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General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (201-300)- 3rd Year- PMU

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General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (201-300)- 3rd Year- PMU

Question 1 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for anemic infarction.

Select one or more of the following:

  • the term is synonym of white infarction

  • the term is synonym of red infarction

  • it develops as a result of absolute ischemia after total obstruction of an "end-type artery"

  • it mainly affects the lungs and liver

Explanation

Question 2 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for hemorrhagic infarction.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it develops in organs with double circulation

  • it mainly affects the brain and the heart

  • it affects organs which have contact with the outside environment

  • it may affect the small intestine

Explanation

Question 3 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for gangrene.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is ischemic necrosis which develops in organs with contact with the external environment

  • it can be wet or dry

  • the dry gangrene is accompanied by severe bacterial infection

  • it can develop on the extremities, intestines, spleen and kidney

Explanation

Question 4 of 100

1

Which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • ramolicio cerebri

  • encephalomalacia

  • infarctus anemicus cerebri

  • hydrocephalus

Explanation

Question 5 of 100

1

Which of the followings are not affected by gangrene?

Select one or more of the following:

  • lower limb

  • liver

  • lung

  • intestines

Explanation

Question 6 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the spleen?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • fibrinoid necrosis

Explanation

Question 7 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • caseous necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • steatonecrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

Explanation

Question 8 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the pancreas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • steatonecrosis/fat necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

Explanation

Question 9 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • caseous necrosis

  • steatonecrosis

Explanation

Question 10 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for coagulative necrosis.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it develops in organs composed mainly of proteins and containing less water and enzymes

  • "shadows" of previous structures can be seen microscopically

  • it develops as a result of acute pancreatitis

  • there is total effacement of the previous structures microscopically

Explanation

Question 11 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for liquefactive necrosis.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it develops in organs composed mainly of proteins and containing less water and enzymes

  • it develops in organs which have less proteins but more water and enzymes

  • it can be seen in the spleen, kidneys, heart

  • it is most commonly seen in the brain

Explanation

Question 12 of 100

1

In which type of necrosis deposition of sodium, calcium and potassium salts (soaps) can be seen in the cytoplasm of the affected cells?

Select one or more of the following:

  • fibrinoid necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • steatonecrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

Explanation

Question 13 of 100

1

What is decubitus/bed sore?

Select one or more of the following:

  • clinicoanatomical form of necrosis

  • it develops in bed-ridden patients because of the damaged circulation caused by long-term pressure

  • it develops most commonly at the sacro-lumbar region and on the heels d) it develops usually on the abdomen, chest and knees

  • it develops ususally on the abdomen, chest and knees

Explanation

Question 14 of 100

1

Indicate the correct type of cells according to their capacity of proliferation.

Select one or more of the following:

  • cardiomyocites and striated muscle cells are labile cells

  • hepatocytes are permanent cells

  • the epithelial cells of the gastrointestinal tract are labile cells

  • the epithelial cells of the respiratory tract are stable cells

Explanation

Question 15 of 100

1

What is pseudo-hypertrophy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • when there is hypertrophy of the parenchymal cells but the organ looks smaller in size

  • when the organ looks bigger in size but there is only hypertrophy of the stromal elements

  • when the organ is normal in size but there is hypertrophy of the parenchymal cells

  • when the organ is normal in size but there is atrophy of the parenchymal cells

Explanation

Question 16 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for metaplasia.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it has two subtypes — prosoplasia and anaplasia

  • it can be direct and indirect

  • it is the transformation of one differentiated tissue into another related tissue type

  • it is the transformation of on tissue into cancerous tissue

Explanation

Question 17 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is a process of disordered cellular development

  • it can develop in soft tissues

  • it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin

  • it is an adaptive process

Explanation

Question 18 of 100

1

Which of the following tissues can undergo hypertrophy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • heart muscle

  • brain membranes

  • striated muscles

  • endothelium of big vessels

Explanation

Question 19 of 100

1

Which of the following tissues can undergo hyperplasia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • glandular mucosa of the uterus

  • glandular structures of the prostate

  • red bone marrow

  • smooth muscle cells of the uterus

Explanation

Question 20 of 100

1

Corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the glands of uterine mucosa

  • the glands of prostate

  • the kidney's convoluted tubules

  • the follicles of thyroid gland

Explanation

Question 21 of 100

1

How does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly?

Select one or more of the following:

  • enlarged in size

  • smaller in size

  • papillary muscles are hypertrophic

  • increased heart weight

Explanation

Question 22 of 100

1

Hyperplasia of the endometrium can be:

Select one or more of the following:

  • direct and indirect

  • typical and atypical

  • with formation of cysts or with formation of pseudo-cysts

  • diffuse and localized

Explanation

Question 23 of 100

1

What are the complications of prostate hyperplasia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • urinary retention, frequent urinary tract infections

  • sexual dysfunction

  • transitional cell carcinoma

  • hydronephrosis

Explanation

Question 24 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for brown atrophy of the liver.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it can happen because of aging

  • it can happen because of infection diseases or starvation

  • it can happen because of chronic right sided heart failure

  • it can be result of Budd-Chiari syndrome

Explanation

Question 25 of 100

1

Which is the pigment of aging?

Select one or more of the following:

  • bilirubin

  • hemosiderin

  • lipofuscin

  • hematoidin

Explanation

Question 26 of 100

1

Which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelium?

Select one or more of the following:

  • squamous carcinoma of the bronchus

  • chronic bronchitis

  • small-cell carcinoma

  • adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

Explanation

Question 27 of 100

1

Post-ischemic, post-compressive, collateral and angioneurotic are types of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic systemic venous congestion

  • acute venous congestion

  • arterial hyperemia

  • non of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 100

1

Which is the term used for edematous fluid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • exudate

  • transudate

  • haemorrhage

  • cyst

Explanation

Question 29 of 100

1

Which are the main characteristics of the transudate?

Select one or more of the following:

  • specific gravity is less than 1016

  • specific gravity is more than 1016

  • protein content is less than 3%

  • protein content is more than 3%

Explanation

Question 30 of 100

1

Epistaxis and melena are examples for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • edema

  • exudate

  • haemorrhages

  • venous congestion

Explanation

Question 31 of 100

1

What is hemascos?

Select one or more of the following:

  • blood in the urine

  • blood in the peritoneal cavity

  • blood in the excrement

  • blood vomiting

Explanation

Question 32 of 100

1

What is hematemesis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • blood vomiting

  • blood in the excrements

  • nose bleeding

  • bleeding from the lungs

Explanation

Question 33 of 100

1

What is hemoptoe

Select one or more of the following:

  • bleeding from the nose

  • bleeding from the lungs

  • blood vomiting

  • blood in the pleural cavity

Explanation

Question 34 of 100

1

Which are the causes for liver cyanosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • shock

  • chronic right sided heart failure

  • acute right sided heart failure

  • thrombosis of the hepatic veins

Explanation

Question 35 of 100

1

Which are the causes for nutmeg liver?

Select one or more of the following:

  • acute right sided heart failure

  • chronic left and right sided heart failure

  • chronic left sided heart failure

  • chronic right sided heart failure

Explanation

Question 36 of 100

1

Which of the following organ changes might be of straight or reverse type?

Select one or more of the following:

  • nutmeg liver

  • cyanosis of the liver

  • cyanosis of the kidneys

  • brown induration of the lungs

Explanation

Question 37 of 100

1

Which of the following liver changes is reversible?

Select one or more of the following:

  • liver cirrhosis

  • liver cyanosis

  • nutmeg liver

  • liver amyloidosis

Explanation

Question 38 of 100

1

Pin-point hemorrhages in the brain have usually the following pathogenesis:

Select one or more of the following:

  • per diapedesin

  • per rhexin

  • per diabrosin

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 39 of 100

1

Can thrombosis develop after death?

Select one or more of the following:

  • yes, this is why we can see blood clots in the vessels after death

  • no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime

  • it can develop both during life and after death

  • It develops in the agony preceding death

Explanation

Question 40 of 100

1

What is characteristic for the thrombus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • dry, crumbly, layered structure

  • moist, homogenous strucure

  • attached to the vessel's wall

  • unattached to the vessel's wall

Explanation

Question 41 of 100

1

What is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot?

Select one or more of the following:

  • dry, crumbly, layered structure

  • moist, homogenous structure

  • attached to the vessel's wall

  • unattached to the vessel's wall

Explanation

Question 42 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus.

Select one or more of the following:

  • gas, air, amniotic

  • thromboembolism, fat embolism

  • arterial, venous

  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxal

Explanation

Question 43 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow.

Select one or more of the following:

  • gas, air, thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, parasite

  • orthograde, retrograde

  • arterial, venous

  • paradoxical

Explanation

Question 44 of 100

1

Indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel

Select one or more of the following:

  • thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, gas, air embolism

  • arterial

  • venous

  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical

Explanation

Question 45 of 100

1

Is it possible to prevent embolism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • no, it is something we cannot control or prevent

  • yes, by using anticoagulants

  • yes, by exercise in bed ridden patient and early getting up from bed after operation

  • yes, by staying in bed without moving after operation

Explanation

Question 46 of 100

1

In which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • in organs with nutritive and functional blood circulation

  • in organs with nutritive circulation only

  • in organs with many anastomoses

  • hemorrhagic infarction can develop in any organ

Explanation

Question 47 of 100

1

Indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible.

Select one or more of the following:

  • liver

  • heart

  • lung

  • intestine

Explanation

Question 48 of 100

1

How can we prove amniotic embolism?

Select one or more of the following:

  • microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the left heart ventricle

  • grossly, by finding amniotic fluid in the right heart ventricle

  • microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs

  • grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs

Explanation

Question 49 of 100

1

Why does gas embolism develop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially azotic oxide, caused by fast decompression

  • because of the dissolution of bood gases, especially type, caused by fast compression

  • because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

  • because the positive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

Explanation

Question 50 of 100

1

What is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction the lung?

Select one or more of the following:

  • double circulation of the lung

  • thrombosis of a branch of a. broncialis

  • thrombosis of a branch of a. pulmonalis

  • chronic venous stagnation

Explanation

Question 51 of 100

1

What is the most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri posterior

  • thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris

Explanation

Question 52 of 100

1

What is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • fresh liquefactive necrosis

  • brain cyst

  • brain pseudocyst

  • irregular red-coloured area

Explanation

Question 53 of 100

1

In which cases inflammation is injuring the tissues instead of protecting them?

Select one or more of the following:

  • in autoimmune diseases

  • in neoplastic diseases

  • in immunodeficiency diseases

  • in congenital anomalies

Explanation

Question 54 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statements

Select one or more of the following:

  • gangrene of the appendix and gangrenous appendicitis are synonyms of one same disease

  • severe inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis leads to necrosis, while in gangrene of the appendix the necrosis is ischemic

  • gangrene of the appendix means necrosis of the appendix while gangrenous appendicitis means severe purulent inflammation of the appendix without necrosis

  • inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis is a primary process, while in gangrene the inflammation is secondary after the necrosis

Explanation

Question 55 of 100

1

What is catarrhal inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • type of acute inflammation

  • subtype of serous inflammation in the respiratory tract

  • subtype of fibrinous inflammation in the respiratory tract

  • subtype of serous inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract

Explanation

Question 56 of 100

1

What is putrefactive inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • synonym of gangrenous inflammation

  • type of acute inflammation

  • type of chronic inflammation

  • subtype of purulent inflammation

Explanation

Question 57 of 100

1

Which are the subtypes of fibrinous inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • phegmona

  • hemorrhagic

  • superficial (crouposa)

  • deep (diphtheria)

Explanation

Question 58 of 100

1

Which are the subtypes of purulent inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • limited, called abscess

  • limited, called phegmona

  • diffuse called abscess

  • diffuse called phlegmona

Explanation

Question 59 of 100

1

Hemorrhagic, purulent, fibrinous, gangrenous, serous are types of:

Select one of the following:

  • acute inflammation

  • chronic inflammation

Explanation

Question 60 of 100

1

Indicate type(s) of acute inflammation.

Select one or more of the following:

  • polyp

  • specific granuloma and non specific granuloma

  • purulent, serous, fibrinous

  • productive

Explanation

Question 61 of 100

1

The gross appearance "Ribbon-like fibrin deposits on the pericardium" describes:

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic pericarditis

  • fibrinous myocarditis

  • fibrinous pericarditis

  • acute pericarditis

Explanation

Question 62 of 100

1

Which are the cells that infiltrate the whole thickness of the appendix in phlegmonous appendicitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • basophiles

  • neutrophils

  • giant multinucleated cells

Explanation

Question 63 of 100

1

What is typical for purulent lepto-meningitis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by lymphocytes

  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by neutrophils

  • yellow-green exudate seen usually on the convex side of the brain

  • clear cerebro-spinal fluid

Explanation

Question 64 of 100

1

Which are the cells of acute inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • giant cells

  • macrophages

  • lymphocytes

  • neutrophils

Explanation

Question 65 of 100

1

Which are the systemic signs of inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • leukocytosis

  • fever

  • rubor, dolor, calor

  • tumor, funcio laesa

Explanation

Question 66 of 100

1

Which are the local signs of acute inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • calor, tumor, rubor

  • fever

  • dolor, funcio laesa

  • shock

Explanation

Question 67 of 100

1

Which cells are the first line of defense in acute inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • lymphocytes

  • macrophages

  • neutrophils

  • monocytes

Explanation

Question 68 of 100

1

Which are the main histological signs for chronic inflammatory process?

Select one or more of the following:

  • presence of exudate

  • lack of exudate

  • abundance of cells — lymphocytes, plasma cells, epitheloid cells, giant cells, fibroblasts

  • abundance of cells —neutrophils

Explanation

Question 69 of 100

1

Granulation tissue develops:

Select one or more of the following:

  • after necrosis

  • because of chronic inflammation

  • because of catarrhal inflammaton

  • in relation to wound-healing

Explanation

Question 70 of 100

1

Indicate the correct answer.

Select one or more of the following:

  • Lipo-granuloma and oleo-granuoma are examples of foreign body granulomas

  • Lipogranuloma and oleograuloma are examples of specific granulomas

  • Oleogranuloma means granuloma against exogenous lipids, while lipogranuloma means granuloma against endogenous lipids

  • Oleogranuloma means granuloma against endogenus Ipids while lipogranuloma means granuloma against exogenous lipids

Explanation

Question 71 of 100

1

Indicate the correct statement(s).

Select one or more of the following:

  • the acute abscess doesn't have its own membrane

  • the chronic abscess has specific membrane called pyogenic

  • both acute and chronic abscess have pyogenic membranes

  • pyogenic membrane is typical only for acute abscess

Explanation

Question 72 of 100

1

Which of the following is not microscopic characteristic of granulation tissue?

Select one or more of the following:

  • abundance of capillaries with plump endothelial cells

  • abundance of strong fibrin fibers

  • abundance of lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages, fibroblasts

  • abundance of neutrophils, eosinophils and basophiles

Explanation

Question 73 of 100

1

Indicate the types of chronic inflammation

Select one or more of the following:

  • diffuse (interstitial)

  • fibrinous

  • polypoid

  • granulomatous

Explanation

Question 74 of 100

1

What is the outcome of granulation tissue?

Select one or more of the following:

  • necrosis

  • scar

  • tumor

  • abscess

Explanation

Question 75 of 100

1

What is a nasal polyp?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic inflammation of the nasal mucosa

  • acute inflammation of the nasal mucosa

  • it is usually related to allergy

  • it is a benign tumor developing in the nose

Explanation

Question 76 of 100

1

The giant cells type "foreign body" are derived from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • lymphocytes

  • neutrophiles

  • macrophages

  • epitheloid cells

Explanation

Question 77 of 100

1

Which of the following cannot cause foreign body granuloma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • surgical threads

  • parasites

  • fungi

  • lipids

Explanation

Question 78 of 100

1

Hydatid cysts affect most commonly:

Select one or more of the following:

  • the brain

  • the heart

  • the spleen

  • the liver

Explanation

Question 79 of 100

1

Which is the second most commonly affected organ by hydatid cysts?

Select one or more of the following:

  • brain

  • liver

  • lung

  • kidney

Explanation

Question 80 of 100

1

The following description indicates: Focal aggregates in the form of nodules of cells with phagocytic ability. The diameter of these nodules is no more than 1-2mm, in many cases they are seen only microscopically.

Select one or more of the following:

  • granulomas

  • metastases

  • polyps

  • granulation tissue

Explanation

Question 81 of 100

1

Which are the main signs of granulomatous inflammation?

Select one or more of the following:

  • formation of specific exudate and granulation tissue

  • diffuse infiltration of lymphocytes and pasma cells

  • formation of specific or non-specific granulomas

  • formation of polyps

Explanation

Question 82 of 100

1

Which are the factors that lead to formation of granulomas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • difficulties in phagocytosis of the pathological agent

  • the immune reaction of the organism

  • specific structures of the pathological agents

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 83 of 100

1

What does the term 'specific inflammation' mean?

Select one or more of the following:

  • type of granulomatous inflammation which characterizes with specific arrangement of the chronic inflammatory cells, pathognomonic for a particular etiologic agent

  • type of granulomatous inflammation with disordered arrangement of the inflammatory cells

  • diffuse infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • type of granulomatous inflammation which characterizes with specific arrangement of the acute inflammatory cells, pathognomonic for a particular etiologic agent

Explanation

Question 84 of 100

1

What type of productive inflammation develops around parasites?

Select one or more of the following:

  • specific granulomatous inflammation

  • non-specific granulomatous inflammation

  • polypoid inflammation

  • diffuse inflammation

Explanation

Question 85 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the tuberculous granuloma?

Select one or more of the following:

  • caseous necrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • coagulative necrosis

  • fibrinoid necrosis

Explanation

Question 86 of 100

1

Which of the following cells are seen in tuberculomas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Giant cells type Langhans

  • Epitheloid cells

  • Tuton giant cells

  • Lymphocytes

Explanation

Question 87 of 100

1

The giant cells type Langhans are derived from:

Select one or more of the following:

  • macrophages

  • epitheloid cells

  • lymphocytes

  • monocytes

Explanation

Question 88 of 100

1

Which giant cells have specific peripheral arrangement of the nuclei like horse-shoe

Select one or more of the following:

  • Tuton giant cells

  • Foreign body giant cells

  • Langhans giant cells

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 89 of 100

1

In which stage of syphilis do the specific luetic granulomas develop?

Select one or more of the following:

  • first

  • second

  • third

  • they develop in all stages

Explanation

Question 90 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in luetic granulomas?

Select one or more of the following:

  • clay-like

  • caseous

  • liquefactive

  • coagulative

Explanation

Question 91 of 100

1

What type of necrosis develops in the cat-scratch disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • caseous

  • coagulative

  • liquefactive

  • gummous

Explanation

Question 92 of 100

1

Mark the correct answer(s) about actinomycosis.

Select one or more of the following:

  • has three stages of development

  • has cervical, abdominal and thoracic forms

  • grossly, granular substance might be seen in the pus

  • grossly, rubbery lesions with central necrosis are seen in the affected organs

Explanation

Question 93 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Lack of necrosis, abundance of epitheloid cell, Langhans cells, collagen fibres, Shaumann bodies.

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • rheumatism

  • syphilis

Explanation

Question 94 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a grauloma: Gummous necrosis, surrounded by epitheloid cells, single Langhans cells, abundance of plasma cells, less lymphocytes, fibroblasts.

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • rheumatism

  • syphilis

Explanation

Question 95 of 100

1

The sulfur granule is characteristic for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • felinosis

  • actinomycosis

  • leprosy

Explanation

Question 96 of 100

1

Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description Of a granuloma. Fibrinoid necrosis, surrouned by abundant lymphocytes, plasma cells, many cells of Anichkov and pathognomonic cells of Aschoff.

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • rheumatoid arthritis

  • syphilis

  • rheumatism

Explanation

Question 97 of 100

1

What changes can be seen in the immune organs in immune deficiency?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyperplasia

  • hypoplasia

  • atrophy

  • hypertrophy

Explanation

Question 98 of 100

1

What histological changes could be seen in thyroid in Hashimoto thyroiditis.

Select one or more of the following:

  • unchanged

  • infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells

  • fibrosis

  • formation of lymph follicles

Explanation

Question 99 of 100

1

The histological changes in Hashimoto thyroiditis affect:

Select one of the following:

  • entire thyroid gland

  • markedly focal

Explanation

Question 100 of 100

1

The thyroid follicles in Hashimoto thyroiditis are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • unchanged

  • dilated

  • polymorphous

  • smaller

Explanation