Alejandro Castillo
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Aviacion (Examen ) Quiz on ATP EASA Qatar Yellow 2, created by Alejandro Castillo on 22/05/2018.

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Alejandro Castillo
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ATP EASA Qatar Yellow 2

Question 1 of 200

1

31.2.1.3 (1565)
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg
including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is
12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:

Select one of the following:

  • 65200 kg.

  • 78000 kg

  • 79000 kg

  • 93000 kg

Explanation

Question 2 of 200

1

31.2.1.4 (1567)
'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass
of a child as

Select one of the following:

  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
    occupying a seat.

  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
    not occupying a seat.

  • 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.

  • 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.

Explanation

Question 3 of 200

1

31.2.1.4 (1567)
'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass
of a child as

Select one of the following:

  • 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat

  • 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.

  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
    occupying a seat.

  • 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
    not occupying a seat.

Explanation

Question 4 of 200

1

31.2.1.4 (1568)
On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use
standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is
not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is

Select one of the following:

  • 76 kg

  • 84 kg

  • 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).

  • 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).

Explanation

Question 5 of 200

1

31.2.1.4 (1569)
The standard mass for a child is

Select one of the following:

  • 35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.

  • 38 kg for all flights.

  • 35 kg for all flights.

  • 30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.

Explanation

Question 6 of 200

1

31.2.1.4 (1571)
In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to
use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are

Select one of the following:

  • flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage
    allowance.
    c) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an
    allowance for hand baggage.

  • flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an
    allowance for hand baggage.p

  • light crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand
    baggage allowance.

  • flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an
    allowance for hand baggage.

Explanation

Question 7 of 200

1

31.2.1.5 (1577)
The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:

Select one of the following:

  • Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel

  • Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load

  • Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load

  • Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel

Explanation

Question 8 of 200

1

31.2.1.5 (1578)
Traffic load is the:

Select one of the following:

  • Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass

  • Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load

  • Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.

  • Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.

Explanation

Question 9 of 200

1

31.2.1.5 (1579)
The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes

Select one of the following:

  • the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.

  • traffic load plus useable fuel.

  • the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.

  • traffic load only.

Explanation

Question 10 of 200

1

31.2.1.5 (1580)
An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry
Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off
mass is 64280 kg the useful load is

Select one of the following:

  • 29280 kg.

  • 17080 kg

  • 12200 kg.

  • 10080 kg.

Explanation

Question 11 of 200

1

31.2.1.5 (1588)
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:-
Block fuel: 40 000 kg- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off
mass: 170 000 kg- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass:
112 500 kg- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kgThe maximum traffic load for this flight
is:

Select one of the following:

  • 18 900 kg

  • 32 100 kg

  • 32 900 kg

  • 40 400 kg

Explanation

Question 12 of 200

1

31.2.1.5 (1589)
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Dry
operating mass: 90 000 kg- Block fuel: 30 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum
take-off mass: 145 000 kgThe traffic load available for this flight is:

Select one of the following:

  • 25 000 kg

  • 25 800 kg

  • 55 000 kg

  • 55 800 kg

Explanation

Question 13 of 200

1

31.2.1.5 (1590)
An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zerofuel
mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.The
payload available is :

Select one of the following:

  • 1 550 kg

  • 1 600 kg

  • 2 150 kg

  • 2 200 kg

Explanation

Question 14 of 200

1

31.2.2.0 (1591)
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18
000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass?

Select one of the following:

  • 53 000 kg

  • 64 000 kg

  • 71 000 kg

  • 99 000 kg

Explanation

Question 15 of 200

1

31.2.2.1 (1593)
An aeroplane may be weighed

Select one of the following:

  • in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.

  • at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.

  • in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar

  • in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance

Explanation

Question 16 of 200

1

31.2.2.2 (1595)
If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior
to initial entry into service and thereafter

Select one of the following:

  • at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.

  • at regular annual intervals.

  • at intervals of 9 years.

  • only if major modifications have taken place.

Explanation

Question 17 of 200

1

31.2.3.4 (1602)
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating
Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus

Select one of the following:

  • Take-off Fuel Mass

  • Ramp Fuel Mass.

  • rip Fuel Mass.

  • Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.

Explanation

Question 18 of 200

1

31.2.3.5 (1608)
Given:Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kgMaximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400
kgMaximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kgMaximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kgTrip
fuel= 4 000 kgFuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kgThe maximum traffic load
is:

Select one of the following:

  • 9 300 kg

  • 12 900 kg

  • 13 300 kg

  • 14 600 kg

Explanation

Question 19 of 200

1

31.2.3.5 (1609)
Given the following :- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg- Maximum
structural landing mass: 44 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg-Taxi fuel:
600 kg-Contingency fuel: 900 kg-Alternate fuel: 800 kg-Final reserve fuel: 1 100kg-Trip fuel: 9 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:

Select one of the following:

  • 47 800 kg

  • 48 000 kg

  • 48 400 kg

  • 53 000 kg

Explanation

Question 20 of 200

1

31.2.3.5 (1621)
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69
300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740
kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34
930 kgTrip Fuel: 11 500 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450
kgAlternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

Select one of the following:

  • 17 810 kg

  • 21 070 kg

  • 20 420 kg

  • 21 170 kg

Explanation

Question 21 of 200

1

31.2.3.5 (1624)
The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off
runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel
consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000
kgKnowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing
mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry
operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may
decide to load on board is:

Select one of the following:

  • 54 000 kg

  • 55 000 kg

  • 55 500 kg

  • 61 500 kg

Explanation

Question 22 of 200

1

31.2.3.5 (1625)
To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:

Select one of the following:

  • Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take-off.

  • Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn.

  • Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn.

  • Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn.

Explanation

Question 23 of 200

1

31.2.4.1 (1629)
Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density
of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are
carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is

Select one of the following:

  • lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high

  • lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low

  • heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high

  • heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.

Explanation

Question 24 of 200

1

31.2.4.1 (1632)
When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the
following is true?

Select one of the following:

  • Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.

  • Flight endurance will be increased.

  • Stalling speeds will be higher.

  • Stalling speeds will be lower.

Explanation

Question 25 of 200

1

31.2.4.4 (1634)
If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle
of attack will

Select one of the following:

  • remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.

  • remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.

  • be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.

  • be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.

Explanation

Question 26 of 200

1

31.2.4.4 (1635)
In order to provide an adequate ""buffet boundary"" at the commencement of the
cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots.
If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be

Select one of the following:

  • increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will
    remain the same.

  • unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.

  • increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will
    decrease

  • increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.

Explanation

Question 27 of 200

1

31.3.1.1 (1643)
The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its
precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located

Select one of the following:

  • at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system.

  • at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane.

  • at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.

  • at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 28 of 200

1

31.3.1.3 (1653)
A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the
present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10
m/s^2)The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :

Select one of the following:

  • 30000 Nm

  • 50000 Nm

  • 80000 Nm

  • 130000 Nmg

Explanation

Question 29 of 200

1

31.3.2.2 (1669)
Given:Total mass: 7500 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit
station: 79.5How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at
station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the
cg location to the aft limit?

Select one of the following:

  • 62.5 kg.

  • 65.8 kg.

  • 68.9 kg.

  • 73.5 kg.

Explanation

Question 30 of 200

1

31.3.2.4 (1717)
Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo:
-0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its
centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass
has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?

Select one of the following:

  • 104 kg

  • 110 kg

  • 165 kg

  • 183 kg

Explanation

Question 31 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1724)
Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

Select one of the following:

  • is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.

  • is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to
    have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .

  • is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a
    decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.

  • is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).

Explanation

Question 32 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1726)
Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.

  • nduced drag increases with increasing speed.

  • Induced drag is independant of the speed.

  • Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

Explanation

Question 33 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1734)
The speed VS is defined as

Select one of the following:

  • safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.

  • stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
    controllable.

  • design stress speed

  • speed for best specific range.

Explanation

Question 34 of 200

1

2.1.1.0 (1733)
The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by

Select one of the following:

  • increasing the CAS.

  • increasing the angle of attack.

  • increasing the TAS.

  • decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.

Explanation

Question 35 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1735)
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as

Select one of the following:

  • VS

  • VS1

  • VSO

  • VMC

Explanation

Question 36 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1738)
The rate of climb

Select one of the following:

  • is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.

  • is the downhill component of the true airspeed.

  • is the horizontal component of the true airspeed

  • is angle of climb times true airspeed.

Explanation

Question 37 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1742)
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on

Select one of the following:

  • the radius of the turn and the bank angle.

  • the true airspeed and the bank angle.

  • the bank angle only.

  • the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

Explanation

Question 38 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1743)
The induced drag of an aeroplane

Select one of the following:

  • decreases with increasing gross weight.

  • decreases with increasing airspeed.

  • is independent of the airspeed.

  • increases with increasing airspeed

Explanation

Question 39 of 200

1

32.1.1.0 (1744)
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest
at

Select one of the following:

  • VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)

  • VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)

  • VMO (maximum operating limit speed)

  • VA (design manoeuvring speed)

Explanation

Question 40 of 200

1

32.1.2.1 (1750)
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:

Select one of the following:

  • a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

  • an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

  • an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

  • a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance0

Explanation

Question 41 of 200

1

32.1.3.0 (1767)
A higher outside air temperature

Select one of the following:

  • increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

  • does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.

  • reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

  • reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

Explanation

Question 42 of 200

1

32.1.3.0 (1767)
A higher outside air temperature

Select one of the following:

  • increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

  • does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.

  • reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

  • reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

Explanation

Question 43 of 200

1

32.1.3.0 (1768)
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind
condition, (assuming IAS is constant)

Select one of the following:

  • does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.

  • improves angle and rate of climb.

  • has no effect on rate of climb.

  • decreases angle and rate of climb.

Explanation

Question 44 of 200

1

32.1.3.3 (1786)
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?

Select one of the following:

  • Tailwind only effects holding speed.

  • The IAS will be increased.

  • The IAS will be decreased.

  • No affect

Explanation

Question 45 of 200

1

32.2.1.1 (1788)
The critical engine inoperative

Select one of the following:

  • increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the
    windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect

  • does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.

  • decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.

  • increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.

Explanation

Question 46 of 200

1

32.2.1.1 (1790)
The speed V1 is defined as

Select one of the following:

  • take-off climb speed.

  • speed for best angle of climb.

  • take-off decision speed.

  • engine failure speed.

Explanation

Question 47 of 200

1

32.2.1.1 (1792)
VX is

Select one of the following:

  • the speed for best rate of climb.

  • the speed for best angle of climb.

  • the speed for best specific range.

  • the speed for best angle of flight path.

Explanation

Question 48 of 200

1

32.2.1.1 (1793)
The speed for best rate of climb is called

Select one of the following:

  • VX.

  • VY.

  • V2

  • VO

Explanation

Question 49 of 200

1

32.2.2.1 (1794)
Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?

Select one of the following:

  • Lift-off IAS.

  • Lift-off TAS.

  • Lift-off groundspeed.

  • Lift-off EAS.

Explanation

Question 50 of 200

1

32.2.2.2 (1798)
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb
performance ?

Select one of the following:

  • High temperature and low relative humidity

  • Low temperature and low relative humidity

  • High temperature and high relative humidity

  • Low temperature and high relative humidity

Explanation

Question 51 of 200

1

32.2.2.2 (1799)
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope

Select one of the following:

  • decreases the take-off speed V1.

  • decreases the TAS for take-off.

  • increases the IAS for take-off.

  • has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

Explanation

Question 52 of 200

1

32.2.2.2 (1802)
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be

Select one of the following:

  • lower.

  • higher.

  • unaffected.

  • only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

Explanation

Question 53 of 200

1

32.2.2.2 (1804)
Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for takeoff
?

Select one of the following:

  • Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind
    components.

  • Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind
    components.

  • Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and
    wind components.

  • Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind
    components.

Explanation

Question 54 of 200

1

32.2.2.2 (1806)
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature

Select one of the following:

  • decreases the field length limited take-off mass.

  • increases the climb limited take-off mass.

  • decreases the take-off distance.

  • has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

Explanation

Question 55 of 200

1

32.2.3.1 (1817)
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses
35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:

Select one of the following:

  • a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

  • a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance

  • an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance

  • an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

Explanation

Question 56 of 200

1

32.2.3.1 (1819)
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet
runway, the landing distance must be increased by:

Select one of the following:

  • 5%

  • 10%

  • 15%

  • 20%

Explanation

Question 57 of 200

1

32.2.3.2 (1828)
In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting
on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)

Select one of the following:

  • T - W sin GAMMA = D

  • T - D = W sin GAMMA

  • T + W sin GAMMA = D

  • T + D = - W sin GAMMA

Explanation

Question 58 of 200

1

32.2.3.2 (1829)
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the
forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent
/ Glide angle / CL/CD ratio

Select one of the following:

  • increases / increases / decreases

  • decreases / constant / decreases

  • increases / increases / constant

  • increases / constant / increases

Explanation

Question 59 of 200

1

32.2.3.2 (1832)
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?

Select one of the following:

  • Decrease of aircraft mass

  • Increase of aircraft mass.

  • Tailwind.

  • Headwind.

Explanation

Question 60 of 200

1

32.2.3.2 (1833)
Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?

Select one of the following:

  • Low mass

  • High mass.

  • Headwind.

  • Tailwind.

Explanation

Question 61 of 200

1

32.2.3.3 (1844)
The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:

Select one of the following:

  • The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag

  • The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.

  • The thrust is equal to minimum drag

  • The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.

Explanation

Question 62 of 200

1

32.2.3.3 (1846)
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No
compressibility effects.

Select one of the following:

  • The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

  • The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.

  • The lift coefficient is independant of altitude

  • Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude

Explanation

Question 63 of 200

1

32.2.3.3 (1847)
The optimum altitude

Select one of the following:

  • decreases as mass decreases.

  • is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum

  • increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range
    reaches its maximum.

  • is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained

Explanation

Question 64 of 200

1

32.2.3.3 (1849)
The absolute ceiling

Select one of the following:

  • can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed

  • is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.

  • is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%

  • is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.

Explanation

Question 65 of 200

1

32.2.3.3 (1850)
The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling,
based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250
kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:

Select one of the following:

  • less than 4 000 m.

  • higher than 4 000 m.

  • unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.

  • only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than
    4 000 m.¹úw

Explanation

Question 66 of 200

1

32.3.1.0 (1858)
Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives
will decrease the take-off ground run?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass.

  • Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.

  • Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.

  • Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.

Explanation

Question 67 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1860)
During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real
take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with
failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The
take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

Select one of the following:

  • 1547 m.

  • 1720 m.

  • 1779 m.

  • 1978 m.

Explanation

Question 68 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1868)
Which statement is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used

  • The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off
    massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass.

  • The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air
    temperature

  • The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.

Explanation

Question 69 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1871)
The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by:

Select one of the following:

  • 10%

  • 15%

  • 20%

  • 30%

Explanation

Question 70 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1875)
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater
than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed
immediatly above the correct value of V1?

Select one of the following:

  • The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.

  • V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.

  • It may lead to over-rotation.

  • The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.

Explanation

Question 71 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1877)
Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.

  • VR should not be higher than V1.

  • VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.

  • VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.

Explanation

Question 72 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1878)
Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an
aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and
allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be
capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........

Select one of the following:

  • (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

  • (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.

  • (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.

  • (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

Explanation

Question 73 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1893)
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?

Select one of the following:

  • Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has
    failed.

  • The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA

  • The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient

  • VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

Explanation

Question 74 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1894)
Which of the following will decrease V1?

Select one of the following:

  • Inoperative anti-skid.

  • Increased take-off mass.

  • Inoperative flight management system.

  • Increased outside air temperature.

Explanation

Question 75 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1895)
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1

Select one of the following:

  • the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.

  • the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.

  • the take-off must be rejected.

  • the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.

Explanation

Question 76 of 200

1

32.3.1.1 (1896)
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1

Select one of the following:

  • the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF

  • a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.

  • the take-off must be continued.

  • the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.

Explanation

Question 77 of 200

1

32.3.1.2 (1901)
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors
remain constant and not limiting?

Select one of the following:

  • Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.

  • A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.

  • A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

  • An uphill slope increases take-off mass

Explanation

Question 78 of 200

1

32.3.1.2 (1902)
Uphill slope

Select one of the following:

  • increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.

  • decreases the accelerate stop distance only.

  • decreases the take-off distance only.

  • increases the allowed take-off mass.

Explanation

Question 79 of 200

1

32.3.1.3 (1906)
The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass
(TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is
the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

  • Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

  • Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

  • Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

Explanation

Question 80 of 200

1

32.3.1.3 (1908)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:


Select one of the following:

  • windshear is reported on the take-off path.

  • it is dark.

  • he runway is dry.

  • the runway is wet

Explanation

Question 81 of 200

1

32.3.1.3 (1910)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:


Select one of the following:

  • the runway is contaminated.

  • it is dark.

  • the runway is wet

  • obstacles are present close to the end of the runway

Explanation

Question 82 of 200

1

32.3.1.3 (1906)
The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass
(TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is
the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?

Select one of the following:

  • Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

  • Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

  • Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

  • Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM

Explanation

Question 83 of 200

1

32.3.1.3 (1912)
Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field
    length limited take-off mass.

  • Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.

  • In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.

  • Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.

Explanation

Question 84 of 200

1

32.3.1.3 (1914)
Reduced take-off thrust

Select one of the following:

  • can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off
    mass.

  • is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).

  • can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.;

  • has the benefit of improving engine life.

Explanation

Question 85 of 200

1

32.3.1.4 (1915)
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is decreased?

Select one of the following:

  • It will increase the take-off distance required.

  • It will decrease the take-off distance required.

  • It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

  • It will increase the take-off ground run.

Explanation

Question 86 of 200

1

32.3.1.4 (1916)
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is increased?

Select one of the following:

  • It will decrease the take-off distance.

  • It will increase the take-off distance.

  • It will increase the take-off distance available.

  • It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.

Explanation

Question 87 of 200

1

32.3.1.4 (1919)
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure
altitude affect allowable take-off mass?

Select one of the following:

  • Allowable take-off mass increases.

  • There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.

  • Allowable take-off mass decreases.

  • Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.

Explanation

Question 88 of 200

1

32.3.1.4 (1920)
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is
correct?

Select one of the following:

  • he greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be
    decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.

  • The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of
    calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.

  • Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance

  • A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for
    contaminated runway is available

Explanation

Question 89 of 200

1

32.3.1.5 (1927)
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre
speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?

Select one of the following:

  • VR

  • VMCA

  • VREF

  • V2

Explanation

Question 90 of 200

1

32.3.2.0 (1935)
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?

Select one of the following:

  • The accelerate stop distance decreases.

  • Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.

  • The accelerate stop distance increases.

  • It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance

Explanation

Question 91 of 200

1

32.3.2.2 (1941)
Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what
reason?

Select one of the following:

  • Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a
    rejected take-off.

  • To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.

  • To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.

  • o ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

Explanation

Question 92 of 200

1

32.3.2.2 (1943)
Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre
speed limited take-off?

Select one of the following:

  • A low runway elevation and a cross wind.

  • A high runway elevation and a head wind.

  • A high runway elevation and tail wind.

  • A low runway elevation and a head wind.

Explanation

Question 93 of 200

1

32.3.2.2 (1944)
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:

Select one of the following:

  • VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.

  • VLOF in terms of ground speed.

  • V1 in kt TAS.

  • V1 in kt ground speed.

Explanation

Question 94 of 200

1

32.3.3.1 (1951)
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the
take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear
down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the
take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to
V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to
V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:

Select one of the following:

  • 1, 4, 6, 9

  • 1, 4, 5, 10

  • 2, 3, 6, 9

  • 1, 5, 8, 10

Explanation

Question 95 of 200

1

32.3.3.1 (1957)
Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane,
is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb

  • The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.

  • On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb
    limited.\x

  • 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off
    mass

Explanation

Question 96 of 200

1

32.3.3.1 (1963)
On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient
of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a
mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and
assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what
maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?

Select one of the following:

  • 102150 kg

  • 118455 kg

  • 121310 kg

  • 106425 kg

Explanation

Question 97 of 200

1

32.3.3.4 (1968)
An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The
half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at
least:

Select one of the following:

  • 0.125D

  • -90m + 1.125D

  • 90m + 0.125D

  • 90m + D/0.125

Explanation

Question 98 of 200

1

32.3.4.2 (1983)
A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will
the climb angle / the pitch angle change?

Select one of the following:

  • Remain constant / decrease.

  • Reduce / decrease.

  • Reduce / remain constant.

  • Remain constant / become larger

Explanation

Question 99 of 200

1

32.3.4.2 (1992)
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb

Select one of the following:

  • VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.

  • VX is always above VY.

  • VX is always below VY.

  • VY is always above VMO.

Explanation

Question 100 of 200

1

32.3.5.1 (1997)
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the
""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph?


Select one of the following:

  • Aerodynamics.

  • Theoretical ceiling.

  • Service ceiling.

  • Economy

Explanation

Question 101 of 200

1

32.3.5.1 (2000)
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin

Select one of the following:

  • is dependent on the OAT.

  • is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.

  • is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation

  • is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.

Explanation

Question 102 of 200

1

32.3.5.1 (2001)
Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?

Select one of the following:

  • Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only

  • To respect ATC flight level constraints

  • To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.

  • Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be
    expected

Explanation

Question 103 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2007)
For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific
range?

Select one of the following:

  • Increases.

  • Decreases.

  • Does not change.

  • Increases only if there is no wind

Explanation

Question 104 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2009)
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:

Select one of the following:

  • a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.

  • an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.

  • a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher
    cruise speed

  • a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed

Explanation

Question 105 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2011)
Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered
to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft
is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the
second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:

Select one of the following:

  • 3804 kg/h

  • 3365 kg/h.

  • 4044 kg/h

  • 3578 kg/h.

Explanation

Question 106 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2012)
A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow
change?

Select one of the following:

  • Increase / decrease.

  • Increase / increase.

  • Decrease / increase

  • Decrease / decrease

Explanation

Question 107 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2019)
The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two
airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?

Select one of the following:

  • Maximum range.

  • Maximum endurance.

  • Holding.

  • Long range.

Explanation

Question 108 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2020)
Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?

Select one of the following:

  • In order to achieve speed stability.

  • he aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed

  • In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

  • It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed

Explanation

Question 109 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2021)
""Maximum endurance""

Select one of the following:

  • can be flown in a steady climb only.

  • can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight

  • is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption.

  • is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction

Explanation

Question 110 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2026)
Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude
and airspeed remain unchanged)

Select one of the following:

  • decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.

  • increases the power required.

  • increases the induced drag.

  • affects neither drag nor power required.

Explanation

Question 111 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2028)
The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet

Select one of the following:

  • decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.

  • is only limiting at low altitudes

  • narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude

  • increases with increasing mass

Explanation

Question 112 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2029)
The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet

Select one of the following:

  • limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.

  • can be reduced by increasing the load factor.

  • has to be considered at take-off and landing.?

  • exists only above MMO.

Explanation

Question 113 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2038)
The optimum cruise altitude is

Select one of the following:

  • the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved

  • the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum

  • the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.

  • the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.

Explanation

Question 114 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2039)
The optimum cruise altitude increases

Select one of the following:

  • if the temperature (OAT) is increased

  • if the aeroplane mass is decreased.

  • if the aeroplane mass is increased

  • if the tailwind component is decreased.

Explanation

Question 115 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2040)
Below the optimum cruise altitude

Select one of the following:

  • the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude

  • the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

  • the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing
    altitude

  • the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude

Explanation

Question 116 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2041)
Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than
the optimum altitude ?

Select one of the following:

  • If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more
    tailwind can be expected.

  • If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude

  • If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).

  • If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.

Explanation

Question 117 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2042)
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence
of the fuel consumption. The result is:

Select one of the following:

  • The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.

  • The specific range and the optimum altitude increases

  • The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.

  • The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases

Explanation

Question 118 of 200

1

32.3.5.2 (2043)
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight

Select one of the following:

  • the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.

  • the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command

  • the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.

  • the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.

Explanation

Question 119 of 200

1

32.3.5.3 (2046)
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :

Select one of the following:

  • 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine
    inoperative.

  • 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with
    one engine inoperative

  • 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed

  • 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the
    second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

Explanation

Question 120 of 200

1

32.3.5.3 (2049)
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a
high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate
airspeed must be the airspeed

Select one of the following:

  • of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.

  • giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.

  • for long-range cruise.

  • giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.

Explanation

Question 121 of 200

1

32.3.5.3 (2050)
The drift down requirements are based on:

Select one of the following:

  • the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine
    has failed.

  • the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.

  • the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.

  • the landing mass limit at the alternate

Explanation

Question 122 of 200

1

32.3.5.3 (2052)
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly
the speed corresponding to:

Select one of the following:

  • the critical Mach number.

  • the minimum drag

  • the maximum lift

  • the minimum angle of descent

Explanation

Question 123 of 200

1

After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What
is the procedure which should be applied?


Select one of the following:

  • ETOPS.

  • Drift Down Procedure

  • Emergency Descent Procedure.

  • Long Range Cruise Descent

Explanation

Question 124 of 200

1

32.3.5.3 (2054)
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied

Select one of the following:

  • to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate

  • to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available

  • after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum
    altitude

  • after cabin depressurization

Explanation

Question 125 of 200

1

32.3.5.4 (2058)
The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:

Select one of the following:

  • obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude

  • engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs

  • climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude

  • weight during landing at the alternate

Explanation

Question 126 of 200

1

32.3.6.1 (2061)
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:

Select one of the following:

  • decrease

  • increaseincrease at first and decrease later on

  • increase at first and decrease later on

  • remain constant

Explanation

Question 127 of 200

1

32.3.6.1 (2062)
An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number,
and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of
descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle
thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.

Select one of the following:

  • Increases in the first part, decreases in the second

  • Increases in the first part, is constant in the second.

  • Decreases in the first part, increases in the second

  • Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second.

Explanation

Question 128 of 200

1

32.3.6.1 (2065)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to
drag ratio speed?

Select one of the following:

  • The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent

  • The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.

  • The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.

  • The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.

Explanation

Question 129 of 200

1

32.3.6.1 (2066)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to
drag ratio speed?

Select one of the following:

  • A tailwind component increases the ground distance

  • A headwind component increases the ground distance

  • A tailwind component decreases the ground distance

  • A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.

Explanation

Question 130 of 200

1

32.3.6.3 (2070)
The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will
achieve:

Select one of the following:

  • minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine
    inoperative.

  • manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.

  • manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

  • obstacle clearance in the approach area.

Explanation

Question 131 of 200

1

32.3.6.3 (2073)
To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:

Select one of the following:

  • use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.

  • postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

  • make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as
    quickly as possible

  • use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.

Explanation

Question 132 of 200

1

32.3.6.3 (2074)
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing
reference speed (VREF):

Select one of the following:

  • Increasing VREF

  • Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.

  • Lowering VREF

  • Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.

Explanation

Question 133 of 200

1

32.3.6.3 (2075)
What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed
VREF?

Select one of the following:

  • 1,05 VSO

  • 1,30 VSO

  • 1,10 VSO

  • VMCA x 1,2

Explanation

Question 134 of 200

1

32.3.6.3 (2078)
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by

Select one of the following:

  • the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration

  • the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.

  • the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.

  • the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach
    configuration

Explanation

Question 135 of 200

1

32.3.6.3 (2082)
The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:

Select one of the following:

  • manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.

  • obstacle clearance in the approach area.

  • minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.

  • manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating

Explanation

Question 136 of 200

1

33.1.1.1 (2088)
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less
than

Select one of the following:

  • 500 ft above the heighest obstacle

  • the heighest obstacle.

  • 1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

  • 2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.

Explanation

Question 137 of 200

1

33.1.1.4 (2110)
An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A to B and back to A.
Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind
component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant.The duration of the flight will be:

Select one of the following:

  • 2h 35min

  • 3h 00min

  • 2h 10min

  • 2h 32min

Explanation

Question 138 of 200

1

33.1.1.4 (2113)
Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the time to reach the cruising
level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM component of 60kt ?
(zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind

Select one of the following:

  • 193 NM

  • 228 NM

  • 157 NM

  • 128 NM

Explanation

Question 139 of 200

1

33.1.2.0 (2116)
You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following
conditions :- dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- payload : 400 kgmaximum
take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg

Select one of the following:

  • 1000 kg

  • 700 kg

  • 800 kg

  • 500 kg

Explanation

Question 140 of 200

1

33.1.2.0 (2117)
The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative
density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:

Select one of the following:

  • 200 kg/h

  • 213 kg/h

  • 267 kg/h

  • 188 kg/h

Explanation

Question 141 of 200

1

33.1.2.1 (2124)
In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in
order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant
during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the
descent at a distance from MAN of:

Select one of the following:

  • 110 NM

  • 130 NM

  • 140 NM

  • 120 NM

Explanation

Question 142 of 200

1

33.1.2.2 (2150)
Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983
kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at
alternate should be :

Select one of the following:

  • 42093 kg.

  • 42210 kg.

  • 42195 kg.

  • 42312 kg.

Explanation

Question 143 of 200

1

33.1.2.3 (2158)
In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome
is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:

Select one of the following:

  • 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B

  • 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A

  • 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A

  • 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B

Explanation

Question 144 of 200

1

33.1.3.2 (2171)
A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of
65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons.
Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US
gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40
US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel
consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ?

Select one of the following:

  • At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks

  • The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact

  • At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons

  • At destination the required reserves remain intact.cep

Explanation

Question 145 of 200

1

33.2.1.1 (2182)
A ""current flight plan"" is a :

Select one of the following:

  • filed flight plan.

  • filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.

  • flight plan with the correct time of departure.

  • flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between
    aeroplane and ATC.

Explanation

Question 146 of 200

1

33.2.1.1 (2187)
In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the
departure time entered is the :

Select one of the following:

  • estimated time over the first point en route

  • estimated take-off time

  • estimated off-block time

  • allocated slot time

Explanation

Question 147 of 200

1

33.2.1.1 (2188)
In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach
number, cruising speed is expressed as :

Select one of the following:

  • IAS

  • TAS

  • CAS

  • Groundspeed

Explanation

Question 148 of 200

1

33.2.1.1 (2196)
An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating
at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence
category is :

Select one of the following:

  • heavy ""H""

  • heavy/medium ""H/M""

  • medium ""M""

  • medium plus ""M+""

Explanation

Question 149 of 200

1

33.2.1.1 (2197)
For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an
aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :

Select one of the following:

  • medium ""M""

  • heavy ""H""

  • light ""L""

  • unclassified ""U""

Explanation

Question 150 of 200

1

33.2.1.1 (2201)
When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to
be expressed in :

Select one of the following:

  • Central European Time

  • local standard time

  • UTC

  • Local mean time

Explanation

Question 151 of 200

1

33.2.2.0 (2216)
When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category.
This category is a function of which mass?

Select one of the following:

  • estimated take-off mass

  • maximum certified take-off mass

  • maximum certified landing mass

  • actual take-off mass

Explanation

Question 152 of 200

1

33.2.2.0 (2219)
In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time
corresponding to:

Select one of the following:

  • the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes

  • the total usable fuel on board

  • the required fuel for the flight

  • the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel

Explanation

Question 153 of 200

1

33.2.2.1 (2222)
The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35minTaxi fuel: 3
kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:

Select one of the following:

  • 1h 35min

  • 2h 04min

  • 2h 52min

  • 2h 49min

Explanation

Question 154 of 200

1

33.2.3.1 (2224)
How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the
case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?

Select one of the following:

  • 1:00 hour.

  • 0:30 hours.

  • 0:10 hours.

  • 3:00 hours.

Explanation

Question 155 of 200

1

33.2.3.1 (2228)
For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:

Select one of the following:

  • the time of take-off.

  • the estimated off-block time

  • the time at which the flight plan is filed.

  • the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off.

Explanation

Question 156 of 200

1

33.2.3.3 (2229)
From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan
notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is
to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the
Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border
flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying water

Select one of the following:

  • 1+5

  • 2+4

  • 1+2+3

  • 3+4+5

Explanation

Question 157 of 200

1

33.2.5.1 (2231)
When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan
should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by
:

Select one of the following:

  • 30 minutes or more

  • 45 minutes or more

  • 60 minutes or more

  • 90 minutes or more

Explanation

Question 158 of 200

1

33.3.2.1 (2244)
The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30
minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?

Select one of the following:

  • 174 NM

  • 203 NM

  • 193 NM

  • 188 NM

Explanation

Question 159 of 200

1

33.4.1.3 (2292)
A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 =Which of the following
information is contained in this METAR ?

Select one of the following:

  • Temperature/dewpoint

  • runway in use

  • period of validity

  • day/month

Explanation

Question 160 of 200

1

33.4.2.4 (2339)
An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that:

Select one of the following:

  • the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft

  • the airway base is 3500 ft MSL

  • The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft

  • the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL

Explanation

Question 161 of 200

1

33.4.2.4 (2343)
An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that:

Select one of the following:

  • 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).

  • the airway base is 1500 ft MSL.

  • the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80.

  • the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80.

Explanation

Question 162 of 200

1

33.4.2.4 (2345)
An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the :

c) d) base of the airway (AGL)w

Select one of the following:

  • minimum enroute altitude (MEA)

  • maximum authorised altitude (MAA)

  • minimum holding altitude (MHA)

  • base of the airway (AGL)base of the airway (AGL)

Explanation

Question 163 of 200

1

33.4.2.5 (2347)
Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes
are given with:

Select one of the following:

  • magnetic headings

  • true course

  • magnetic course

  • true headings

Explanation

Question 164 of 200

1

33.4.3.1 (2361)
From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known
short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?

Select one of the following:

  • NOTAM

  • AIP (Air Information Publication)

  • SIGMET

  • ATCC broadcasts

Explanation

Question 165 of 200

1

33.4.3.1 (2363)
From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and
Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ?

Select one of the following:

  • ATCC broadcasts

  • SIGMET

  • NOTAM

  • AIP (Air Information Publication)

Explanation

Question 166 of 200

1

33.4.3.1 (2364)
From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL)
regarding customs and health formalities ?

Select one of the following:

  • NAV/RAD charts

  • AIP (Air Information Publication)

  • ATCC

  • NOTAM

Explanation

Question 167 of 200

1

33.4.3.2 (2371)
On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the
following information ""80"". This means that within this quadrant:

Select one of the following:

  • the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft

  • the minimum flight level is FL 80

  • the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft

  • the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft

Explanation

Question 168 of 200

1

33.4.3.2 (2382)
On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in
relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on
distance, this altitude is valid to:

Select one of the following:

  • 20 NM

  • 10 NM

  • 25 NM

  • 15 NM

Explanation

Question 169 of 200

1

33.5.1.1 (2395)
The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:

Select one of the following:

  • 30 min

  • 45 min

  • 60 min

  • Variable with wind velocity.

Explanation

Question 170 of 200

1

33.5.1.1 (2396)
The purpose of the decision point procedure is ?

Select one of the following:

  • To increase the safety of the flight.

  • To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.

  • To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the
    traffic load.

  • To increase the amount of extra fuel.

Explanation

Question 171 of 200

1

33.5.1.1 (2397)
When using decision point procedure, you reduce the

Select one of the following:

  • contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision
    point and destination.

  • contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport
    and destination.

  • reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%.
    

  • holding fuel by 30%

Explanation

Question 172 of 200

1

33.5.1.1 (2399)
Mark the correct statement:If a decision point procedure is applied for flight
planning,

Select one of the following:

  • the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute
    alternate.

  • the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision
    point.

  • the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the
    decision point.

  • a destination alternate is not required.

Explanation

Question 173 of 200

1

33.5.1.1 (2403)
A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow
for :

Select one of the following:

  • 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.

  • 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no
    alternate is required.

  • 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.

  • 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.

Explanation

Question 174 of 200

1

33.5.1.1 (2408)
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin -
jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kgMaximum Zero Fuel
Mass: 51 250 kgMaximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kgMaximum Taxi Mass: 63 050
kgAssume the following preplanning results:Trip fuel: 1 800 kgAlternate fuel: 1
400 kgHolding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kgDry Operating Mass: 34 000 kgTraffic
Load: 13 000 kgCatering: 750 kgBaggage: 3 500 kgFind the Take-off Mass (TOM):

Select one of the following:

  • 51 515 kg.

  • 55 765 kg.

  • 51 425 kg.

  • 52 265 kg.

Explanation

Question 175 of 200

1

33.5.1.1 (2424)
The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is

Select one of the following:

  • fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome
    elevation in standard conditions.

  • fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
    standard conditions.

  • fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
    standard conditions

  • fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in
    standard conditions.

Explanation

Question 176 of 200

1

33.5.1.2 (2455)
Given :Distance A to B 3060 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 440 ktMean groundspeed
'back' 540 ktSafe Endurance 10 hoursThe time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:

Select one of the following:

  • 3 hours 55 minutes

  • 5 hours 30 minutes

  • 5 hours 20 minutes

  • 5 hours 45 minutes

Explanation

Question 177 of 200

1

33.5.2.1 (2459)
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight
plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra
fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach,
climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.

Select one of the following:

  • Statement 2 only

  • Both statements

  • Neither statement

  • Statement 1 only

Explanation

Question 178 of 200

1

33.7.1.1 (2517)
To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on
board is:

Select one of the following:

  • that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 %

  • identical to that defined for VFR flights over land

  • at least equal to that defined for IFR flights

  • that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 %

Explanation

Question 179 of 200

1

40.1.1.1 (2520)
Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following
statement(s) is (are) correct?

Select one of the following:

  • Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this stress on the ground.

  • A moderate level of stress may improve performance

  • A student will learn faster and better under severe stress

  • A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly.

Explanation

Question 180 of 200

1

40.1.3.0 (2535)
The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual
are related to an interface mismatch between

Select one of the following:

  • Liveware - Software

  • Liveware - Hardware

  • Liveware - Environment

  • Liveware - Liveware

Explanation

Question 181 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2538)
Gases of physiological importance to man are:

Select one of the following:

  • oxygen and carbon dioxide

  • nitrogen and carbon dioxide

  • oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor

  • oxygen and carbon monoxide

Explanation

Question 182 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2545)
Fatigue and permanent concentration

Select one of the following:

  • increase the tolerance to hypoxia

  • lower the tolerance to hypoxia

  • do not affect hypoxia at all

  • will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet

Explanation

Question 183 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2546)
The atmosphere contains the following gases:

Select one of the following:

  • 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

  • 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases

  • 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases

  • 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

Explanation

Question 184 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2547)
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:

Select one of the following:

  • shortness of breath

  • an improving resistance to hypoxia;

  • a decrease of acidity in the blood

  • a reduction of red blood cells

Explanation

Question 185 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2549)
The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard
atmosphere) is

Select one of the following:

  • 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon

  • 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide

  • 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon

  • 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide

Explanation

Question 186 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2550)
According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the
troposphere is approximately

Select one of the following:

  • - 2 °C every 1000 feet
    constant in the troposphere

  • 2 °C every 1000 metres

  • constant in the troposphere

  • 10 °C every 100 feet

Explanation

Question 187 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2554)
Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3.
Temperature4. Humidity

Select one of the following:

  • 1,2 ,3

  • 1, 2 ,4

  • 2,3 ,4

  • 3 , 4

Explanation

Question 188 of 200

1

40.2.1.1 (2558)
Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by

Select one of the following:

  • platelets

  • red blood cells

  • white blood cells

  • blood plasma

Explanation

Question 189 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2562)
In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon
monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.

Select one of the following:

  • High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy

  • Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.

  • Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness

  • Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.

Explanation

Question 190 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2565)
The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are
a)
b)
c)
d) breathlessness and reduced night vision

Select one of the following:

  • sensation of heat and blurred vision

  • hyperventilation

  • breathlessness and reduced night vision

  • euphoria and impairment of judgement

Explanation

Question 191 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2569)
At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of
hypoxia be expected?

Select one of the following:

  • Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.

  • Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.

  • Approximately 35 000 ft.

  • 22 000 ft

Explanation

Question 192 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2576)
Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by

Select one of the following:

  • attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma

  • the hemoglobin in the red blood cells

  • the blood plasma

  • attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells

Explanation

Question 193 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2578)
Hypoxia is caused by

Select one of the following:

  • reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung

  • reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung

  • an increased number of red blood cells

  • a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen

Explanation

Question 194 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2582)
In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide
poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:

Select one of the following:

  • Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.

  • Nausea and barotitis.

  • Dull headache and bends.

  • Dizziness, hypothermia.

Explanation

Question 195 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2583)
Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?

Select one of the following:

  • Pain in the joints

  • Low blood pressure

  • Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria

  • Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area

Explanation

Question 196 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2584)
A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:

Select one of the following:

  • cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia

  • there are great differences between the two

  • altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft

  • symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given

Explanation

Question 197 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2588)
Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?
a) b) .
c) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.
d) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

Select one of the following:

  • Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.

  • A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria

  • The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.

  • Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

Explanation

Question 198 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2593)
The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:

Select one of the following:

  • the total atmospheric pressurell

  • the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood

  • the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood

  • the amount of nitrogen in the blood

Explanation

Question 199 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2597)
What could cause hyperventilation ?

Select one of the following:

  • Fear, anxiety and distress

  • Abuse of alcohol

  • Fatigue

  • Extreme low rate of breathing

Explanation

Question 200 of 200

1

40.2.1.2 (2606)
Symptoms of decompression sickness

Select one of the following:

  • are only relevant when diving

  • can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT

  • are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory
    shock

  • are flatulence and pain in the middle earA

Explanation

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