30 of 55

1

In aortic regurgitation the second sound (A2) is

Select one of the following:

  • Accentuated

  • Normal

  • Weaker

Explanation

Question 31 of 55

1

Musset's sign is met in

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral regurgitation

  • Aortic regurgitation

  • Aortic stenosis

Explanation

Question 32 of 55

1

Muller's sign is

Select one of the following:

  • Systolic pulsation of the uvula in organic aortic regurgitation

  • Nodding of the head synchronous with the heart contractions in organic aortic regurgitation

  • Loud systolic and diastolic sounds over the femoral artery in organic aortic regurgitation

Explanation

Question 33 of 55

1

Which statements, referring to stable angina are correct

Select one of the following:

  • Newly appeared retrosternal pain in like tale 48h and/or at rest

  • Retrosternal pain, lasting 15-30 min, whose severity, provoking and relieving factors have worsened in the last week

  • Retrosternal pain, lasting 3-15 min, relieved by rest and nitroglycerin intake. Its severity, duration, provoking factors have remained stable during the last month

Explanation

Question 34 of 55

1

The duration of pain in myocardial infarction is

Select one of the following:

  • A few seconds

  • Up to 15 minutes

  • Over 30 min

Explanation

Question 35 of 55

1

Manifestations of right ventricle heart failure are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Orthopnoea

  • Gravitation oedemata

  • Hepatomegaly

Explanation

Question 36 of 55

1

Manifestations of left ventricle heart failure are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cardiac asthma

  • Gravitation oedemata

  • Pulmonary oedema

Explanation

Question 37 of 55

1

Rheumatic fever is characterized by

Select one of the following:

  • Reactive poststreptococcal arthritis without any damage of other organs

  • Migratory polyarthritis is present without late joint deformities; carditis is often met, leading to a chronic valve disease

  • Chronic erosive arthritis is present, accompanied by high fever

Explanation

Question 38 of 55

1

Erythema marginatum is met in

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Chronic constrictive pericarditis

  • Rheumatic fever

Explanation

Question 39 of 55

1

Migratory poly arthritis, carditis, erythema marginatum, chorea minor, subcutaneous nodules are major criteria for

Select one of the following:

  • Infectious endocarditis

  • Rheumatic fever

  • Rheumatoid arthritis

Explanation

Question 40 of 55

1

In myocarditis are present

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sound of mitral opening (opening snap)

  • Tachycardia

  • Gallop rhythm

Explanation

Question 41 of 55

1

Which characteristics of the normal ECG are valid

Select one or more of the following:

  • PQ duration is 0.12-0.20 sec

  • QRS complex reflects ventricular depolarization on and lasts up to 0.15 sec

  • p wave reflects atrial depolarization, it is positive in I, II and negative in avR leads, its duration is 0.11 sec and its amplitude is 2.5 mm

Explanation

Question 42 of 55

1

In ECG with paper speed 25 mm/sec, 1mm in horizontal direction lasts

Select one of the following:

  • 0.04 sec

  • 0.02 sec

  • 0.03 sec

Explanation

Question 43 of 55

1

ECG criteria of atrial fibrillation are

Select one of the following:

  • Lack of p waves, wide, deformed QRS, changes in repolarisation

  • F waves of fibrillation, deformed, wide QRS, changes in repolarization

  • Lack of p waves, irregular RR intervals; f waves are present

Explanation

Question 44 of 55

1

Which part of the ECG is prolonged in AV block

Select one of the following:

  • QRS complex

  • P wave

  • PQ interval

Explanation

Question 45 of 55

1

In left bundle branch block wide and deformed QRS complex is met in

Select one of the following:

  • I, aVL, V5, V6

  • I, III, V3

  • III, aVF, V1

Explanation

Question 46 of 55

1

P mitrale is

Select one of the following:

  • Reflects hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium, its height is 2.5 mm and above

  • Reflects hypertrophy and dilatation of the right atrium, its height is 2.5 mm and abovephy and dilatation of the left atrium, it is wide with two peaks and lasts over 0. 11 sec

  • Reflects left atrium hypertrophy, its height is 2. 5 mm and above paper speed 25 mm/sec) 1 mm in horizontal direction

Explanation

Question 47 of 55

1

Right ECG type is present in

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Arterial hypertension

  • Aortic regurgitation

Explanation

Question 48 of 55

1

Which heart disease is presented by Pardee wave

Select one of the following:

  • Mitral stenosis

  • Acute myocardial infarction

  • Aortic regurgitation

Explanation

Question 49 of 55

1

Prolonged PQ interval is met in

Select one or more of the following:

  • AV block I grade

  • Liver cirrhosis

  • Rheumatic fever

Explanation

Question 50 of 55

1

Wider than 0.04 sec, deep Q wave is typical for

Select one of the following:

  • Acute myocardial infarction

  • Acute myocarditis

  • Arterial hypertension

Explanation

Question 51 of 55

1

Heart function in complete AV block is

Select one of the following:

  • Slow and rhythmic

  • Slow and arrhythmic

  • Fast and rhythmic

Explanation

Question 52 of 55

1

ECG changes in unstable angina are met in

Select one of the following:

  • p wave

  • QRS complex

  • ST segment and T wave

Explanation

Question 53 of 55

1

Which diagnostic methods are used for diagnosing suspected coronaryartery disease (CAD)

Select one or more of the following:

  • ECG

  • Coronarography

  • Mediastinoscopy

Explanation

Question 54 of 55

1

Which diagnostic techniques are used to prove infectious endocarditis

Select one or more of the following:

  • Haemocultures

  • Transthoracic echocardiography

  • Transoesophageal echocardiography

Explanation

Question 55 of 55

1

On facial chest radiography the right heart border is formed by

Select one of the following:

  • Right atrium and right ventricle

  • Right atrium and vena cava superior

  • Right atrium, aortic arch and right ventricle

Explanation

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