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General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (111-200)- 3rd Year- PMU

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General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (111-200)- 3rd Year- PMU

Question 1 of 90

1

What is pathology?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the science that studies the changes at cellular, tissue and organ level caused by diseases

  • the science that studies the body structure and morphology

  • medical discipline which aims to find the cause of death when a crime is suspected

  • medical discipline which provides the morphological diagnosis for the clinical practice

Explanation

Question 2 of 90

1

Define the main branches of pathology

Select one or more of the following:

  • general pathology

  • clinical pathology

  • systemic pathology

  • experimental pathology

Explanation

Question 3 of 90

1

Mark the correct statements.

Select one or more of the following:

  • "clinical pathology" builds up a theoretical idea of the pathological process

  • "general pathology" studies the specific morphological changes in organs and systems caused by a particular disease

  • 'experimental pathology" researches the diseases using experimental animals and follows up the morphological changes caused by their treatment.

  • a and b statements are correct in reverse manner

Explanation

Question 4 of 90

1

What are the possible outcomes of a disease.

Select one or more of the following:

  • recovery

  • to become chronic

  • death

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 5 of 90

1

Which of the following isn't a sign of death?

Select one or more of the following:

  • livores

  • rigor mortis

  • decay

  • calor

Explanation

Question 6 of 90

1

Mark the correct statement(s)

Select one or more of the following:

  • Algor mortis is stiffness of muscles after death

  • Rigor mortis is drying of the body after death

  • Livores are a violet-colored skin areas which develop after death

  • Decay is an early sign of death

Explanation

Question 7 of 90

1

Which are the specific methods of pathology?

Select one or more of the following:

  • autopsy

  • biopsy

  • clinical examination

  • clinical laboratory tests

Explanation

Question 8 of 90

1

Which of the followings are methods for taking biopsy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • excision

  • incision

  • surgical

  • all of the listed

Explanation

Question 9 of 90

1

Which are the purposes of pathological autopsy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • to accuse the clinicians of medical malpractice

  • to establish the cause of death and the definitive diagnosis

  • to help and educate clinicians and to improve their work

  • to help the relatives of the deceased to convict the doctors

Explanation

Question 10 of 90

1

Which are the conditions for an autopsy to be done?

Select one or more of the following:

  • death occurred in a hospital due to a disease

  • available medical history of the patient

  • presence of the treating doctor

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 11 of 90

1

What are the characteristics of a frozen section?

Select one or more of the following:

  • urgent diagnosis given during an operation

  • the preparation of the tissue samples is done by a paraffin method

  • the preparation of the tissue samples is done on a freezing microtome

  • sometimes the diagnosis is not exactly clear because of the preparation method but information like "malignant tumor" "benign tumor" or "inflammation" is given to the surgeons to know how to proceed with the operation

Explanation

Question 12 of 90

1

Which fixative is most commonly used?

Select one or more of the following:

  • bouin solution

  • absolute alcohol

  • formalin 10%

  • salts of heavy metals

Explanation

Question 13 of 90

1

What fixative should be used for a liver biopsy from a baby with a suspected inherited metabolic disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Formalin 10%

  • 1.5-4% glutaraldehyde

  • Frozen section

  • Zenker's fixative

Explanation

Question 14 of 90

1

What is the role of immunohistochemical stains?

Select one or more of the following:

  • to give urgent answers about the diagnosis or at least orientation about the pathological process during surgery

  • to determine the histogenesis of the tumor especially in highly undifferentiated malignant tumors

  • to determine the proliferative activity and the hormonal receptors of the tumor that is highly important for the treatment

  • to help determine the cause of death

Explanation

Question 15 of 90

1

Cytokeratin, S-100 protein, Vimentin, Desmin, CD-20 are examples of:

Select one of the following:

  • special stains to prove different substances

  • immunohistochemical markers

Explanation

Question 16 of 90

1

In which cases a pathological autopsy is performed?

Select one or more of the following:

  • when there is suspicion for diagnostic or therapeutic malpractice

  • death of a person outside the hospital

  • when there is suspicion of violent death

  • death of a patient in the hospital and when the relatives don't ask the principal to cancel the autopsy

Explanation

Question 17 of 90

1

Which of the followings is not a part of performing an autopsy?

Select one or more of the following:

  • dissection of organs

  • opening the body

  • taking biopsy from organ changes

  • extraction of abdominal and thoracic organs

Explanation

Question 18 of 90

1

Size, shape, elasticity, consistency, color and cut surface are characteristics of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • microscopic examination of organs

  • gross examination of organs

  • ultramicroscopic examination of organs

  • none of the listed

Explanation

Question 19 of 90

1

Indicate correctly the name of the described test.
The pericardial sac is cut in Y-like section and filled with water, after that, in the presence of a witness, the right ventricle is punctured with a knife.

Select one or more of the following:

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for pneumothorax

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for fat embolism

Explanation

Question 20 of 90

1

Indicate correctly the name of the described test.
The pulmonary artery is cut at the place of truncus pulmonalis. Tweezers are inserted and the content of the artery is taken out for examinationion.

Select one or more of the following:

  • test for pneumothorax

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for fat embolism

Explanation

Question 21 of 90

1

Indicate correctly the name of the described test.
A pocket between the skin and the ribs is formed and is filled with water. In the presence of a witness, the thorax is punctured with a thin knife in an intercostal space.

Select one or more of the following:

  • test for air and gas embolism

  • test for fat embolism

  • test for thromboembolism

  • test for pneumothorax

Explanation

Question 22 of 90

1

Where is the main accumulation of glycogen in patients with diabetes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • in epithelial cells of convoluted tubules and Henle's loop

  • in epithelial cells of gastrointestinal mucosa

  • in the nuclei and in the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes

  • endothelial cells of the vessels

Explanation

Question 23 of 90

1

Mark the correct statement(s) for Mallory bodies?

Select one or more of the following:

  • they are accumulations of glycogen in the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes

  • they are hyaline inclusions in the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes

  • they are caused by consumption of toxic mushrooms

  • they are seen in Wilson's disease, liver cancer, primary biliary cirrhosis but mainly in alcoholic disease

Explanation

Question 24 of 90

1

Mark the correct statement(s) for Von Gierke's disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is a genetic autosome-recessive disease

  • another name is glycogenosis type Il

  • it affects mainly the heart leading to severe heart failure in infants

  • there is excessive storage of normal glycogen in the liver and kidneys

Explanation

Question 25 of 90

1

Mark the correct statement(s) for cellular edema

Select one or more of the following:

  • it is abnormal accumulation of water in the cytoplasm

  • it is reversible cellular injury

  • cells are small and shrunken

  • there are a few etiological factors that caused cellular edema

Explanation

Question 26 of 90

1

Abnormal intracellular accumulation of proteins can be seen in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • the epithelial cells of the proximal tubules in proteinuria

  • in the cardiomyocytes in heart infarction

  • in the plasma cells in chronic inflammatory diseases as Russel's bodies

  • in the cells of pancreatic islets in diabetes mellitus

Explanation

Question 27 of 90

1

The abnormal inclusions in the hepatocytes in alpha-I antitrypsin deficiency are composed of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • glycogen

  • lipids

  • bile

  • proteins

Explanation

Question 28 of 90

1

"Hyaline droplets" in the epithelial cells of renal tubules is another name for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • glycogen inclusions

  • protein inclusions

  • vacuolar degeneration

  • lipid inclusions

Explanation

Question 29 of 90

1

Vacuolar degeneration and hydropic degeneration are more severe stages of:

Select one or more of the following:

  • fatty degeneration

  • protein degeneration

  • cellular edema

  • glycogen accumulation

Explanation

Question 30 of 90

1

PAS reaction with PAS control is used to distinguish:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Cholesterol from other lipids

  • Glycogen from mucus

  • DNA from RNA

  • Denaturated intracellular proteins from accumulated extracellular proteins

Explanation

Question 31 of 90

1

PAS —control is done using:

Select one or more of the following:

  • sulfuric acid

  • hydrochloric acid

  • amylase

  • picric acid

Explanation

Question 32 of 90

1

What is fatty degeneration?

Select one or more of the following:

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in parenchymal cells

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in the specialized fatty cells

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in the ECM of an organ

  • abnormal accumulation of cholesterol in the large and medium-sized vessels

Explanation

Question 33 of 90

1

What is lipomatosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in parenchymal cells

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in the specialized fatty cells

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in the cells of the interstitium of an organ

  • abnormal accumulation of cholesterol in the large and medium-sized vessels

Explanation

Question 34 of 90

1

What is obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in parenchymal cells

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in the specialized fatty cells

  • abnormal accumulation of lipids in the cells of the interstitium of an organ

  • abnormal accumulation of cholesterol in the large and medium-sized vessels

Explanation

Question 35 of 90

1

What is the relation between fatty degeneration of the liver and diabetes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • there is no relation between them

  • patients with diabetes have increased intake of lipids to provide more energy

  • the fatty liver in diabetes is caused by increased lipolysis and increased delivery of fatty acids in the liver

  • the fatty liver leads to diabetes mellitus

Explanation

Question 36 of 90

1

What is android type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called "male"or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female"or "pear"type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 37 of 90

1

What is gynoid type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called "male"or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female"or "pear"type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 38 of 90

1

What is upper type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called "male"or "apple" type, accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female"or "pear"type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 39 of 90

1

What is lower type of obesity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • also called "male"or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist

  • also called "female"or "pear"type — accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs

  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax

  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Explanation

Question 40 of 90

1

Which type of obesity has worse prognosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gynoid type

  • male type

  • the obesity doesn't affect the patient's health

  • all of the obesity types have the same prognosis

Explanation

Question 41 of 90

1

In "tiger heart" the abnormal accumulation of lipids is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • in the cell of the heart's interstitium

  • in the cells around the pericardium

  • in the cardiomyocytes of the papillary muscles along the venules and the venous part of the capillaries

  • in the cardiomyocytes of the anterior wall of the left heart chamber

Explanation

Question 42 of 90

1

Which exogenous pigment could be accumulated in the eyes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • copper

  • lead

  • coal dust

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 43 of 90

1

Which exogenous pigment could be deposited in the oral cavity?

Select one or more of the following:

  • coal dust

  • copper

  • lead

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 44 of 90

1

Which exogenous pigment(s) could be deposited in the skin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • carotene

  • silver

  • tattoo ink

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 45 of 90

1

Which exogenous pigments could be deposited in the liver?

Select one or more of the following:

  • copper

  • silver

  • tattoo ink

  • coal dust

Explanation

Question 46 of 90

1

Which exogenous pigment could be deposited in the kidney?

Select one or more of the following:

  • coal dust

  • copper

  • silver

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 47 of 90

1

Which exogenous pigment could be deposited in the lungs and lymph nodes?

Select one or more of the following:

  • coal dust

  • carotene

  • tattoo ink

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 48 of 90

1

Which exogenous pigment could be deposited in the brain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • coal dust

  • carotene

  • copper

  • tattoo ink

Explanation

Question 49 of 90

1

Examples for non-organic pigments are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • coal dust

  • lead

  • carotene

  • silver

Explanation

Question 50 of 90

1

Indicate the types of jaundice.

Select one or more of the following:

  • haemolytic/pre-hepatic

  • obstructive/ post-hepatic

  • hepatocellular/parenchymal

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 51 of 90

1

Haemolytic jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings:

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypoholic or acholic stool, increased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 52 of 90

1

Mechanical jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings:

Select one or more of the following:

  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 53 of 90

1

Parenchymal jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings:

Select one or more of the following:

  • inceased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine

  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine

  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 54 of 90

1

Which of the following stains are used to prove hemosiderin?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Sudan Ill in orange colour

  • Congo-Rod in brick-red colour

  • Perls in blue-green colour

  • Van Gieson in red colour

Explanation

Question 55 of 90

1

What is the etiology of brown induration of the lungs?

Select one or more of the following:

  • chronic left sided heart failure'

  • chronic right sided heart failure

  • mitral valve stenosis

  • acute left sided heart failure

Explanation

Question 56 of 90

1

What is the common between fibrosis, sclerosis and cirrhosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the common is the increased development of connective tissue in the organ

  • the common is the lipid accumulation in the intetitium of the organ

  • the common is the fibrinoid degeneration of the organ

  • they are different processes and don't have anything common between them

Explanation

Question 57 of 90

1

Which of the following extracellular changes shows basophilia on H-E stain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • fibrinoid degeneration

  • hyalinosis

  • mucoid degeneration

  • amyloidosis

Explanation

Question 58 of 90

1

Which of the following changes are characterized by eosinophilia on H-E stain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • mucoid degeneration

  • vacuolar degeneration

  • fibrinoid necrosis

  • fibrinoid degeneration

Explanation

Question 59 of 90

1

Metachromasia can be seen in which of the following changes on ToluidinBlue stain?

Select one or more of the following:

  • fibrinoid degeneration

  • mucoid degeneration

  • fibrinoid necrosis

  • hyalinosis

Explanation

Question 60 of 90

1

Special stains for fibrin are also used in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • fibrinoid degeneration

  • fibrinoid necrosis

  • mucoid degeneration

  • amyoidosis

Explanation

Question 61 of 90

1

Infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells is typical for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • mucoid edema

  • fibrinoid necrosis

  • fibrinoid degeneration

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 62 of 90

1

What is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the heart arterioles?

Select one or more of the following:

  • it causes myocarditis

  • it causes rheumatic heart disease

  • it causes ishaemic heart disease

  • it cause subacute endocarditis

Explanation

Question 63 of 90

1

What is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the pancreatic arteroles?

Select one or more of the following:

  • it can cause diabetes mellitus

  • it can cause pancreatic cancer

  • it can cause acute pancreatitis

  • hyalinosis in the pancreas is a physiological process related with ageing

Explanation

Question 64 of 90

1

What is the common between "glazed spleen" and corpus albicans ovarii?

Select one or more of the following:

  • the process in both is hyalinosis

  • the process in both is fibrosis

  • the process in both is fibrinoid degeneration

  • the process in both is amyloidosis

Explanation

Question 65 of 90

1

Which stain is used to prove rheumatism in acute stage in a heart valve?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Prussian Blue

  • Toluidin-Blue

  • Congo-Red

  • Perls

Explanation

Question 66 of 90

1

Mucoid swelling can be seen in:

Select one or more of the following:

  • Heart valves in rheumatism

  • Basedow's dermopathy

  • Myxedema

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 67 of 90

1

Which are the types of fibrinoid?

Select one or more of the following:

  • fibrinoid related to immune complexes in autoimmune diseases

  • physiological fibrinoid degeneration with aging

  • fibrinoid caused by the influence of biological, chemical and physical factors

  • fibrinoid caused by fast plasmorrhagia in the vessel walls in malignant hypertention

Explanation

Question 68 of 90

1

The necrosis which develops at the base of an acute or chronic active ulcer in the stomach or duodenum is:

Select one or more of the following:

  • coagulative

  • caseous

  • fibrinoid

  • liquefactive

Explanation

Question 69 of 90

1

Which degeneration in the extracellular matrix is seen during the acute stages of autoimmune diseases?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyaline

  • fibrinoid

  • amyloid

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 70 of 90

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for nephrosclerosis arteriolosclerotica:

Select one or more of the following:

  • it affects microscopically the afferent and efferent arterioles

  • it is a result of prolonged benign hypertention

  • it is a reversible process

  • the process is hyalinosis

Explanation

Question 71 of 90

1

What are the microscopic changes seen in the brain in benign long-term hypertention?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hyalinosis of the vessels' walls

  • edema around vessels

  • accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the soft brain membranes

  • developments of specific granulomas in the brain tissue

Explanation

Question 72 of 90

1

The gross description: thick, hard, glassy whitish depositions, non-digestable by enzymes, is indicative for

Select one or more of the following:

  • steatonecrosis

  • liquefactive necrosis

  • hyalinosis

  • fibrinoid deposition

Explanation

Question 73 of 90

1

Mark the correct statements for Corpus albicans ovarii (white bodies of the ovaries).

Select one or more of the following:

  • they are example of physiological hyalinosis

  • they are example for pathological hyalinosis after inflammatory processes in the ovaries

  • they are example for physiological accumulation of fibrinoid

  • they develop after the regression of corpus luteum

Explanation

Question 74 of 90

1

The following diseases are examples of amyloid depositions. Find the mistake!

Select one or more of the following:

  • rheumatoid arthritis — AA amyloid

  • multiple myeloma — AL amyloid

  • medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland — AA amyloid

  • Alzheimer's disease — A4 amyloid

Explanation

Question 75 of 90

1

'Sago spleen and lardaceous spleen' are:

Select one or more of the following:

  • gross appearance of the localized (sago-spleen)and generalized (lardaceous spleen) amyloidosis of the spleen

  • sago spleen is amyloidosis of the spleen, while lardaceous spleen is hyalinosis of the spleen

  • gross appearance of the spleen in Hodgkin's lymphoma depending on the severity of the process

  • in lardaceous spleen the amyloid is deposited in the white pulp only, while in sago spleen both white and red pulp have amyloid deposition

Explanation

Question 76 of 90

1

Systemic amyloidosis is proven by a biopsy from?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gingiva

  • heart

  • fat tissue from abdominal wall

  • ileum

Explanation

Question 77 of 90

1

What type of calcification develops in the complicated atherosclerotic plaques?

Select one or more of the following:

  • metastatic

  • dystrophic

  • metabolic

  • physiological

Explanation

Question 78 of 90

1

Which are the causes for hypocalcaemia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • hypoparathyroidism

  • hyperparathyroidism

  • intoxication with vit. D

  • senile osteoporosis

Explanation

Question 79 of 90

1

What kind of gout can develop in a patient with leucemia?

Select one or more of the following:

  • gout caused by excessive consumption of meat and meat products

  • genetic gout caused by error in the metabolism of uric acid

  • renal injury because kidneys cannot excrete the excessive amount of uric acid

  • patients with leucosis never develop gout

Explanation

Question 80 of 90

1

Which of the following microscopic descriptions most likely suggest kidney amyloidosis? The stain is H-E in all the described specimens.

Select one or more of the following:

  • highly enlarged glomeruli, the capillary tufts filled almost all of the capsular space, capillary lumens are obliterated; pink homogeous substance is deposited also in the mesangium, in the basement membranes of the tubules and in the walls of the blood vessels

  • afferent and efferent arterioles have homogenously thick walls stained in pink, some of the glomeruli look smaller, with totally effaced structure and homogenously pink in color, while others may look normal in size, or even with compensatory hypertrophy.

  • the interstitium shows chronic inflammatory reaction, the main change is seen in the kidney tubules which look dilated and filled with pinkish substance (these tubules look like thyroid follicles)

  • many glomeruli show crescent proliferations, encompassing 2/3 f the Bowman's space; the process ends with global sclerosis of the gomerulus

Explanation

Question 81 of 90

1

Which of the following stain(s) is used to prove amyloidosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Perls

  • Congo-Red

  • Van Gieson

  • Methyl violet

Explanation

Question 82 of 90

1

Mark the correct statement(s) for kidney alymoidosis

Select one or more of the following:

  • small, shrunken kidneys with granular surface and difficult decapsulation

  • enlarged pale kidneys with waxy texture

  • amyloidosis affects only one of the kidneys and doesn't lead to chronic renal failure

  • kidney amyloidosis is reversible after the treatment of the primary disease and has very good prognosis

Explanation

Question 83 of 90

1

Mark the terms which indicate amyloidosis of the spleen.

Select one or more of the following:

  • lardaceous spleen

  • glazed spleen

  • sago spleen

  • porphiric spleen

Explanation

Question 84 of 90

1

Granulomatous structures, consisting of uric acid crystals, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts and giant multinucleated cells type "foreign body" are characteristic for which disease?

Select one or more of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • sarcoidosis

  • gout

  • brucellosis

Explanation

Question 85 of 90

1

Calcification of the aorta characterizes with:

Select one or more of the following:

  • hard, rigid wall of the aorta

  • soft, elastic wall of the aorta

  • can be complicated with mural thrombosis and aneurysm

  • is a result of metabolic calcification

Explanation

Question 86 of 90

1

Amyloidosis of the liver:

Select one or more of the following:

  • develops because of liver dysfunction and liver failure due to chronic liver disease

  • is characterized grossly with small, brown liver with decreased elasticity

  • can develop in chronic inflammatory diseases or in autoimmune diseases

  • is characterized grossly with enlarged, pale liver with waxy texture

Explanation

Question 87 of 90

1

Renal complications of gout include:

Select one or more of the following:

  • uric crystals nephrolithiasis

  • uric-acid infarction

  • urate nephropathy

  • all of the listed above

Explanation

Question 88 of 90

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for necrosis.

Select one or more of the following:

  • It is a programmed cell death

  • It is provoked cell death

  • It affects single cells and the extracellular matrix is not involved in the process

  • there is a demarcation inflammation at the periphery of the affected area

Explanation

Question 89 of 90

1

Indicate the correct statement(s) for apoptosis.

Select one or more of the following:

  • it affects single cells and the extracellular matrix is not involved

  • there is demarcation inflammation at the periphery of the affected area

  • it ends with phagocytosis of the cellular fragments

  • it is always accompanied by inflammation at the periphery of the area

Explanation

Question 90 of 90

1

What is the difference between fibrinoid degeneration and fibrinoid necrosis?

Select one or more of the following:

  • fibrinoid degeneration is accumulation of fibrinoid in the extracellular space while fibrinoid necrosis includes not only fibrinoid degeneration but also death of cells and extracellular components in the area of fibrinoid degeneration

  • these isn't any difference, the two terms are synonyms

  • fibrinoid degeneration is a physiological process while fibrinoid necrosis is a pathological process

  • fibrinoid degeneration is accumulation of fibrin in the extracellular matrix while fibrinoid necrosis is necrosis of the fibrin in the extracellular matrix

Explanation

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