Med Student
Quiz by , created more than 1 year ago

Microbiology MCQs 3rd Year Final- PMU

9544
28
0
Med Student
Created by Med Student over 6 years ago
Close

Microbiology MCQs 3rd Year Final- PMU

Question 1 of 152

1

The reaction of antibody with a non soluble antigen or an antigen-cated particles result in formation of visible to the eye clumb is called

Select one of the following:

  • agglutination

  • precipitation

  • neutralization

  • complement fixation test

Explanation

Question 2 of 152

1

ELlSA makes use of:

Select one of the following:

  • fluorenlubels

  • enzyme

  • radioactive lubels

  • It is not a labeled immune for...

Explanation

Question 3 of 152

1

widal from used to.....

Select one of the following:

  • slide agglutination test

  • tube agglutination

  • CUT

  • lectin pathway

Explanation

Question 4 of 152

1

Which of the following immunoglobulins may be transferes to the fetus during pregnancy

Select one of the following:

  • lgG

  • lgM

Explanation

Question 5 of 152

1

The genus specific name for group A streptococci is

Select one of the following:

  • streptococcus pneumonia

  • streptococcus viridans

  • streptococcus diphtheria

  • streptococcus pyogenes

Explanation

Question 6 of 152

1

The main pathogenic factor of corynebacterium diphtheria is

Select one of the following:

  • an endotoxin

  • an exotoxin

  • a spore

  • a protein

Explanation

Question 7 of 152

1

The specific prophylaxis of diphtheria is performed by

Select one of the following:

  • a toxoid

  • a killed vaccine

  • passive transfer at serum

  • a live vaccine

Explanation

Question 8 of 152

1

Which of the following statement concerning cholera infection is correct?

Select one of the following:

  • death occurs in 46 weeks exclusion and respiratory failure

  • the disease is marked by microorganism invasion and hemorrhage of large intestine

  • vibrio cholera produce an acute fehrile disease with

  • the disease is rapidly progressive and maybe fatal in 2 days because of bacterial multiplication in the gut and shock

Explanation

Question 9 of 152

1

Beta lactamase production is a major problem for treatment of infections caused by:

Select one of the following:

  • Corynebacterium diphtheria

  • Neisseria meningitides

  • Staphylococcus aureus

  • Treponemapallidum

Explanation

Question 10 of 152

1

HIV has been shown to be transmitted by one of the following except

Select one of the following:

  • Sexual contact

  • Perinatal infection

  • Mosquitos

  • Blood transfer

Explanation

Question 11 of 152

1

Each organism is identified by two names including:

Select one of the following:

  • family and kingdom

  • genus and species

  • family and species

  • family and genus

Explanation

Question 12 of 152

1

Fill the blank spaces to complete the text.

techniques of staining make use of only one dye,where as staining a combination of dyes?

Explanation

Question 13 of 152

1

Fill the blank space to complete the text.

The volutine granules of corynebacterium diptheria are visualized by Staining

Explanation

Question 14 of 152

1

The following structure are located in the cytoplasmic membrane?

Select one of the following:

  • spore

  • nucleotid

  • ribosomes

  • capsule

Explanation

Question 15 of 152

1

Based on their cell wall structure bacteria are divided into:

Select one of the following:

  • gram(+) and gram(-)

  • aerobe and anerobe

  • sphere and spinal

  • cocci and rods

Explanation

Question 16 of 152

1

Peptidoglycan polymers are found only in:

Select one of the following:

  • bacterial cell

  • animal cell

  • a,b

  • viruses

Explanation

Question 17 of 152

1

Flagella are present in every bacterium

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 18 of 152

1

Sporulation appears to be

Select one of the following:

  • an initiation of the bacterium cell

  • a reaction to conditions that are unfavorable for normal growth

  • a status to resist desiccation and other harmful conditions

  • a,b

  • b,c

Explanation

Question 19 of 152

1

The complete killing or removal of all microorganisms including bacterial spores is called?

Select one of the following:

  • sterilization

  • disinfection

  • antisepsis

  • non is true

Explanation

Question 20 of 152

1

Cytoplasm contains:

Select one of the following:

  • storage granules

  • spores

  • capsules

Explanation

Question 21 of 152

1

Which of following component are not found in the gram negative cell wall?

Select one of the following:

  • amino acids

  • lipopolysaccharides

  • peptidoglycan

  • teichoic acids

Explanation

Question 22 of 152

1

Pfeiffer technique of staining makes use of following dye?

Select one of the following:

  • methylene blue

  • ziehl’s fuchsine

  • neutral red

  • gentian violet

Explanation

Question 23 of 152

1

Which of the following structure contains genes for enzymes and antibiotic resistance

Select one of the following:

  • plasmld

  • pilli

  • capsules

  • plasma membrane

Explanation

Question 24 of 152

1

Which of the following is the most important structure related to microbial attachment to cells

Select one of the following:

  • flagella

  • plasmid

  • peptidoglycan

  • glycocalix

Explanation

Question 25 of 152

1

Which of the following is not a gram negative microbe

Select one of the following:

  • Clostridum perfringes

  • Vibrio cholerae

  • excheriehia

  • bordetella

Explanation

Question 26 of 152

1

What causes it to be pink

Select one of the following:

  • pheiffer's fuchsine

  • gram iodine

  • crystale violet

  • neisser

Explanation

Question 27 of 152

1

Selective media are designed to

Select one of the following:

  • support the growth of the desires microorganisms

  • inhibit the growth of non-desired microorganisms

  • a+b

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 28 of 152

1

Which part of the antibody molecule reacts with the antigenic determinant agent

Select one of the following:

  • the fab fragment

  • the fe fragment

  • the constant H region

  • the constants

Explanation

Question 29 of 152

1

The chemical complement pathway is activated by

Select one of the following:

  • microbial endotoxins

  • antigen-antibody complex

  • microbial proteins

Explanation

Question 30 of 152

1

All of the following statement about exotoxins are true expect

Select one of the following:

  • they are produce mainly by gram (+) bacteria

  • they may be neutralized by antitoxins

  • they are proteins

  • they are heat stable at 100*

Explanation

Question 31 of 152

1

In Solid media bacterial growth is detected by observing

Select one of the following:

  • appearance of colonies

  • development of pellet

  • development of turbidity

  • a surface membrane

Explanation

Question 32 of 152

1

The last phase of bacterial growth curve is:

Select one of the following:

  • log phase

  • lag phase

  • stationary phase

  • phase of decline

Explanation

Question 33 of 152

1

Which of the following component is not found in the gram(-) cell wall

Select one of the following:

  • lipopolysaccharide

  • peptidoglycan

  • teichoic acids

  • O antigen

Explanation

Question 34 of 152

1

The antiseptic is:

Select one of the following:

  • an antimicrobial agent that can be used on inanimate object

  • an antimicrobial agent that can be used on living tissue

  • an antibiotic

  • an enzyme

Explanation

Question 35 of 152

1

Klett is a staining procedure for visualizing:

Select one of the following:

  • spores

  • capsules

  • volutine granules

  • nucleotid

Explanation

Question 36 of 152

1

All of the following media are differential except:

Select one of the following:

  • Teilurite agar

  • Eosin-methylene blue agar(Levine)

  • Moller-hiton agar

  • Deoxycholate citrate

Explanation

Question 37 of 152

1

Immunoprophylaxis of tuberculosis includes:

Select one of the following:

  • live affenuated vaccine BCG

  • injection of antimycobacterial serum

  • passive transfer of ready made antibodies from sensitized person

  • a toxoid

Explanation

Question 38 of 152

1

Passive immunization is an application of:

Select one of the following:

  • small doses of infective agent

  • ready made antibodies, formed by another host in response to artificial immunization or to natural infection

  • toxoids

  • killed vaccines

Explanation

Question 39 of 152

1

Which of the following statements about exotoxins are true:

Select one or more of the following:

  • they are produced mainly by gram(+) bacteria

  • they may be neutralized by antitoxins

  • they are proteins

  • they are heat stable at 100*

Explanation

Question 40 of 152

1

Which of the following is not a distinctive characteristic of viruses

Select one or more of the following:

  • viruses lack the machinery for protein synthesis

  • viruses require living cells for replication

  • viruses replicate by a process of binary fission

  • viral genomes are either DNA or RNA but not both

Explanation

Question 41 of 152

1

the immune response elicited by Salk’s inactivated polio vaccine is deficient in specific

Select one of the following:

  • secretory lgA

  • serum IgA

  • serum lgM

  • IgG

Explanation

Question 42 of 152

1

All of the following are characteristics of the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV)expect?

Select one or more of the following:

  • it bind to CD4 molecule preferentially

  • it contains gp120 and gp30 envelope proteins

  • it is the causative agent of AIDS

  • it contains DNA within its core

Explanation

Question 43 of 152

1

Complement fixation test requires

Select one of the following:

  • dissolved antigen

  • corpusculum antigen

  • antitoxin

  • complement

Explanation

Question 44 of 152

1

Which of the immunoglobin molecule is pentamenie

Select one of the following:

  • lgM

  • IgG

  • lgD

  • lgE

  • lgA

Explanation

Question 45 of 152

1

Resection of the transplanted organ due to preformed antibodies in recipient is defined

Select one of the following:

  • hyper acute

  • aclerated

  • acute

  • chronic

Explanation

Question 46 of 152

1

microorganisms can be defined as living creatures so small that are not visible by eye

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 47 of 152

1

Loffler staining procedure stains bacteria in

Select one of the following:

  • blue

  • red

  • green

  • yellow

Explanation

Question 48 of 152

1

Which of the following is not true related to endotoxins

Select one of the following:

  • are secreted from cells

  • can be linked to meningococcemia

  • produced by gram negative microorganism

  • can cause fever

Explanation

Question 49 of 152

1

Gram negative bacteria differ from gram(+) organism because they passes?

Select one of the following:

  • LPC(A)

  • Peptidoglycan

  • Only a cytoplasmic membrane

  • Lipoteichoic acid

Explanation

Question 50 of 152

1

Most bacteria increase in number through the process of

Select one of the following:

  • binary fission

  • budding

  • sporulation

  • sexual reproduction

Explanation

Question 51 of 152

1

The term “growth” when for microorganism refer to

Select one of the following:

  • increase in cell number

  • production of endospores

  • the age and size of the cell

  • all of the above

Explanation

Question 52 of 152

1

All of the following statement about bacteria cell division are true except:

Select one or more of the following:

  • all bacteria double their number every 1 hour

  • bacterial times are influenced by environmental conditions

  • the two bacterial cells following division are genetically identical, they are ones

  • all the above

Explanation

Question 53 of 152

1

Bacterial nucleotid consist of

Select one of the following:

  • no chromosomes

  • one chromosome

  • several chromosome

Explanation

Question 54 of 152

1

Bacterial capsule can be visual sated by:

Select one of the following:

  • gram stain

  • loeffler stain

  • klett stain

  • moller stain

Explanation

Question 55 of 152

1

Lipopolysacharides can be found in large amount in:

Select one of the following:

  • gram(+) bacterial wall

  • gram (-) bacterial wall

  • both

  • none of above

Explanation

Question 56 of 152

1

Complex methods for bacterial staining are

Select one or more of the following:

  • Loeffler stain

  • Pfefiffer stain

  • Gram stain

  • ZiehI-Neelsen stain

Explanation

Question 57 of 152

1

Specific identity (serotype) of influenza virus can be accomplished by:

Select one of the following:

  • hemmagglutination inhibition test

  • neutralization test

  • complement fixation test

  • hemadsorbtion test

Explanation

Question 58 of 152

1

enlargement of one or both parotid glands in the common clinical manifestation of:

Select one of the following:

  • measles

  • mumps

  • rubella

  • grippe

Explanation

Question 59 of 152

1

The initial replication of human poliovirus starts in:

Select one of the following:

  • pharyngeal and intestinal mucosa

  • blood

  • brain

  • joint

Explanation

Question 60 of 152

1

In congenital rubella the fetus produce:

Select one of the following:

  • IgM

  • IgG

  • lgA

  • lgE

Explanation

Question 61 of 152

1

The most common classification system used in microbiology is binomal and was established by:

Select one of the following:

  • Pasteur

  • Koch

  • Linnaeus

  • Gram

Explanation

Question 62 of 152

1

Common pili play role in bacterial;

Select one of the following:

  • conjugation

  • adherence to surface

  • motility

  • precipitation

Explanation

Question 63 of 152

1

Endotoxins are:

Select one of the following:

  • found in gram (+) bacteria

  • found in gram(-) bacteria

  • proteins

  • a structural component of the spore

Explanation

Question 64 of 152

1

Which of the following techniques allows to start with a single piece of microbial DNA and produce billions of copies in matter of hour

Select one of the following:

  • PCR

  • ELlSA

  • hybridoma biotechnology

  • IFA

Explanation

Question 65 of 152

1

Which of the following is the fastest way to kill endospores

Select one of the following:

  • autoclave at 121*C

  • hot air at 160*C

  • clorox solution

  • filtration

Explanation

Question 66 of 152

1

Gram positive bacterium is most susceptible to the action of penicillin in the following phase of growth?

Select one of the following:

  • lag

  • log

  • stationary

  • decline

Explanation

Question 67 of 152

1

The primary immune response include participation of?

Select one of the following:

  • IgM

  • lgG

  • lgD

  • lgE

  • lgA

Explanation

Question 68 of 152

1

The first vaccine was used against:

Select one of the following:

  • measles

  • tuberculosis

  • hepatitis

  • small pox

Explanation

Question 69 of 152

1

The alternative pathway of complement activation is:

Select one of the following:

  • T lymphocytes dependent

  • antibody independent

  • antibody dependent

  • T lymphocytes independent

Explanation

Question 70 of 152

1

Which of the immunoglobulins mediates the local immunity

Select one of the following:

  • lgA

  • lgM

  • lgG

  • lgD

  • lgE

Explanation

Question 71 of 152

1

The formation of pharyngeal pseudomembrane is not indicative for

Select one of the following:

  • tuberculosis

  • diphtheria

  • whooping

  • gas gangrene

Explanation

Question 72 of 152

1

The most potent biological toxin known is

Select one of the following:

  • clastridiumbotidinum exotoxin

  • staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin

  • bacillus cereus toxin

  • clostridium perfringes exotoxin

Explanation

Question 73 of 152

1

The special staining method used for microscopic diagnosis of tuberculosis

Select one of the following:

  • Gram

  • Klett

  • Ziehl-Neelsen

  • Moller

Explanation

Question 74 of 152

1

Cytopathic effect is

Select one of the following:

  • killing of bacteria by viruses

  • absorption of red blood cells by surface of cultured cells

  • damage of cultured infected cells and associated morphological change

  • antigen-antibody reaction

Explanation

Question 75 of 152

1

Viruses contain the following type of nucleic acid

Select one of the following:

  • DNA-single strained

  • DNA double strained

  • DNA or RNA

  • both DNA and RNA

Explanation

Question 76 of 152

1

Hepatitis B virus is most often transmitted by

Select one of the following:

  • sexual contact

  • air

  • blood transfusion

  • ticks

Explanation

Question 77 of 152

1

Varicellazinster virus is a member of

Select one of the following:

  • hypersnviridae

  • hepadnaviridae

  • retroviridae

  • paenviridae

Explanation

Question 78 of 152

1

Epstizin Bar Virus is the causative agent of:

Select one of the following:

  • measles

  • mumps

  • rubella

  • infectious mononucleosis

Explanation

Question 79 of 152

1

Sabin's vaccine against poliomyelitis is secretory immunity in the intestine

Select one of the following:

  • a killed vaccine

  • a toxoid

  • monovalent hysosome vaccine

Explanation

Question 80 of 152

1

Spherical bacteria,arranged in cluster are known as:

Select one of the following:

  • Staphylococci

  • Streptococci

  • Diplococci

  • Vibrios

Explanation

Question 81 of 152

1

Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective one as disinfectant and antiseptic

Select one of the following:

  • 95%

  • 70%

  • 50%

  • 30%

Explanation

Question 82 of 152

1

Penicillin specifically inhibits:

Select one of the following:

  • protein synthesis

  • peptidoglyconsynthesis

  • nucleic acid synthesis

  • formation of capsules

Explanation

Question 83 of 152

1

Conjugation differs from transformation and transduction in that it requires a contact between the donor and the recipient:

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 84 of 152

1

Which of the following structure is involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface?

Select one of the following:

  • capsule

  • flagella

  • pilli

  • measurants

Explanation

Question 85 of 152

1

Bacterial growth medium that contains penicillins:

Select one of the following:

  • minimal medium

  • selective medium

  • differential medium

Explanation

Question 86 of 152

1

The antigen-antibody complex activates complement through:

Select one of the following:

  • classical pathway

  • alternative pathway

  • lectin pathway

Explanation

Question 87 of 152

1

Complement is

Select one of the following:

  • an acute phase protein

  • an extracellular microbial factor

  • a manose receptor

  • multicomponent humeral factor trigger enzyme cascade in innate immunity

Explanation

Question 88 of 152

1

The unit of measurement of bacterial size is:

Select one of the following:

  • nanometer

  • micrometer

  • millimeter

  • kilobase

Explanation

Question 89 of 152

1

Bacterial growth curve is generally separated into

Select one of the following:

  • two distinct phase

  • three distinct phase

  • four distinct phase

  • five distinct phase

Explanation

Question 90 of 152

1

Resistance to many antibiotics is carried by:

Select one of the following:

  • R plasmids

  • sex pilli

  • spores

  • capsules

Explanation

Question 91 of 152

1

Which of the following structures are known to protect bacteria from phago... by white blood cells

Select one of the following:

  • flagella

  • spores

  • capsules

  • ribosomes

Explanation

Question 92 of 152

1

Spherical bacteria, arranged in chains are known as:

Select one of the following:

  • staphylococci

  • streptococci

  • neisseria

  • bacilli

Explanation

Question 93 of 152

1

Endotoxins are associated with

Select one of the following:

  • Catalase production

  • Flagella in gram (-) bacteria

  • LPS (lipopolyshoccharide)

  • Capsules in gram (-) bacteria

Explanation

Question 94 of 152

1

The antigenic typing of salmonella spp detects:

Select one of the following:

  • D, Vi and H antigens

  • Protein

  • M protein

  • Endotoxin

Explanation

Question 95 of 152

1

Which of the following test is used to detect delayed type hypersensitivity

Select one of the following:

  • ASO test

  • CFT

  • Mantoux test

  • None of the above

Explanation

Question 96 of 152

1

Which are the most important immunoglobulins at the mucosal surfaces

Select one of the following:

  • IgA

  • lgM

  • lgD

  • lgG

Explanation

Question 97 of 152

1

Salmonella spp is causative agent of

Select one or more of the following:

  • typhoid fever

  • cholera

  • paratyphoid fever

  • bacterial dysentery

Explanation

Question 98 of 152

1

There are animal reservoirs for:

Select one or more of the following:

  • leptosspinosis

  • salmonellosis

  • cholera

  • diphtheria

Explanation

Question 99 of 152

1

Bacteria could be cultured in artificial nutrient media

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 100 of 152

1

The mean doubling time for most bacterium is

Select one of the following:

  • 8 hours

  • 24 hours

  • 20-30 minutes

  • 4 weeks

Explanation

Question 101 of 152

1

Dark field microscopy is usually applied for

Select one of the following:

  • stained preperations with irreversion cell between cochser

  • unstrained wet preparation with oil between the conduncer and the slide irreverSion

  • unstained wet properations with water between the condenser and the slide

  • ultra thin reactions of tissue

Explanation

Question 102 of 152

1

Which of the following component contain peptidoglycan?

Select one of the following:

  • Gram(+) cell walls +F

  • DNA

  • Flagella

  • Cytoplasmic membrane

Explanation

Question 103 of 152

1

The clorax solution and ethyl alcohol are example of:

Select one of the following:

  • sterilizing agents

  • disinfection

  • antibiotics

  • base analogs

Explanation

Question 104 of 152

1

Which immunoglobin contain j chain

Select one of the following:

  • IgA and lgG

  • lgM and lgA

  • lgG and IgM

  • lgD and lgG

  • lgE

Explanation

Question 105 of 152

1

Which of the following are DNA viruses?

Select one of the following:

  • adenoviruses

  • picornviruses

  • paramyxoviruses

  • orthomyoviruses

Explanation

Question 106 of 152

1

Which one is considered a vireal disease viral

Select one or more of the following:

  • herpes simplex type 1

  • herpes simplex type 2

  • rubella vire

  • medual vire

Explanation

Question 107 of 152

1

Which of the following diagnostic markers persist in the blood stream of HBV infected individuals and is found an (imcatox) of infection

Select one of the following:

  • HBsAg

  • anti-HAV antibodies

  • H-2

  • none of the above

Explanation

Question 108 of 152

1

All of the following statement about poliomyelitis are correct except:

Select one of the following:

  • virus is transmitted mainly in respiratory droplets

  • most disease occur apparent sub-clinical infection

  • persistantviremiafam CNS involvement

  • spinal poliomyelitis involves the anterior born cells of the spinal cord

Explanation

Question 109 of 152

1

During the incubation period of the HBV infection which of the following viral diagnostic marker is most abundant in blood and is commonly used for diagnosis

Select one of the following:

  • HBSAg

  • Anti-HAV antibodies

  • Anti-HCV antibodies

Explanation

Question 110 of 152

1

Influenza virus on RNA virus:

Select one of the following:

  • True
  • False

Explanation

Question 111 of 152

1

Human herpes virus 2 is usually associated with:

Select one of the following:

  • genital herpes

  • measles

  • rubelia

  • erpes zoster

Explanation

Question 112 of 152

1

Human immunodeficiency virus belongs to:

Select one of the following:

  • adenoviridae

  • retroviridae

  • togruviridae

  • poxviridae

Explanation

Question 113 of 152

1

The presence of low levels lgG but not lgM antibodies to rubella virus in the newborn suggests:

Select one of the following:

  • congenital infection

  • autoimmune disease

  • presence of maternal antibodies

  • allergy

Explanation

Question 114 of 152

1

A four fold or greater increase in autoantibody titer,measured by appropriate available viral diagnostic test and performed on serum collected at time of disease onset and 14 days later would:

Select one of the following:

  • be highly suggestive to the presence of the disease

  • indicate previous infection in healthy person

  • not be sufficient for diagnosis

  • not be informative since the serum specimens were not collected at proper interval of time

Explanation

Question 115 of 152

1

Current acute HAV infection is best diagnosed by the presence of?

Select one of the following:

  • HBgcAg

  • anti-HBcsntibodies

  • IgM anti-HAV

  • delta antigen

Explanation

Question 116 of 152

1

Which of the following microorganisms lack a cell wall

Select one of the following:

  • ram positive cocci

  • gram negative rods

  • richetsia

  • mycoplasma

Explanation

Question 117 of 152

1

All of the following statement are characteristics for group A strepcoccus?

Select one or more of the following:

  • they are rarely resistaned to paraisitis

  • they produce beta-hemolysis on blood agar

  • they are sensitive to bacitracin

  • they are of the normal environment fiera

Explanation

Question 118 of 152

1

Herpes virus varicella is a member of (zoster) (varicella zoster virus is member of:

Select one of the following:

  • herpes viridae

  • poxviridae

  • hepadnaviridae

  • retroviridae

Explanation

Question 119 of 152

1

Which of the following Viruses cause infection mononucleosis?

Select one of the following:

  • Herpes simplex 1

  • Epstein-barr-viruses

  • CMV

  • Varicella zoster virus

Explanation

Question 120 of 152

1

Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are

Select one of the following:

  • anaphylactic and atopic

  • comlement-mediated cytolysis

  • immune-complexes mediated

  • cell mediated with participation

Explanation

Question 121 of 152

1

The causative agent of AIDS is:

Select one of the following:

  • Human herpes virus

  • Haemophilus influenzae

  • Human papilloma virus

  • HIV

Explanation

Question 122 of 152

1

Which of the following components contain peptidoglycan?

Select one or more of the following:

  • Gram (+) cell walls

  • Gram (-) cell walls

  • DNA

  • Cytoplasmic membrane

Explanation

Question 123 of 152

1

Risus sardonicus refers to:

Select one of the following:

  • diphtheria

  • measles

  • tetanus

  • botulism

Explanation

Question 124 of 152

1

Slide agglutination test detects:

Select one of the following:

  • microbial antigens

  • unknown

  • viral particles

  • bacterial phagocytosis

Explanation

Question 125 of 152

1

Protein A is a surface protein covalently bound to most strains of

Select one of the following:

  • staphylococcus aureus

  • staphylococcus epidermidis

  • streptococcus pyogenes

  • streptococcus viridans

Explanation

Question 126 of 152

1

Which of the following interferons participate in the .... immune response?

Select one of the following:

  • interferon alpha

  • interferon beta

  • interferon gamma

Explanation

Question 127 of 152

1

The microbiological test that is widely used for the diagnosis of staphylococcal

Select one of the following:

  • Agglutination test type wide

  • Agglutination type ....oneresh

  • ASO

  • CFT

Explanation

Question 128 of 152

1

Which of the following statements are characteristics for group A streptococci

Select one or more of the following:

  • they are rarely resistant to penicillin

  • they produce Beta-hemolysis on blood agar

  • they are sensitive to bacitracin

  • they are part of the normal intestinal flora

Explanation

Question 129 of 152

1

Which of the following vaccines is of routine use?

Select one or more of the following:

  • against smallpox

  • against hepatitis

  • against measles

  • against mumps

Explanation

Question 130 of 152

1

Which of the following vaccines is not of routine use anymore

Select one of the following:

  • against smallpox

  • against hepatitis B

  • against measles

  • )against mumps (not* hangislkfarkliysacvpodur)

Explanation

Question 131 of 152

1

Which are is consider venereal disease virus

Select one or more of the following:

  • herpes simplex type 1

  • herpes simplex 2

  • rubella

Explanation

Question 132 of 152

1

The subspecies group are identified on the basis of

Select one or more of the following:

  • arrangement of the bacteria on the preparations

  • their antigen

  • gram staining

  • their growth requirement

Explanation

Question 133 of 152

1

The main pathogenic factor of clostridium tetani is

Select one of the following:

  • endotoxin

  • exotoxin

  • spores

  • capsule

Explanation

Question 134 of 152

1

RIA makes use of:

Select one of the following:

  • fluorescence labels

  • enzymes

  • radioactive labels

  • it is not labelled immune reaction

Explanation

Question 135 of 152

1

Which of the following immunoglobulin is the principal immunoglobin in exocrine secretion?

Select one of the following:

  • lgM

  • lgG

  • lgD

  • IgE

  • IgA

Explanation

Question 136 of 152

1

The causative agents of tetanus is:

Select one of the following:

  • clostridium difficile

  • clostridium botulinum

  • clostridium perfingens

  • clostridium tetani

Explanation

Question 137 of 152

1

The positive coagulase test for staphylococcus aureus is indicated by:

Select one of the following:

  • character of plasma

  • clotting of plasma

  • formation of red ring

  • beta hemolysis on blood agar

Explanation

Question 138 of 152

1

This microorganism causes a sexually transmitted disease that can be diagnosed by demonstration of cytoplasmic inclusions in......?

Select one of the following:

  • Chlamydia atrachomatis

  • Candida albicans

  • Trepomena pfedure

  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Explanation

Question 139 of 152

1

Viridans streptococci:

Select one of the following:

  • can cause neonatal sepsis

  • are involved in urinary infection in females

  • are the most frequent cause of bacterial endocarditis

  • cause zoonotic disease transmitted to humans primary by contact with animal urine

Explanation

Question 140 of 152

1

Which of the following statement about microbiological diagnosis of diphtheria is correct

Select one of the following:

  • Microorganisms are coagulase positive

  • microscopy from culture on lofller’s medium or tallarite agar would reveal characteristic chinede letter formation

  • microorganisms are impossible to be identified by Neisser stain because of their small size

  • microorganisms are delicate and can be cultured only in ell culture

Explanation

Question 141 of 152

1

Exotoxins play a determinant role in the pathogenesis of each of the following EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • botulism

  • diphtheria

  • tetanus

  • plaque

Explanation

Question 142 of 152

1

Influenza virus belongs to:

Select one of the following:

  • hepado viridae

  • orthomyxoviridae

  • paramyxoviridae

  • hypesviridae

Explanation

Question 143 of 152

1

Which of the following is the leading cause of post transfusion hepatitis producing the highest frequency of chronic disease

Select one of the following:

  • hepatitis A virus (HAV)

  • hepatitls B virus (HBV)

  • hepatitis C virus (HCV)

  • hepatitis D

Explanation

Question 144 of 152

1

Which of the following immunoglobulins has the highest serum level in healthy adults

Select one of the following:

  • lgA

  • lgM

  • lgG

  • IgE

  • IgD

Explanation

Question 145 of 152

1

Trepanemapallidum is the causative agent of:

Select one of the following:

  • typhoid fever

  • plague

  • syphilis

  • tuberculosis

Explanation

Question 146 of 152

1

The pathogenesis and clinical of primary tuberculosis are characterized by

Select one of the following:

  • cell mediated response with macrophage and lymphocyte infiltrating the focus of infection

  • a complement mediated immune response

  • a humoral mediated immune response

  • an absence of adaptive immune response

Explanation

Question 147 of 152

1

Which form of plague is most likely to be transmitted from human to human:

Select one of the following:

  • typhoidal

  • sylvatic

  • pneumonic

  • ulceroglandular

Explanation

Question 148 of 152

1

Staphylococci differ from streptococci in:

Select one of the following:

  • gram reactivity

  • cell diameter

  • acid fast staining

  • catalase production

Explanation

Question 149 of 152

1

All of the following characteristics of Salmonella typhimurium are true EXCEPT:

Select one or more of the following:

  • has a multianimal reservoir

  • is one of the most common causes of enterocolitis

  • ferments lactose

  • is a gram (-), molite, endotoxin bearing rod

Explanation

Question 150 of 152

1

Which of the following characteristics concerning influenza A virus is correct

Select one of the following:

  • it can always cause generalized infections

  • it can always cause encephalitis

  • it has the capacity to undergo shift and drift

  • it has nonsegmented negative sense genoma

Explanation

Question 151 of 152

1

Hepatitis A virus is most often transmitter by

Select one of the following:

  • sexual contact

  • contaminated food

  • blood transfusion

  • shared needles

Explanation

Question 152 of 152

1

All of the following statements are characteristic for group A streptococci EXCEPT:

Select one of the following:

  • they are rarely resistant to Penicillin

  • they produce beta-hemolysis on blood agar

  • they are sensitive to bacitracin

  • they are part of the normal intestinal flora

Explanation