Harry Westbrooks
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Evidence-Based Practice Assessment Cultural Competence The Interview Health History Assessment techniques Vital Signs & General Survey Developmental Considerations Hair, Skin, and Nails

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Harry Westbrooks
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Health Assessment Exam 1

Question 1 of 86

1

In order, the nursing process goes:
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Assessment
    Diagnosis
    Planning
    Implementation
    Evaluation

Explanation

Question 2 of 86

1

During which phase in the nursing progress should a nurse be documenting?

Select one of the following:

  • Assessment.

  • Diagnosis.

  • Planning.

  • Implementation.

  • Evaluation.

  • Assessment, Planning, and Evaluation.

  • Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, and Evaluation.

  • Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation.

Explanation

Question 3 of 86

1

Establishing priorities, developing outcomes, setting timelines for outcomes, and identifying interventions are all a part of what step in the nursing process?

Select one of the following:

  • Assessment

  • Diagnosis

  • Planning

  • Implementation

  • Evaluation

Explanation

Question 4 of 86

1

Check all that apply that are an example of subjective data:

Select one or more of the following:

  • The patient tells the nurse that they have a history of heart disease in their family.

  • The patient informs the nurse that their blood pressure was 130/95 when they went to their physician last month.

  • The patient heavily sighs while the nurse measures his height to be 6'0.

  • The patient makes an offhand comment about feeling lonely since her husband passed away.

  • The nurse measures the patient's pulse to be 80 bpm.

  • The patient recalls having the chicken pox as a child to the nurse.

Explanation

Question 5 of 86

1

What are the ways that a health professional gathers observational data?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Inspecting.

  • Percussing.

  • Palpating.

  • Ausculating.

  • Inferring.

  • Asking.

Explanation

Question 6 of 86

1

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs are generally a good guideline for nurses to follow when prioritizing care.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 7 of 86

1

What is the ABC plus V rule used for?

Select one of the following:

  • Assessing high priority or first-level priority problems.

  • Assessing hair, skin, and nails.

  • Documenting properly using NANDA-!.

  • Remembering to be culturally competent.

Explanation

Question 8 of 86

1

Which of the following are used for evidence-based clinical decision making?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Evidence from research and evidence-based theories.

  • Physical examination and assessment of the patient.

  • Clinical expertise.

  • Patient preferences and values.

  • Upholding long-standing examination traditions.

Explanation

Question 9 of 86

1

The Complete (Total Health) Database includes a complete health history and physical examination. It forms a baseline against which all future changes can be measured. It yields the first diagnosis.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 10 of 86

1

Which type of database is used to evaluate any changes in the status of the patient at regular and appropriate intervals?

Select one of the following:

  • Complete (Total Health) Database.

  • Focused or Problem-Centered Database.

  • Follow-Up Database.

  • Emergency Database.

Explanation

Question 11 of 86

1

Poverty has the greatest influence on health status.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 12 of 86

1

Which vulnerable population has the highest rates of drug-induced deaths, death from cirrhosis, death by poisoning, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

Select one of the following:

  • Non-Hispanic Whites.

  • African Americans.

  • Diabetics.

  • LGBTQ.

Explanation

Question 13 of 86

1

What is the nurse's role in regard to patient spirituality?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nurses may pray with a patient as long as they are comfortable.

  • Nurses must respect religious wishes, even if it means death.

  • Nurses should intervene in the event of negative religious coping.

  • Nurses need to understand a patient's cultural and religious beliefs.

Explanation

Question 14 of 86

1

The R-COPE can be given as a quick spiritual assessment of a patient and his or her coping of an event.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 15 of 86

1

Health is defined as the _______ of the person, both within one's being and in the outside world.

Select one of the following:

  • Balance.

  • Wellbeing.

  • Strength.

  • Functionality.

Explanation

Question 16 of 86

1

Which of the following is NOT a common explanation of the cause of an illness?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Biomedical.

  • Naturalistic.

  • Yin/yang theory.

  • Hot/cold theory.

  • Magicoreligious.

  • Randomized theory.

Explanation

Question 17 of 86

1

Generally, how close should the nurse be to a patient with a cough during an interview?

Select one of the following:

  • 0 -1 1/2 feet (Intimate Zone)

  • 1 1/2 - 4 feet (Personal Distance)

  • 4 - 12 feet (Social Distance)

  • 12+ feet (Public Distance)

Explanation

Question 18 of 86

1

Generally, how close should the nurse be to a patient during the physical assessment?

Select one of the following:

  • 0 - 1 1/2 feet (Intimate Zone)

  • 1 1/2 - 4 feet ( Personal Distance)

  • 4 - 12 feet (Social Distance)

  • 12+ feet (Public Distance)

Explanation

Question 19 of 86

1

Which of the following are important when creating a comfortable atmosphere for the patient during an interview?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Equal-status seating.

  • Being 9 to 10 feet away from the client.

  • Setting room temperature at a comfortable level.

  • Securing a quiet environment.

  • Ensuring privacy.

Explanation

Question 20 of 86

1

A nurse should try to write down everything a client says during an interview because a nurse cannot forget or lose important details.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 21 of 86

1

Which is an example of a closed or direct question?

Select one of the following:

  • "Have you taken any medications in the last 48 hours?"

  • "How have you been feeling since your last appointment?"

  • "Tell me about your headaches."

  • "Anything else?"

  • "Can you describe the pain in your abdomen?"

Explanation

Question 22 of 86

1

Which of these is NOT a trap of interviewing a patient?

Select one of the following:

  • Providing false assurance or reassurance.

  • Giving unwanted advice.

  • Using authority.

  • Using "why?" questions.

  • Reflection by echoing client's words.

Explanation

Question 23 of 86

1

It is just as important to watch for nonverbal modes of communication during an interview as it is to listen to verbal communication.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 24 of 86

1

Biographic Data includes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Name.

  • Address.

  • Phone number.

  • Age.

  • Birth Date.

  • Birthplace.

  • Gender.

  • Marital partner status.

  • Race.

  • Occupation

Explanation

Question 25 of 86

1

A is a subjective sensation that the person feels from the disorder.

A is an objective abnormality that you as the examiner could detect on physical examination or in laboratory reports.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    symptom
    sign

Explanation

Question 26 of 86

1

Match the present health critical characteristic to it's definition:

: Be specific; ask the patient to point to the location.
: This calls for specific descriptive terms such as burning, sharp, dull, aching, gnawing, throbbing, shooting, viselike.
: Attempt to quantify the sign of symptom. Use a pain scale to quantify pain.
: Onset, Duration, Frequency. When did the symptom first appear?
: Where was the person or what was the person doing when the symptom started?
: What makes the pain worse? What seemed to help?
: Is this primary symptom associated with any others?
: Find out the meaning of the symptom by asking how it affects daily activities.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Location
    Character or Quality
    Quantity or Severity
    Timing
    Setting
    Aggravating or Relieving Factors
    Associated Factors
    Patient's Perception

Explanation

Question 27 of 86

1

What does the mnemonic PQRSTU for asking patient perception of a symptom stand for?

P: or
Q: or
R: or
T:
U:

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Provocative
    Palliative
    Quality
    Quantity
    Region
    Radiation
    Timing
    Thought
    Understand
    Underestimate
    Pain
    Reason

Explanation

Question 28 of 86

1

Which of the following would a nurse generally NOT ask about in a past health events recall?

Select one of the following:

  • Childhood Illness

  • Accident or Injury

  • Serious or Chronic Illness

  • Hospitalization

  • Operation

  • Obstetric History

  • Immunizations

  • Marital status

  • Allergy

  • Current Medications

Explanation

Question 29 of 86

1

Match the observation of the component of the mental status exam to the definition:

: The patient is sitting erect and relaxed.
: What the patient is saying makes sense.
: The patient is awake, alert, and aware of stimuli.
: Patient is oriented to time, place, and person.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Appearance
    Thought processes
    Behavior
    Cognition

Explanation

Question 30 of 86

1

Match the observation of the component of the mental status exam to the definition:

: The patient is able to complete a thought, able to recall recent and remote memories.
: The patient is consistently aware of reality.
: The patient's facial expressions change appropriately and laryngeal speech is effortless.
: Body movements are voluntary and deliberate.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Cognition
    Thought processes
    Behavior
    Appearance

Explanation

Question 31 of 86

1

is a temporary expression of feelings or state of mind.

is the more durable, prolonged display of feelings that color the whole emotional life.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Affect
    Mood

Explanation

Question 32 of 86

1

Mental status examination must be:

Select one of the following:

  • Inferred through assessment of an individual's behaviors.

  • Measured through quantifiable tests.

  • Completed by an expert in the field.

  • Learned through a lifelong pattern of behavior.

Explanation

Question 33 of 86

1

Match the mental status abnormal posture finding to it's definition:

or : Sitting on edge of chair or curled in bed, tense muscles, frowning, darting and watchful eyes, and restless pacing.

or : Sitting slumped in chair, slow walk, dragging feet.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Hyperthyroidism
    anxiety
    Depression
    some organic brain disease

Explanation

Question 34 of 86

1

Match the mental status abnormal body movement finding to it's definition:

: Abnormal posturing and bizarre gestures.

or : Apathy and psychomotor slowing.

: Restless, fidgety movement or hyper-kinetic appearance.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Schizophrenia
    Depression
    dimentia
    Anxiety

Explanation

Question 35 of 86

1

Match the Level of Consciousness to it's definition:

: Sleeps most of the time; difficult to arouse - needs loud shout or vigorous shake; acts confused when aroused; speech may be mumbled or incoherent.

: Awake or readily aroused; oriented, fully aware of external and internal stimuli and responds appropriately.

: Spontaneously unconscious; responds only to persistent and vigorous shake or pain; has appropriate motor response; otherwise can only groan, mumble, or move restlessly.

: Not fully alert; drifts off to sleep when not stimulated; can be aroused to name when called in a normal voice but looks drowsy; responds appropriately but inattentive.

: Completely unconscious; no response to pain or any external or internal stimuli.

: Clouding of consciousness; inattentive; incoherent conversation; impaired recent memory, often agitated and having visual hallucinations.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Obtunded
    Alert
    Stupor
    Lethargic
    Coma
    Delirium

Explanation

Question 36 of 86

1

Match the screening to the definition:

: Screen for core anxiety symptoms.

: Screen for depressed mood and anhedonia.

: Screen for detecting developmental delays in infants and preschoolers.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    GAD-7
    PHQ-2
    Denver II

Explanation

Question 37 of 86

1

The Mini- Mental Status Examination (MMSE) scores what component of the mental examination?

Select one of the following:

  • Appearance.

  • Behavior.

  • Cognition.

  • Thought processes.

  • All components of mental status.

Explanation

Question 38 of 86

1

How would the nurse document a patient who is alert but only cognitively aware of his or her name and current location?

Select one of the following:

  • Alert and oriented (X3).

  • Alert and oriented (X2).

  • Alert and oriented to name and place.

  • Alert and not oriented to time.

Explanation

Question 39 of 86

1

Which of the following is an available newly developed, reliable, quick, and easily available instrument to screen for cognitive impairment in otherwise healthy older adults?

Select one of the following:

  • The Mini-Cog.

  • MMSE.

  • Denver I.

  • Denver II.

Explanation

Question 40 of 86

1

Eugene, a 70 year old man, comes in to the hospital and has difficulty speaking. His speech sounds distorted and unintelligible. His basic language is intact. The nurse would note that he has what type of speech disorder?

Select one of the following:

  • Dysphonia.

  • Dysarthria.

  • Broca aphasia.

  • Wernicke aphasia.

Explanation

Question 41 of 86

1

Mary Sue, age 84, is a lifelong smoker. She has difficulty and discomfort and talking. Her voice sounds whispered, but articulation and language are intact. What kind of speech disorder does the nurse make a note of?

Select one of the following:

  • Dysphonia.

  • Dysarthria.

  • Broca aphasia.

  • Wernicke aphasia.

Explanation

Question 42 of 86

1

Match the type of aphasia to the condition:

The most common and severe form. Spontaneous speech is absent or reduced to a few stereotyped words or sounds. Comprehension is absent or reduced to the person's own name and a few select words.

: Expressive aphasia. The person can understand language but not express himself or herself using language. This is characterized by nonfluent, dysarthric, and effortful speech.

: Receptive aphasia. The person can hear sounds and words but cannot relate them to previous experiences. Speech is fluent, effortless, and well articulated but has many paraphasias and neologisms and often lacks substantive words.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Global aphasia:
    Broca aphasia
    Wernicke aphasia

Explanation

Question 43 of 86

1

Match the abnormal mood and affect to the clinical example:

: Topic varies, expression does not.

: Fear of flying in airplanes.

: "I feel nervous and high-strung. I worry all the time."

: Person expresses euphoric, tearful, angry feelings in rapid succession.

: "I don't feel real. I feel like I'm not really here."

: Person has expressed violence toward self or others.

: Laughs while discussing admission for liver biopsy.

: "I feel on top of the world!"

: "I've got the blues."

: A person feels love and hate toward another person at the same time.

: "I'm feeling very happy."

: Person internalizes a feeling of tension, and a seemingly mild stimulus "sets him or her off"

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Flat affect
    Fear
    Anxiety
    Lability
    Depersonalization
    Rage
    Inappropriate affect
    Euphoria
    Depression
    Ambivalence
    Elation
    Irritability

Explanation

Question 44 of 86

1

Which type of anxiety disorder could a person with anxiety experience in a crowded train to work?

Select one of the following:

  • Agoraphobia.

  • Social Anxiety Disorder.

  • Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.

  • Generalized Anxiety Disorder.

Explanation

Question 45 of 86

1

Match the correct mental disorder to the definition:

: An acute confusional state, potentially preventable in hospitalized persons. Characterized by disorientation, disordered thinking perceptions, defective memory, agitation, inattention.

: A chronic progressive loss of cognitive function and intellectual functions, although perception and consciousness are intact. Characterized by disorientation, impaired judgement, memory loss.

: A long-term depressed mood, with a lack of pleasure; disturbed sleep and appetite; feelings of hopelessness, guilt, worthlessness, sadness, loneliness, and despair; suicide ideation.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Delirium
    Dementia
    Depression

Explanation

Question 46 of 86

1

Match the abnormal thought process to the clinical example:

: "Forgot what I was going to say."

: Gives detailed description of his long walk around the hospital although you know patient remained in his room all afternoon.

: "I have to turn on my thinkilator."

: Says "the thing you open the door with" instead of "key".

: "When was my surgery? Well I was 28, I was living with my aunt, she's the one with psoriasis, she had it bad that year because of the heat, the heat was worse then than it was the summer of '92..."

: "My boss is angry with me, and it wasn't even my fault. (pause) I saw that movie too, Lassie. I felt really bad about it. But she kept trying to land the airplane and she never knew what was going on."

: "Take this pill? The pill is blue. I feel blue. (sings) She wore blue velvet."

: "Beauty, red-based five, pigeon, the street corner, soft of."

: "I'm going to lock the door, lock the door. I walk every day, and I lock the door. I usually take the dog, and I lock the door."

: Nurse, "I want you to take your pill." Patient (mocking), "Take your pill. Take your pill."

: "My feet are cold. Cold, bold, told. The bell tolled for me."

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Blocking
    Confabulation
    Neologism
    Circumlocution
    Circumstantiality
    Loosening associations
    Flight of ideas
    Word salad
    Perseveration
    Echolalia
    Clanging

Explanation

Question 47 of 86

1

An illusion is a created sensory perception where there is none.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 48 of 86

1

Hallucinations are sensory perceptions for which there are no external stimuli; may strike any sense.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 49 of 86

1

Match the characteristics of an eating problem to the definition:

: Recurrent episodes of uncontrollable binging followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors (vomiting, laxatives, diuretics).

: Intense fear of weight gain, restricted caloric intake.

: Recurrent episodes of uncontrollable binging without compensatory behaviors.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Bulimia Nervosa
    Anorexia Nervosa
    Binge Eating

Explanation

Question 50 of 86

1

Where would you expect to hear the following characteristics of percussion notes?

: Over normal lung tissue.
: Normal over child's lung (abnormal in adult), increased amount of air as in emphysema.
: Over air-filled viscus (stomach, intestine)
: Relatively dense organ as lives or spleen.
: When no air present, over thigh muscles or bone or over tumor.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Resonant
    Hyperresonant
    Tympany
    Dull
    Flat

Explanation

Question 51 of 86

1

The bell endpiece of the stethoscope is best for high-pitched sounds - breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds.

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 52 of 86

1

How should the nurse hold his or her hand when percussing?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperextend middle finger on dominant hand only and pull all other fingers back.

  • Extend index, middle, and ring finger and tuck pinky and thumb.

  • Curl hand into fist and swing as hard as possible.

  • Extend index and middle finger, tuck all other fingers away.

Explanation

Question 53 of 86

1

When does the nurse wash his or her hands?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Before and after every physical patient encounter.

  • After contact with blood, bodily fluids, secretions, and excretions.

  • After contact with any equipment contaminated with bodily fluids.

  • After removing gloves.

Explanation

Question 54 of 86

1

The vital signs are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Temperature.

  • Blood pressure.

  • Pulse.

  • Respirations.

  • Glucose levels.

  • Height and weight.

Explanation

Question 55 of 86

1

The nurse should be palpating and taking note of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Texture.

  • Temperature.

  • Moisture.

  • Rigidity or spasticity.

  • Crepitation.

  • Presence of lumps or masses.

  • Presence of tenderness or pain.

  • Muscle tone.

  • Vibration or pulsation

Explanation

Question 56 of 86

1

What part of the hand is used for what part of palpation?

: Fine tactile discrimination (skin texture, swelling, pulsation, lumps)
: Detect position, shape, and consistency of an organ or mass.
: Determine temperature.
: Vibration.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Fingertips
    Fingers and thumb grasping
    Dorsa (backs) of hands and fingers
    Base of fingers or ulnar surface of hand

Explanation

Question 57 of 86

1

If a waist circumfrerence of __ inches or more in women and __ inches or more in men, then that person is at higher risk for heart disease and type 2 diabetes.

Select one of the following:

  • 35; 40

  • 20; 25

  • 30; 35

  • 25; 30

Explanation

Question 58 of 86

1

Match the heart rate diagnosis to the definition:

: The adult has a resting heart rate of less than 50 beats/min.
: The adult has a resting heart rate of greater than 95 beats/min.
: The heart varies with the respiratory cycle, speeding up and slowing down.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Bradycardia
    Tachycardia
    Sinus arrhythmia

Explanation

Question 59 of 86

1

Which forms of temperature measurement are considered core temperatures?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Oral temperature.

  • Rectal temperature.

  • Tympanic membrane temperature.

  • Temporal temperature.

  • Axillary temperature.

Explanation

Question 60 of 86

1

The first sound heard after beginning to deflate the blood pressure cuff is the pressure.

The last audible sound heard after deflating the blood pressure cuff is the pressure.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    systolic
    diastolic

Explanation

Question 61 of 86

1

The pulse oximeter is a noninvasive method to assess the arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2).

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 62 of 86

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

The abnormal characteristics of pigmented lesions are summarized in the mnemonic ABCDE, which stands for:

A:
B:
C:
D:
E:

Explanation

Question 63 of 86

1

Match the abnormal skin coloring to the definition:

: The skin takes on the color of connective tissue, which is mostly white.
: Intense redness of the skin from excess blood in dilated superficial capillaries.
: Blueish mottled color from decreased perfusion.
: A yellowish skin color indicates rising amounts of bilirubin in the blood.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Pallor
    Erthyema
    Cyanosis
    Jaundice

Explanation

Question 64 of 86

1

Match the abnormal skin coloring to the condition it could indicate:

Pallor:
Erythema:
Cyanosis:
Jaundice:

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Shock
    Polycythemia
    Hypoxemia
    Hepatitis

Explanation

Question 65 of 86

1

The patient is profusely sweating at the time of the interview. The nurse would note that the patient is currently undergoing what skin condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Diaphoresis.

  • Dehydration.

  • Hypothermia.

  • Hyperthermia.

Explanation

Question 66 of 86

1

Edema is scored on a four-point scale. A score of 2+ would indicate what?

Select one of the following:

  • Mild pitting; slight indentation; no perceptible swelling of the leg.

  • Moderate pitting; indentation subsides rapidly.

  • Deep pitting; indentation remains for a short time; leg looks swollen.

  • Very deep pitting; indentation lasts a long time; leg is very swollen.

Explanation

Question 67 of 86

1

The nurse imprints with his or her thumb against a patient's ankle malleolus. It pits deeply and the indentation lasts for a short time. What score would the nurse give the patient?

Select one of the following:

  • 1+

  • 2+

  • 3+

  • 4+

Explanation

Question 68 of 86

1

Anasarca is what kind of edema?

Select one of the following:

  • Unilateral.

  • Bilateral.

  • Mild.

  • Severe.

Explanation

Question 69 of 86

1

The nurse palpates that the skin feels very smooth and soft, like velvet. This could be a sign of what?

Select one of the following:

  • Hyperthyroidism.

  • Hypothyroidism.

  • Dehydration.

  • Diaphoresis.

Explanation

Question 70 of 86

1

What age group would the nurse expect to have cherry (senile) angiomas?

Select one of the following:

  • Neonates.

  • Toddlers.

  • Adolescents.

  • Adults older than 30 years.

Explanation

Question 71 of 86

1

A secondary lesion...

Select one of the following:

  • ... develops on previously unaltered skin.

  • ... changes over time or changes because of scratching or infection.

  • ... develops as a result of being immunocompromised.

  • ... is normal and part of the epidermis.

Explanation

Question 72 of 86

1

At what size should a client seek treatment for a growing pigmented lesion?

Select one of the following:

  • 6 mm (the size of a pencil eraser).

  • 2 mm (the size of a pencil tip).

  • 10 mm (the size of a fingernail).

  • 14 mm (the size of a dime).

Explanation

Question 73 of 86

1

Poor turgor suggests what?

Select one of the following:

  • Dehydration.

  • Diaphoresis.

  • Edema.

  • Bruises easily.

Explanation

Question 74 of 86

1

The profile sign of a nail should be about what?

Select one of the following:

  • 160 degrees.

  • 180 degrees.

  • 140 degrees.

  • 120 degrees.

Explanation

Question 75 of 86

1

The nurse examines the capillary refill on a healthy-looking patient. What should he or she expect?

Select one of the following:

  • Instant or nearly instant refill.

  • 1 to 2 seconds refill.

  • 1 to 2 minutes refill.

  • 25 to 35 seconds refill.

Explanation

Question 76 of 86

1

If a newborn has 6 or more of these spots, each more than 1.5cm in diameter, it is diagnostic of neurofibromatosis. What are the spots?

Select one of the following:

  • Mongolian spot.

  • Cafe au lait spot.

  • Cutis marmorata.

  • Acrocyanosis.

Explanation

Question 77 of 86

1

Match the population at risk to the condition:

Neonates:
Adolescents:
Pregnant Woman:
Older Adults: .

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    permeable skin causes fluid loss
    Acne
    Vascular spiders and striae
    Senile lentigines

Explanation

Question 78 of 86

1

Match the description of the common shapes and configurations of lesions to the definition:

: circular, begins in center and spreads to periphery
: lesions run together
: individual lesions that remain seperate
: twisted, coiled spiral, snakelike
: clusters of lesions
: a scratch, streak, line, or stripe
: iris, concentric rings of color in lesions
: linear arrangement along unilateral nerve route
: annular lesions grow together

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Annular
    Confluent
    Discrete
    Gyrate
    Grouped
    Linear
    Target
    Zosteriform
    Polycyclic

Explanation

Question 79 of 86

1

When would be a perfect time to perform a skin assessment?

Select one of the following:

  • During bed bath time.

  • The entire time the nurse sees the patient.

  • When checking vital signs.

  • When conducting the interview.

Explanation

Question 80 of 86

1

Match the skin etiology to the observation:

: whitish, creamy, pink color throughout the integument.
: Patchy milky-white spots, often symmetric bilaterally.
: Yellow-orange tinge.
: Orange-green or gray overlying pallor of anemia.
: Bronzed appearance, especially around trunk.
: Tan to light brown, irregular shaped, oval patch.

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    Albinism
    Vitiligo
    Carotenemia
    Uremia
    Addison disease
    Cafe au lait spots

Explanation

Question 81 of 86

1

What shape and configuration are urticaria (hives)?

Select one of the following:

  • Confluent.

  • Grouped.

  • Polycyclic.

  • Zosteriform.

Explanation

Question 82 of 86

1

Match the primary skin lesion to its definition:

: Solely a color change, flat and circumscribed, less than 1 cm.
: Something you can feel, solid, raised, circumscribed, less than 1 cm.
: Macules that are larger than 1 cm.
: Surface elevation that is pleateaulike, wider than 1 cm.
: Solid, elevated, hard or soft, not fluid filled, larger than 1 cm.
: Superficial, raised, transient, and erythematous, slight irregular shape.
: Larger than a few cm's in diameter.
: Elevated cavity containing free fluid, up to 1 cm.
: Larger than 1 cm diameter, fluid filled.
: Encapsulated fluid-filled cavity in dermis, elevating skin.
: Turbid fluid in the cavity. Circumscribed and elevated.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Macule
    Papule
    Patch
    Plaque
    Nodule
    Wheal
    Tumor
    Vesicle
    Bulla
    Cyst
    Pustule

Explanation

Question 83 of 86

1

Match the secondary skin lesion to its definition:

: Thickened, dried-out exudate left when vesicles/pustules dry up.
: Compact, desiccated flakes of skin, dry or greasy, silvery or white.
: Linear crack with abrupt edges, deep into dermis.
: Scooped out but shallow depression.
: Deeper depression extending into dermis, irregular shape.
: Self-inflicted abrasion.
: After tissue repair, collagen replaces normal tissue.
: Skin level is depressed with loss of dermis.
: Prolonged exposure to irritant thickens skin, becomes leathery.
: Excess of scar tissue beyond sites of injury.

Drag and drop to complete the text.

    Crust
    Scale
    Fissure
    Erosion
    Ulcer
    Excoriation
    Scar
    Atrophic scar
    Lichenification
    Keloid

Explanation

Question 84 of 86

1

Acne is what kind of skin lesion?

Select one of the following:

  • Pustule.

  • Cyst.

  • Wheal.

  • Bulla.

Explanation

Question 85 of 86

1

A mosquito bite would cause what kind of lesion?

Select one of the following:

  • Wheal.

  • Papule.

  • Patch.

  • Vesicle.

Explanation

Question 86 of 86

1

A hematoma is a bruise you can...

Select one of the following:

  • feel.

  • see.

  • treat.

  • measure.

Explanation