Americans tend to believe that they are mainly united by:
A) Birth
B) Ideals
C) Language
D) Religion
Restrictions were first placed on voluntary immigration to the United States:
A) at the Constitutional Convention
B) at the adoption of the Bill of Rights
C) In 1808
D) Nearly 100 years after the founding
During the early twentieth century, immigrant population shifted from predominantly northern and western European to:
A) African
B) Latin American
C) Middle Eastern
D) southern and eastern European
How does an economic migrant differ from a refugee?
A) a refugee is given a lower preference for immigration to America than an economic migrant
B) a refugee must be fleeing persecution, while an economic migrant is seeking a more prosperous life
C) an economic migrant is a reggae who enter the United States without means to support himself or herself.
D) An economic migrant is feeling persecution of his or her assets.
Under the Constitution, Congress has the power to:
A) apprehend and detain leaders of Indian tribes
B) deport Indians for not living on official tribal lands
C) manage all affairs with Indian tribes
D) regulate commerce with Indian tribes
Federal policies since the 1930s have:
A) destroyed nearly one-third of all Indian reservations
B) disbanded all major tribes
C) emphasized a sense of Indian identity
D) stressed assimilation
The right of expatriation gives people the right to:
A) become full citizens of the United States
B) be deported from their country
C) be stripped of citizenship
D) renounce citizenship
Most signers of the Constitution were:
A) atheists
B) members of a major Christian denomination
C) participants in revival meetings of the First Great Awakening
D) preachers
How did the First and Second Great Awakenings differ?
A) The Second Great Awakening was distinctly less religious in nature
B) The First Great Awakening was distinctly less religious in nature
C) The second stressed a personal experience, while the firs emphasized social improvement and moral reform
D) the first stressed personal experience, while the second emphasized social improvement and moral reform
America ranks _______ when compared to other industrial democracies in charitable giving as a percentage of gross domestic product?
A) just above average
B) well below average
C) first
D) last
In the early years of American history, married women did NOT have the right to:
A) trial by jury
B) habeas corpus
C) own property
D) freedom of speech
Why did some women's rights leaders oppose the adoption of the Fourteenth amendment?
A) It presumed universal male suffrage, introducing the word male into the Constitution
B) it was not written by women
C) they did not want blacks to gain voting rights before women
D) they sought more than just voting rights
How does the rational-basis test differ from strict scrutiny?
A) strict scrutiny is used by lower courts, while the Supreme Court depends on the rational-basis test.
B) strict scrutiny requires a special hearing, while the rational basis test can be applied by any judge.
C) the rational basis test is a more stringent test than strict scrutiny
D) the rational basis test requires only some reasonable grounds for distinctions in laws, while strict scrutiny requires a compelling government interest.
That ____ clause of the Constitution raises the question of whether or not states have to recognize same sex marriages from other states.
A) commerce
B) implied powers
C) necessary and proper
D) full faith and credit
Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct positions on the legality of affirmative action?
A)race cannot be the basis of excluding anyone fro participation in federally funded programs, whether applied blacks or whites.
B) race may be taken into account, at least to some extent, but formal set asides, or quotes, go too far.
C) discrimination against one race is legitimate if that race was the source of discrimination in earlier eras.
D)the preferential treatment of racial minorities is a means of remedying past societal discrimination. In order to treat some persons equally, we must treat them differently.
By 1804, which states had abolished slavery or passed laws providing for gradual emancipation?
A) the thirteen original states
B) all northern states
C) all the states admitted since the Constitution was signed
D) only Virginia, Pennsylvania, and New York
The fugitive slave act enacted as part of the Compromise of 1850 was:
A) a great step toward abolition
B) adamantly opposed by southerners
C) more favorable to slave owners than to the accused fugitive slave
D) never put into effect
The 1857 Lecompton Constitution was a fraudulent document submitted by slavery advocates in:
A) California
B) Kansas
C) Missouri
D) Nebraska
Why did Abraham Lincoln issue the Emancipation Proclamation despite his initial position that the president did not have the authority?
A) Congress demanded it
B) Ending slavery was his central campaign promise
C) He believed it was his moral obligation
D) It was a military decision to weaken the enemy
The Ku Klux Klan Act suspended:
A) habeas corpus
B) large gatherings after dark
C) segregation
D) state legislative sessions
Majority-Minority districts are those in which:
A) a racial minority represents a majority of voters
B) a minority of the majority actually votes
C) the majority elects a racial minority into office
D) the majority of a racial minority is eligible to vote
How do civil liberties differ from civil rights?
A) Civil liberties are personal freedoms, while civil rights concern freedom from discrimination
B) civil liberties are rights granted by the Constitution, while civil rights are those due to all people without legislation
C) civil liberties are those rights listed in the original Constitution, while civil rights are outlined in the Bill of Rights.
D) Civil rights are listed in the original Constitution, while civil liberties are outlined in the Bill of Rights.
The procedural protections that government must follow before depriving anyone of life, liberty, or property are called:
A) civil liberties
B) due process of law
C) Miranda rights
D) prior restraint
What is the incorporation doctrine?
A) the doctrine that prohibited speech critical of the government without concern for the truth of the accusations
B) the doctrine that the due process clause of the Fourteenth amendment extends most specific rights in the Bill of Rights to states and localities
C) the doctrine that the government can restrict freedom of speech when it directly incites violence
D) procedural protections that the government is required to follow before depriving anyone of life, liberty, or property.
The three rules of them regarding challenges to the Establishment clause are called the ____ test.
A) Establishment
B) Expressive
C) Free Exercise
D) Lemon
What does the belief-conduct distinction state?
A) Citizens must conduct themselves in alignment with religious beliefs regardless of personal belief.
B) Religious ceremonies are subject to the scrutiny of federal investigators
C) Religious people may believe what they wish, but they must still adhere to state or federal laws that regulate personal behavior
D) Religious people may believe what they wish, provided that it is within the federal laws.
The Smith Act banned:
A) associating with known or suspected Communists
B) permitting students to hold prayer services on public school grounds
C) printing religious newspapers
D) teaching or advocating the duty to overthrow any government in the United States by force or violence
In its recent Second Amendment rulings, the Supreme Court held that:
A) the amendment protects an individual right to own firearms that applies to the federal government and the states
B) the amendment is no longer relevant to modern conditions
C) the amendment protect an individual's right to own firearms for self defense but does not limit state and local authority to ban private ownership of handguns in high crime areas
D) the amendment accords an individual rights to own firearms but that this must be balanced against the legitimate government interest in combating gun related crimes.
A man is accused of owning an illegal weapon that was discovered by the police during as search of the defendants home without warrant or probable cause. The case is most likely dismissed due to lack of evidence because:
A) only federal laws deal with gun ownership and the police acted on local authority only
B) seizures are illegal unless the suspect is given prior warning
C) the exclusionary rule prohibits prosecution form presenting the weapon as evidence since it was unlawfully seized
D) the police did not follow the basic rules of the clear and present danger test.
In what way did the effects on civil liberties differ in the Civil War and World War I?
A) President Wilson issued more orders regarding civil liberties than President Lincoln.
B) Laws passed by Congress were more influential during the Civil War than during World War I.
C) Federal courts were more active and effective in litigating civil liberties cases during World War I than during the Civil War.
D) During the Civil War, habeas corpus as not suspended as it was during World War I.
Which of the following anti-terrorism policies of the George W. Bush administration did the Barack Obama administration NOT endorse or continue?
A) military trials for suspected terrorists
B) the use of interrogation techniques such as waterboarding, stress positions, and sleep deprivation
C) the use of the "state secrets" doctrine in court to prevent the exposure of intelligence secrets or methods
D) the prolonged detention of some suspected terrorists who would not be tried in federal courts or before military tribunals.
A newspaper knowingly publishes a false story about a congressman's business dealings. The congressman takes the newspaper to court on accusations of:
A) Libel
B) Slander
C) Knowing deception
D) Hate speech
A talk show host knowingly tells a lie about a congressman's business dealings on his radio show. The congressman sues the talk show host accusing him or:
C) Hate speech
D) Knowing deception
Which of the following is NOT a civil liberty protected in the Bill of Rights?
A) protection against cruel and unusual punishment
B) protection against double jeopardy
C) the right to a jury trial in civil cases
D) protection against ex post facto laws
In Barron v. Baltimore, Chief Justice Marshall argued that:
A) the Bill of Rights restrict both federal and state governments
B) the Bill of Rights was only intended to restrict state governments
C) the Bill of Rights was only intended to restrict the federal government
D) the Bill of Rights only applies to citizens of the 13 original colonies
What are the two key clauses of freedom of religion in the first amendment?
A) The establishment clause and the free exercise clause
B) The separation clause and the free exercise clause
C) The separation clause and the establishment clause
D) The secular clause and the establishment clause
Selective incorporation is the doctrine that:
A) the entire Bill of Rights applies to the states
B) the entire Bill of Rights applies to both the state and federal governments
C) much but not all of the Bill of Rights applies to the states
D) only the first, second, and fourth amendments apply to the states.
The nationalization of the Bill of Rights (also called incorporation) shifted power to which group:
A) federal judges
B) state judges
C) state lawmakers
D) the president
The Supreme Court struck down a D.C. law prohibiting private ownership of guns in the 2010 Heller case on the basis of which legal doctrine?
A) establishment clause
B) stare decisis
C) incorporation
D) originalism
According to the precedent set by Reynolds v. US in 1879, may a practicer of the Zorg faith sacrifice a rabbit to the God Zorg if animal sacrifice is prohibited by state or federal law?
A) No.
B) Yes.
C) Depends on how fat the rabbit is.
D) No, but he or she may sacrifice a panda.
According to the Supreme Court, do you have a right to scream "bomb" in a crowded airport?
A) No
B) Yes, I can do what I want.
C) Yes, any harm from the chaos that follows cannot be pinned on me.
D) Only at LAX.
The sum total of individual beliefs about political questions is called:
A) political ideology
B) political participation
C) public opinion
D) selective exposure
Polls conducted by news organizations that invite everyone to participate by phone, mail, or Internet are practically worthless because they:
A) Do not consist of a random sample
B) do not reach enough respondents
C) largely falsify the results to supports the current news story
D) reach only those people who have little knowledge of the issues
The tendency to seek out information sources that support one's existing belief system is called:
A) drop off
B) political socialization
C) roll-off
Which political ideology seeks to limit government across the board?
A) conservative
B) liberal
C) libertarian
D) moderate
Which political ideology seeks to limit government activity on economic issues and encourages more activity to promote traditional social values?
A) Liberal
B) Conservative
C) Libertarian
D) Moderate
Interest group maintain that one of their major contributions to deliberation is:
A) bringing suit against the government when major rights are endangered
B) directing the flow of donations to the proper officials
C) donating to campaigns
D) educating policymakers about their issues
Many interest groups encourage membership by:
A) advertising monetary gain for active members
B) coercing employers into hiring only group members
C) offering political favors to elected officials who bring in new members
D) providing selective incentives to members
Employees must join the union within a certain period in a:
A) closed shop
B) foundation
C) right to work industry
D) union shop
The National Rifle Association (NRA) is an example of a(n):
A) economic group
C) PAC
D) right to work industry
A lobbying tactic that enlists the help of those who may hold influence with lawmakers is a(n):
A) air war
B) grasstops operation
C) direct lobby
D) grassroots operation
In order to keep its members informed of the direction of policy in Congress, the AARP distributes:
A) lists of each politician's vote on key issues
B) policy packets to members of Congress
C) selective incentives to its members
D) voter registration cards
Which of the following can a Super PAC not do?
A) accept corporate contributions
B) run television ads
C) accept large individual contributions
D) contribute money to candidates
EMILY'S List is a PAC that often collects checks written directly to a candidate and then delivers them together to that candidate. This practice is called:
A) absorbing
B) bundling
C) connecting
D) funneling
In a recent case, an interest group hired lawyers to write a brief supplying the court with information and analysis. This brief is called a(n):
A) amicus curiae
B) ex post facto
C) lobby brief
D) PAC
What is the central difficulty in identifying foreign interests?
A) foreign interest typically align with American interests, so most issues are not clearly foreign or domestic
B) many American firms are financed by foreign nations
C) many American firms send much of their work overseas, and many foreign firms have large operations and workforces in the United States
D) many top executives of American firms are foreign citizens
The movement of parties away from each other and toward more extreme issue positions is called:
A) party caucusing
B) partisan polarization
C) partisan realignment
D) party identification
The granting of government jobs and favors to supporters is called:
A) partisan alignment
B) political patronage
C) bribery
D) political machines
What party arose in 1854 with an anti-slavery platform?
A) Democrats
B) Know-Nothings
C) Republicans
D) Progressives
Suppose a voter whose registration card is marked Republican feels a stronger attachment to the Democratic platform and tends to favor Democratic candidates. This leaning toward the Democratic Party is his party:
A) alignment
B) ballot
C) identification
D) registration
The president and the Speaker of the House are a part of the party:
A) affiliation
B) in Congress
C) in government
D) in the electorate
To what extent are members of the party in government bound by the party platform?
A) all members of the party in government sign the platform in acknowledgement of its planks, but they are not required to follow it.
B) certain plans of the platform require an oath of loyalty from members of the party in government
C) no member of the party in government must follow the platform
D) in order to retain the party label, all members of the party in government are bound to the entirety of the platform
The Australian ballot system used:
A) government printed ballots listing all candidates
B) open voting booths so each voter's choices were public
C) party ballots listing only the candidates from one party
D) political machines to get voters to the polls
An recent example of the spoiler effect occurred when:
A) Ralph Nader (Greens) took enough votes from Al Gore (Democrats) to give the election to Bush (Republican) in Florida.
B) Bernie Sanders (Democrat) took votes from Hillary Clinton (Democrat) in the primary
C) Donald Trump (Republican) won the Republican primary because the field was too crowded
D) Gary Johnson (Libertarian) took enough votes from Donald Trump (Republican) to swing the vote in Arizona to Hillary Clinton (Democrat).
The presidential race in which Jefferson defeated Adams was the world's first:
a) breakdown of government
b) defeat of an incumbent
c) democratically conducted national election
d) peaceful transfer of power as a result of a national election
Which of the following is NOT an example of a current third party in the United States is:
A) Green Party
B) American Independent Party
C) Libertarian Party
D) Free Democratic Party
Which is NOT a reason to have elections rather than the random selection of lawmakers?
A) election campaigns stimulate public deliberation
B) elections are less costly than random selection would be
C) elections foster more active citizenship
D) elections provide a way for the people to check and control their government
How might nonpartisan elections foster voter deliberation?
A) Each vote is made public, so the voters can discuss them.
B) the election is held after a town meeting in which citizens have discussed the issues
C) they require the voter to give an explanation of his or her vote
D) they force voters to weight the candidates' merits rather than their party labels
How many electoral votes are currently needed to elect the president and vice president?
A) 240
B) 270
C) 300
D) 420
A majority-minority district is based on:
A) district reporting measures
B) the racial identity of a majority of the potential voters
C) financial contributions within a state
D) merging ideas of the majority and minority
In mid-term election since 1934, the president's party has typically:
A) gained House seats
B) gained Senate seats
C) lost House seats
D) maintained its number of congressional seats
Early voting is response to the complaint that:
A) absentee votes are seldom counted
B) campaigns run too long
C) election officials are too vulnerable to corruption
D) voting on Election Day takes too much time
The effort to motivate supportive voter groups to turn out in higher numbers is called:
A) early voting
B) front-loading
C) mobilization
D) gerrymandering
In the case Buckley v. Valeo, the Supreme Court upheld contribution limits as a way to:
A) avoid real or apparent bribery
B) control campaign fraud
C) encourage political participation
D) level the playing field for third parties
What is one limit of the midterm policy effect?
A) new representatives chosen in midterm elections have little impact on the course of policies since there are only two years left in the president's term
B) presidents often prefer that Congress be controlled by the opposing party
C) the executive can misinterpret the public's intentions
D) the president still has enormous power over foreign policy and national security
Which of the following is NOT an example of convenience voting:
A) voting at a polling location prior to election day
B) voting online
C) voting through the mail prior to election day
D) absentee ballots filled out by U.S. military personnel overseas
Primaries became the most common method for selecting the party's nominee for president after:
A) the progressive reforms of the early 20th century
B) the populist movement at the turn of the 20th century
C) the formation of the FDR coalition
D) the McGovern-Fraser Reforms in the 1970s
Which contested election revamped concern with the mechanics of voting (ex: ballot style and placement of names):
A) Bush v. Gore in 2000
B) Romney v. Obama in 2012
C) Reagan v. Carter in 1980
D) Bush v. Clinton in 1992
Since California uses the long ballot system, which of the following offices will you NOT vote for in the June midterms?
A) Governor
B) U.S. Senate seat currently occupied by Dianne Feinstein
C) Attorney General
D) U.S. Senate seat currently occupied by Kamala Harris
Which group or body decides if California uses the winner-take-all system or the district system in the electoral college?
A) the governor
B) the U.S. Constitution
C) the state legislature
D) the state constitution
Which two states currently use the district system in the electoral college?
A) Nebraska and Utah
B) Kansas and Maine
C) Kansas and Utah
D) Nebraska and Maine
The sensational stories of sex and violence emphasized by Pulitzer and Hearst are early examples of:
A) agenda setting
B) embedded journalism
C) yellow journalism
D) framing
The process by which topics come up for deliberation in the political world is called:
B) embedding
C) framing
D) priming
In Gitlow v. New York the Supreme Court first ruled that:
A) Congress could not suppress radical newspapers
B) Congress has the power to regulate radical speech in times of war
C) the First Amendment applied to the states as well as the federal government
D) the First Amendment is applicable only to federal laws
The goal of an ombudsman is to:
A) check problems with accuracy, fairness, and taste in an organization's news coverage
B) ensure balanced reporting and adherence to the equal time rule
C) identify plagiarized articles
D) increase in-depth news coverage
The Federalist Papers were originally published as a:
A) book
B) memo to delegates at the Constitutional Convention
C) series of newspaper articles
D) series of pamphlets
Corporations who own several different kinds of media businesses are called:
A) embedded corporations
B) media conglomerates
C) muckrakers
D) networks
The process by which the media emphasize some issues over others, thereby affecting the standards by which people make political judgments is called:
B) framing
C) priming
D) horse race journalism
What reason do most journalists cite for entering their profession?
A) citizenship
B) economic gain
C) fame
D) exciting events
A specific issue, institution, or geographic region in which a journalist specializes is called a(n):
A) agenda
B) beat
C) editorial
D) wire
Dow Jones and Reuters are examples of:
A) foreign bureaus
B) wire services
C) journalists' unions
D) Wall Street investment firms
The federal program of health insurance for the elderly and disabled is called:
A) HMO
B) Medicare
C) Medicaid
D) Social Security
Which of the following programs is NOT one of FDR's New Deal programs?
A) Earned Income Tax Credit
B) Social Security
C) the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
D) the Public Works Administration
Which of the following is an example of a negative right?
A) job
B) an education
C) decent housing
D) free speech
President Eisenhower's term for Republican Party acceptance of social security, unemployment insurance, labor laws, farm programs, and other features of the welfare state was:
A) socialism
B) moderate Republicanism
C) liberal conservatism
D) modern Republicanism
The _____ Act was NOT a part of Johnson's expansion of the welfare state.
A) Economic Opportunity
B) National Defense of Education
C) Food Stamp
D) Medicare
Over the past 40 years, the percentage of Americans living in poverty, as measured by the federal government, has:
A) steadily declined
B) dropped by about half
C) remained steady within a narrow range
D) steadily increased
Among the following social programs, which increased the most since 1994?
A) Medicaid
B) Food Stamps
C) TANF
D) Earned Income Tax Credit
Which social programs in the United States present the greatest funding challenges for the coming decades?
A) Medicaid and Earned Income Tax Credit
B) Medicare and Social Security
C) Medicare and Food Stamps
D) Food Stamps and Social Security
Which of the following is NOT a provision of the Affordable Care Act, as passed by Congress in 2010?
A) funding for new public hospitals to serve the needs of those not poor enough for Medicaid but too poor to afford health insurance.
B) a requirement that health insurers accept those with preexisting conditions
C) funding to expand Medicare to all those with incomes up to 133% of the poverty line
D) a requirement that individuals purchase health insurance or pay a penalty.
Which of the following is NOT a type of school-choice program currently available in somewhere in the United States?
A) vouchers that allow all parents of school-age children within a state to send their child to a public or private school.
B) relatively autonomous public schools that are exempt from many state rules and often employ innovative teaching techniques
C) public schools that draw students from a wide area by specializing in such subjects as science, technology, or the performing arts.
D) policies that allow parents to enroll their children in any public school in the district if there is space.
Economic growth is usually measured through change in:
A) free-trade alliances
B) general population
C) gross domestic product
D) tax revenues
Although most wartime taxes of the Civil War were gone by the early 1870s, they set a precedent for:
A) a federal sales tax
B) stronger federal government
C) supply-side economics
D) the national bank
Once the president approves a budget proposal, it is submitted to:
A) Congress
B) the Federal Reserve
C) the Office of Management and Budget
D) the Secretary of the Treasury
The policy of erecting trade barriers to shield domestic business from international trade competition is called:
A) protectionism
B) isolationism
C) progressive policy
D) supply-side economics
Does Congress have to balance the federal budget each session?
B) Yes, thanks to the Balanced Budget Amendment
C) The budget must be rebalanced every 10 years
D) No, but the budget is always balanced anyways
Which entity has the primary responsibility for monetary policy in the United States?
A) The Executive Office of the Presidency
B) The Treasury Department
C) The Federal Reserve
D) The Senate Finance Committee
Offshoring is the practice by which:
A) Multinational firms delegate work to highly educated workers in the United States
B) American or multinational firms delegate work to lower-wage laborers overseas
C) America firms keep their bank accounts off of American soil to avoid taxes
D) American firms place their headquarters in another country to avoid taxes
NAFTA is the:
A) free trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico established in 1993 that ended most tariffs on trade between the three countries.
B) free trade agreement between the European Union and the United States established in 1993 that ended most tariffs on trade between the EU and the US.
C) free trade agreement between seventeen countries in the trans-pacific area that ended most tariffs on trade between the participating countries.
D) free trade agreement between the countries of North and South America establishing a giant free trade zone in the Western Hemisphere.
If the United States government spends 1.2 trillion dollars annually but only takes in 800 billion dollars in revenue, the budget deficit is:
A) 300 billion
B) 400 billion
C) 800 billion
D) 1.2 trillion
The power to declare war belongs exclusively to:
B) the Joint Chief of Staffs
C) the president
D) the National Security Council
How can the president bypass the Senate's power over treaties?
A) the president can negotiate executive agreements instead of treaties
B) the president can appeal to the Supreme Court to uphold a treaty without the consent of the Senate
C) the president can obtain a writ of consensus from the Senate before negotiating the treaty
D) the president can personally sign the treaty, in which case Senate approval is not necessary
The committee in the executive branch that advises the president on defense and foreign policy and coordinates government agencies on national security is called the:
A) Central Intelligence Committee
B) Department of Defense
C) Foreign Policy Advisory Committee
D) National Security Council
The fear that new conflicts could become long, bloody, and futile is often called:
A) isolationism
B) pragmatism
C) the Munich syndrome
D) the Vietnam syndrome
The long period of tension between the United States and the former Soviet Union is known as:
A) detente
B) the Cold War
C) the Gulf War
D) the Russo-American War
Strict scrutiny is a(n):
A) judicial doctrine that requires programs that impact a minority or fundamental rights must serve a compelling government interest and that the means it adopts are closely related and narrowly tailored to serve that interest.
B) a legislative doctrine that requires programs that impact a minority or fundamental rights must serve a compelling government interest and that the means it adopts are closely related and narrowly tailored to serve that interest.
C) the doctrine used to overturn Affirmative Action in 2003
D) the doctrine used to overturn Brown v. Board of Education
Who was Frederick Douglass?
A) a free born black man, orator, writer, and statesman who became a leader of the national abolition movement
B) a former slave, an orator, a writer, and a statesman who became a leader of the national abolition movement
C) the first black Supreme Court Justice
D) the first black member of the House of Representatives
In "What to a Slave is the 4th of July?", Douglass argues that:
A) The Constitution is a neutral document unconnected to the principles of the Declaration of Independence
B) The Constitution betrayed the principles of the Declaration of Independence
C) The Constitution was never a pro-slavery document and, in fact, is based on principles entirely hostile to the existence of slavery
D) The Constitution was never intended to apply to African Americans, whether slave or free.
In his Letter from Birmingham Jail, Martin Luther King Jr. argues that:
A) members of the Civil Rights movement should seek change through the court system
B) black nationalist ideologies are the best chance for change
C) the Civil Rights Movement should use non-violent direct action to create change
D) civil disobedience is not justified in the face of unjust laws
