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Quiz on MCQs in Clinical Pathology - 4th year PMU (Q 151-250), created by Ore iyanda on 16/01/2018.

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Clinical Pathoanatomy MCQs (Q 151-250)

Question 1 of 100

1

The most frequent form of primary glomerular disease in children is

Select one of the following:

  • Minimal change disease

  • Acute glomeruonephritis

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Hyperfunction of anterior pituitary in pre-pubertal children generally can result in

Select one of the following:

  • Acromegaly

  • Gigantism

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

The role of external radiation in the etiology of thyroid cancer is predominant in

Select one of the following:

  • Papillary carcinoma

  • Follicular carcinoma

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

The following type of carcinoma of the breast is characterised by 'Indian file' pattern of tumour cells

Select one of the following:

  • Infiltrating distal carcinoma

  • Invasive lobular carcinoma

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Prostatic hyperplasia affects most often

Select one of the following:

  • Peripheral prostate

  • Periurethral prostate

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

4

Which criteria refer to pernicious anaemia

Select one or more of the following:

  • Low serum B12

  • Megaloblastic anaemia

  • Antibody against internal factor of Castle

  • Gastric parietal cell antibody

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

4

Which of the following tumours have association with occupational exposure to asbestosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Silicosis

  • Malignant mesothelioma

  • Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Laryngeal carcinoma

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

4

Which of the following features characterise ulcerative colitis, except

Select one of the following:

  • Formation of crypt abscess and cryptitis

  • Superficial mucosal ulceration

  • Depletion of goblet cells and mucus

  • Stricture formation in chronic cases

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

4

Philadelphia chromosome is characterised by

Select one of the following:

  • Translocation (8;14)

  • Translocation (9;22)

  • Translocation (22;9)

  • Translocation (14;8)

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

4

Which of the following are included in classic Hodgkin's disease

Select one or more of the following:

  • Histiocytic fibrosis

  • Lymphocytic depletion

  • Mixed cellularity

  • Nodular sclerosis

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

4

Pulseless disease is

Select one of the following:

  • Temporal arteritis

  • Kawasaki's disease

  • Takayasu arteritis

  • Buerger's disease

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

4

The morphological variants of diagnostic cells in Hodgkin's disease are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cells with bilobed nucleus appearing as mirror image

  • Megaloblastic cells

  • Lacunar type cell

  • Large cleaved cells

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

4

Crohn's disease is characterised by the following histopathologic features

Select one or more of the following:

  • Non-caseating sarcoid like granulomas

  • Deep transmural ulceration

  • Multiple abscesses

  • Pseudopolyps

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

4

According to monoclonal atherosclerosis hypothesis, the primary event in atherosclerosis is

Select one of the following:

  • Monoclonal proliferation of endothelial cells

  • Monoclonal proliferation of smooth muscle cells

  • Monoclonal proliferation of monocytes

  • Monoclonal proliferation of foam cells

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

4

Barrett's oesophagus is

Select one of the following:

  • Congenital anomaly

  • Inflammatory disease

  • Metaplastic process

  • Neoplastic lesion

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

4

The most common site of involvement of atherosclerosis aneurysm is

Select one of the following:

  • Arch of aorta

  • Thoracic aorta

  • Suprarenal part of abdominal aorta

  • Infrarenal part of abdominal aorta

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

4

The following histologic types of bronchogenic carcinoma have strong association with cigarette smoking except

Select one or more of the following:

  • Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Small cell carcinoma

  • Large cell carcinoma

  • Adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

4

The most important and common complicated atheromatous lesion in the coronary artery in acute myocardial infarction is

Select one of the following:

  • Calcification

  • Coronary artery thrombosis

  • Aneurysm

  • Ulceration

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

4

In hypertensive heart disease left ventricular hypertrophy is correlated with

Select one or more of the following:

  • Duration of hypertension

  • Severity of hypertension

  • Cause of hypertension

  • Severity of coronary atherosclerosis

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

4

The most common causative agent for lobar pneumonia is

Select one of the following:

  • Staphylococci

  • Streptococci

  • Pneumococci

  • Haemophilus

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

4

The common complications of gastric ulcer are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Penetration

  • Pneumonia

  • Haemorrhage

  • Perforation

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

4

What complication can occur due to atherosclerosis of femoral artery?

Select one of the following:

  • Thrombophlebitis

  • Diabetes mellitus

  • Gangrene

  • Pulmonary thromboembolism

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

4

Which of the following types of acute viral hepatitis become chronic hepatitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Type A

  • Type B

  • Type C

  • All the three answers are correct

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

4

Nephrotic syndrome develops in

Select one of the following:

  • Urine retention

  • Acute renal failure

  • Acute pyelonephritis

  • Glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

4

The infection which leads to pyelonephritis may be a result of

Select one or more of the following:

  • Hematogenous dissemination

  • Ascending dissemination

  • Immune conflict

  • As a complication of glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

4

Which of the following diseases does not lead to nephrosclerosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Atherosclerosis

  • Diabetes mellitus

  • Diabetes insipidus

  • Gout

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

4

Squamous cell carcinoma is a common tumour in the

Select one of the following:

  • Uterine body

  • Ovaries

  • Fallopian tubes

  • Uterine cervix

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

4

Which of the morphological methods are used for subtyping lymphomas?

Select one of the following:

  • Van Gieson staining

  • PAS

  • Von Kossa staining

  • Immunohistochemistry

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

4

Which of the following complications can develop in pulmonary carcinoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Mantle pneumonia

  • Brown induration of lungs

  • Empyema

  • Massive haemorrhage

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

4

Determine the pathological process in the lung emphysema, having in mind the microscopic appearance - a focus of necrosis, detritus, leukocytes and macrophages

Select one of the following:

  • Acute pulmonary abscess

  • Chronic pulmonary abscess

  • Bronchiectasis

  • Lung cancer in decay

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

4

What disease is endometriosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Inflammation of the uterine mucosa

  • Inflammation of the uterine cervix

  • Dishormonal disease

  • Tumour

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

4

Point out the characteristic macroscopic changes of chronic obstructive emphysema

Select one or more of the following:

  • Decreased in size lungs, collapsed to the hilum

  • Lungs with increased volume

  • Thick consistency of the lungs

  • Reduced elasticity and soft consistency

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

4

Gynecomastia is a disease of

Select one of the following:

  • Breast in women

  • Ovaries

  • Male breast

  • Testes

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

4

What is typical for the first stage of syphilis?

Select one of the following:

  • Siphilides

  • Ulcus durum

  • Gumma

  • Generalised lymphadenitis

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

4

For tuberculous meningitis the following histological changes are typical

Select one or more of the following:

  • Purulent infiltration in the meninges

  • Endarteriitis obliterans

  • Granulomatous inflammation

  • Caseous necrosis

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

4

Why are occupational diseases named pneumoconiosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Cor hypertonicum

  • Disease of the lungs associated with mineral dust inhalation

  • Pneumonia

  • Infection of the bronchial wall and lung parenchyma

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

4

Which of the following factors play a role in the development of bronchial carcinoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chronic bronchitis

  • Smoking

  • Influenza

  • Work/environmental factors

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

4

What is the exudate in the pleural cavity and pericardial sac due to lymphatic spread of pulmonary carcinoma into them?

Select one of the following:

  • Fibrinous

  • Serious

  • Haemorrhagic

  • Purulent

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

4

What forms of silicosis do you know?

Select one of the following:

  • Nodular

  • Diffuse-sclerotic

  • Senile

  • Combination of a and b (Nodular & Diffuse-sclerotic)

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

4

Apically located peripheral pulmonary carcinoma is represented by the eponym

Select one of the following:

  • Claude-Bernard-Horner syndrome

  • Pancoast-Tobias

  • Ptosis and miosis

  • Enophthalmus

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

4

Which diseases complicate silicosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cor hypertonicum

  • Cor pulmonale chronicum

  • Tuberculosis

  • Pneumofibrosis

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

4

Claude-Bernard-Horner syndrome includes the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • Ptosis, midriasis, anhydrosis

  • Ptosis, miosis, increased sweating

  • Ptosis, miosis, pseudoenophthalmus

  • Anhydrosis

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

4

What possible gross changes do we see in lung carcinoma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Pneumonia-like form

  • ill-defined central node connected to a bronchus

  • Linitis plastic

  • Peripheral ill-defined node

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

4

Chronic bronchitis is usually accompanied by

Select one or more of the following:

  • Squamous cell metaplasia of the respiratory epithelium

  • Phases of purulent inflammation

  • Productive cough for at least 2 months/year for 3 consecutive years

  • Productive cough for at least 3 months/year for 2 consecutive years

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

4

Squamous cell lung carcinoma occurs

Select one or more of the following:

  • In the middle lobe of the left lung

  • After squamous cell metaplasia of the respiratory epithelium of bronchi

  • As an ill-defined node connected to a bronchus

  • Forming nests of Tumour cells producing keratin

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

4

In small cell lung carcinoma we can observe

Select one or more of the following:

  • Numerous Tumour cells with scant stroma

  • The tumour cells resemble oat-grains

  • It grows in a pneumonia-like fashion

  • The tumour cells have very high proliferative rate

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

4

Bronchio-alveolar pulmonary carcinoma is characterised by

Select one or more of the following:

  • Forms papillary folds into the alveolar lumen

  • It is a form of squamous cell carcinoma

  • The cells produce keratin

  • It is a form of adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

4

Hodgkin lymphoma has

Select one or more of the following:

  • Five histological variants

  • Hodgkin cells

  • Reed-Sternberg cells

  • Polyclonal inflammatory background

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

4

In Hodgkin lymphoma we can observe

Select one or more of the following:

  • Effaced lymph node structure

  • Nodular sclerosis histological form

  • Mixed cellularity histological form

  • Chronic myeloleukemia

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

4

Non-Hodgkin lymphomas can be

Select one or more of the following:

  • Nodal

  • B-cell and T-cell types

  • Extranodal

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

4

In chronic lympholeukemia in the liver can be seen

Select one or more of the following:

  • Myeloblasts

  • Mature lymphocytes and single lymphoblasts

  • Focal leukemic infiltrates in the portal spaces

  • Leukemic infiltrates in the sinusoids

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

4

Chronic myeloleukemia causes the following changes in liver

Select one or more of the following:

  • Effaced lobular structure

  • Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of hepatocytes

  • Atrophy of hepatocytes

  • Leukaemic infiltrates in the sinusoids

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

4

In chronic myeloleukemia we observe the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • Long remissions even without treatment

  • Extreme hepato-splenomegaly

  • Anemia, hemorrhages, infections

  • Splenic infarctions

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

4

Which are the clinical phases of chronic myeloleukemia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chronic stable phase

  • Accelerated phase

  • Blast crisis

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

4

In Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity type

Select one or more of the following:

  • There can be seen numerous eosinophils

  • We can observe area with necrosis

  • Intact histological lymph nose structure

  • Giant bi-uncleared cells, called 'mirror image'

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

4

Plasmocytoma has the following features

Select one or more of the following:

  • Reed-Sternberg Tumour cells

  • Jelly-like raspberry red osteolytic bone lesion

  • The tumour cells have a large vacuolar nucleus with prominent nucleolus

  • The tumour cells have a round eccentric nucleus with a pale halo around it

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

4

Which of the following are examples of pathological processes in the oral cavity that can have an effect of internal organs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Scarlet fever

  • Peritonsilar abscess

  • Epilus

  • Oral squamous cell carcinoma

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

4

Which avitaminoses can be associated with changes in the oral cavity?

Select one of the following:

  • Vit. B6

  • Vit. B12

  • Vit. D

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

4

Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause the following changes in the oral cavity

Select one of the following:

  • Glossomegaly

  • Hunter's tongue (atrophic gastritis)

  • Geographic tongue

  • Fibrinous gingivitis

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

4

What type of examination will you suggest to your patient if you diagnose him/her with atrophic glossitis (Hunter's tongue)?

Select one of the following:

  • Colonoscopy

  • Dermatoscopy

  • Gastroscopy

  • Hysteroscopy

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

4

If a patient with atrophic glossitis is examined with gastroscopy, what can be the findings in gastric mucosa?

Select one of the following:

  • Menetrier's disease

  • Atrophic autoimmune gastritis

  • Acute fibrinous gastritis

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

4

The risk of which disease does atrophic autoimmune gastritis carry?

Select one of the following:

  • Acute gastritis

  • Atrophy of the colonic mucosa

  • Rectal cancer

  • Gastric cancer

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

4

What are the usual changes in leukoplakia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • The epithelium is hyperkeratotic

  • Acanthosis in the epithelium

  • Chronic inflammation

  • Dysplasia in the epithelium can be observed

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

4

What can we observe in leukoplakia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Parakeratosis

  • Dysplasia

  • Carcinoma in situ

  • Diabetes

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

4

Which of the following is true of pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is a benign tumour

  • It contains hyperplastic fatty tissue

  • It is firm and Lobulated

  • It is painful and inflamed

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

4

In chronic tonsillitis we can observe the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • Purulent exudate

  • Hypertrophic tonsillitis

  • Atrophic tonsillitis

  • It is a predisposing factor for the formation of epilus

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

4

The typical histological picture of epilus includes

Select one or more of the following:

  • Langhans giant multinuclear cells

  • Fresh haemorrhages and hemosiderin

  • Osteoclast-type multinuclear giant cells

  • It is a true tumour

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

4

Adamantinoma (amelloblastoma) is

Select one or more of the following:

  • A true tumour

  • An odontogenic tumour

  • When compressed the sound is described as flapping wings

  • When it is compressed the sound is described as eggshell cracking

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

4

Why is it necessary to comment on the presence or absence of H.pylori in gastric biopsies?

Select one or more of the following:

  • H.pylori is a risk factor for MALT lymphoma

  • H.pylori is a risk factor for duodenal cancer

  • H.pylori causes chronic gastritis

  • H.pylori is a severe fungal infection

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

4

Which of the following are possible complications of chronic gastric ulcer?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Penetration in the diaphragm

  • Perforation

  • Pyloric stenosis

  • Massive haemorrhage

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

4

Which special stain help us determine the presence of H.pylori in gastric biopsies?

Select one of the following:

  • Van Gieson

  • Giemsa

  • Congo Red

  • Immunohistochemistry

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

4

The following changes can be observed in acute duodenal ulcer

Select one or more of the following:

  • Fibrinoid necrosis at the ulcer base

  • Inflammatory infiltrate with lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • Ulceration penetrating through muscularis mucosae, reaching muscularis propria

  • It often undergoes malignant transformation

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

4

What histological types of gastric cancer do you recognise?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Adenocarcinoma

  • Signet-ring cell carcinoma

  • Squamous cell carcinoma

  • Mucinous adenocarcinoma

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

4

In phlegmonous appendicitis we can observe the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • Peri-appendicitis

  • Lymphocyte infiltration in the mucosa

  • Neutrophilic infiltration throughout the thickness of the wall of the appendix

  • Constriction of the blood vessels of the serosa

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

4

Phlegmonous appendicitis is characterised by

Select one or more of the following:

  • Purulent exudate in the lumen

  • Hypoplasia of the lymph follicles

  • Hyperplastic activated lymph follicles

  • Hyperemic blood vessels of the serosa

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

4

Gangrenous appendicitis is characterised by

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lymphocytic infiltration of the mucosa

  • Thrombosis of blood vessels

  • Necrosis of the wall of the appendix

  • Severe inflammation through the wall of the appendix

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

4

What are the causes which may lead to micro-nodular liver cirrhosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Acute viral hepatitis

  • Chronic viral hepatitis

  • Cardiogenic shock

  • Chronic alcoholism

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

4

Which of the types of necrosis are found in chronic active hepatitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Piece-meal necrosis

  • Adjacent necrosis

  • Bridging necrosis

  • Caseous necrosis

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

4

Why does the level of calcium in the blood has prognostic value in acute pancreatitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Calcium is deposited in the bones

  • Calcium levels in the blood slower with the progression of steato-necrosis

  • Calcium reacts with fatty acids to form soaps

  • It has no prognostic value

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

4

Some of the gross features of acute pancreatitis are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Enlarged liver

  • Steatonecrosis of the fatty tissue around and inside the pancreas

  • Haemorrhages in the tissues of the pancreas

  • Fibrosis in the tissues of the pancreas

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

4

What histological changes can be observed in chronic hepatitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Chronic cholecystitis

  • Inflammatory infiltrates

  • Massive necrosis of hepatocytes

  • Fibrotic septa

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

4

Chronic cholecystitis is characterised by the following

Select one or more of the following:

  • Often it is accompanied by cholelithiasis

  • It has no association with cholelithiasis

  • Can cause adhesions

  • It is caused by viral infection

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

4

Which is the following can be complications caused by chronic cholecystitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Peritonitis

  • Obstruction of d.choledochus

  • Cholestasis

  • Pancreatitis

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

4

After consuming poisonous mushrooms, a patient shows signs of acute liver failure with progressive reduction of the size of the liver. What process has developed in the liver?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Acute viral hepatitis

  • Massive hepatic necrosis

  • Hepatocellular carcinoma

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

4

After consuming poisonous mushrooms, a patient shows signs of acute liver failure with progressive reduction of the size of the liver. Besides liver failure, what other complication can worsen the patient's clinical condition?

Select one of the following:

  • Left sided heart failure

  • Right sided heart failure

  • Pyelonephritis

  • Acute renal failure

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

4

Which of the following can occur after a streptococcal tonsillitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Post-infectious cholecystitis

  • Post-infectious glomerulonephritis

  • Minimal change disease of the kidneys

  • Acute rheumatism

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

4

Which types of glomerulonephritis are clinically presented by nephritic syndrome?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis

  • Rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

  • Minimal change disease

  • Membranous glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

4

Which types of glomerulonephritis are clinically presented by nephrotic syndrome?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis

  • Rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

  • Minimal change disease

  • Membranous glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

4

What findings can be observed in glomerulonephritis?

Select one of the following:

  • Klebsiella

  • E.coli

  • Streptococcus

  • The urine is sterile

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

4

Which type of glomerulonephritis is 'crescentic'?

Select one of the following:

  • Minimal change disease

  • Rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

  • Membranous glomerulonephritis

  • Diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

4

'Big white kidney' can be observed in the following cades

Select one or more of the following:

  • Rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

  • Amyloidosis of the kidney

  • Minimal change disease

  • Nephrosclerotic glomerulonephritis

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

4

Which of the following histological changes are associated with tubal pregnancy?

Select one of the following:

  • Chorionic Villi and decidual Changes of the endometrium

  • Monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi

  • Hematoma in Fallopian tube, chorionic villi invading the muscular layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium

  • Cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

4

Which of the following histological changes are associated with mola hydatidosa?

Select one of the following:

  • Chorionic Villi and decidual Changes of the endometrium

  • Monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi without feral blood capillaries

  • Hematoma in Fallopian tube, chorionic villi invading the muscular layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium

  • Cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

4

Which of the following histological changes are associated with abortion (miscarriage) ?

Select one of the following:

  • Chorionic Villi and decidual Changes of the endometrium

  • Monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi without feral blood capillaries

  • Hematoma in Fallopian tube, chorionic villi invading the muscular layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium

  • Cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

4

Specify the associated clinical symptoms in dysplasia and carcinoma in situ of the uterine cervix

Select one or more of the following:

  • No clinical symptoms

  • Scarce contact bleeding

  • Fever

  • Enlarged inguinal lymph nodes

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

4

Why if curettage from a suspected pregnancy shows only decidual changes, the gynaecologist should be notified immediately?

Select one of the following:

  • There is an increased risk for endometrial carcinoma

  • There is an increased risk of associated mola hydatidosa

  • There is an increased risk of associated intraepithelial lesion of the cervix

  • There is a high risk of associated tubal pregnancy

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

4

Mola hydatidosa has the following characteristics

Select one or more of the following:

  • Grossly it resembles grape-like structures

  • Chorionic villi have fetal capillaries

  • Chorionic villi are with hydropic edema

  • Chorionic villi lack fetal blood vessels

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

4

Examples of ovarian cysts are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Follicular cyst

  • Cystadenoma papilliferum

  • Mature teratoma (dermoid cyst)

  • Colloid cyst

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

4

Which hormones play a role in breast diseases?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Somatropin

  • Oxytocin

  • Estrogen

  • Progesterone

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

4

How does the breast cancer metastasise?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Primarily via lymphogenic spread

  • Distantly via hematogenous spread

  • Fibro-epithelial spread

  • Apocrine spread

Explanation

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